PROVINCE OF THE QUEEN OF MARTYRS IN VIETNAM

HOUSE OF SAINT VICENT PHAM HIEU LIEM  APOSTOLIC SCHOOL

TAM HÀ 02/2010

INDEX

01)  1995年08月语法题...................... 005

02)  1995年10月语法题...................... 017

03)  1995年12月语法题...................... 030

04)  1996年01月语法题...................... 042

05)  1996年05月语法题...................... 056

06)  1996年08月语法题...................... 068

07)  1996年10月语法题...................... 081

08)  1997年01月语法题...................... 093

09)  1997年05月语法题...................... 107

10)  1997年08月语法题...................... 120

11)  1997年10月语法题...................... 132

12)  1998年01月语法题...................... 145

13)  1998年05月语法题...................... 158

14)  1998年08月语法题...................... 171

15)  1998年10月语法题...................... 184

16)  1999年01月语法题...................... 197

17)  1999年05月语法题...................... 210

18)  1999年08月语法题...................... 224

19)  1999年10月语法题...................... 236

20)  2000年01月语法题.................... 250

21)  2000年05月语法题.................... 263

22)  2000年08月语法题.................... 276

23)  2000年10月语法题.................... 290

24)  2001年01月语法题.................... 303

25)  2001年05月语法题.................... 317

26)  2001年08月语法题.................... 331

27)  2001年10月语法题.................... 344

28)  2002年01月语法题.................... 357

29)  2002年05月语法题.................... 371

30)  2002年08月语法题.................... 385

31)  2002年09月语法题.................... 398

32)  2002年10月语法题.................... 411

33)  2003年01月语法题.................... 424

34)  2003年08月语法题.................... 437

35)  2003年10月语法题.................... 451

36)  2004年01月语法题.................... 465

37)  2004年05月语法题.................... 478

38)  2004年08月语法题.................... 492

1995年08月语法题

1. According to the third law of thermodynamics, _____ possible is –273.16 degrees centigrade.

(A) that temperature is lowest

(B) the temperature is lower

(C) lowest temperature

(D) the lowest temperature.

2. After the First World War, the author Anais Nin became interested in the art movement known as Surrealism and in psychoanalysis, both __ her novels and shorts stories.

(A) in which the influence

(B) of which influenced

(C) to have influence

(D) its influence in

3. Muskrats generally _____ close to the edge of a bog, where their favorite plant foods grow plentifully.

(A) staying

(B) they are staying

(C) stay

(D) to stay there

4. Oliver Ellsworth,____ of the United States Supreme Court, was the author of the bill that established the federal court system.

(A) he was the third chief justice

(B) the third chief justice was

(C) who the third chief justice

(D) the third chief justice

5. _____ Colonial period the great majority of Connecticut’s settlers came from England.

(A) Since

(B) The time

(C) During the

(D) It was

6. A politician can make a legislative proposal more _____ by giving specific examples of what its effect will be.

(A) to understanding

(B) understandably

(C) understandable

(D) when understood

7. Playing the trumpet with dazzling originality,___ dominated jazz for 20 years.

(A) Louis Armstrong

(B) The influence of Louis Armstrong

(C) The music of Louis Armstrong

(D) Louis Armstrong’s talent

8. Before every presidential election in the United States, the statisticians try to guess the proportion of the population that __ for each candidate.

(A) are voted

(B) voting

(C) to be voted

(D) will vote

9. _____at a river ford on the Donner Pass route to California, the city of Reno grew as bridges and railroad were built.

(A) Settle

(B) To settle

(C) It was settling

(D) Having been settled

10. The air inside a house or office building often has higher concentrations of contaminants _____ heavily polluted outside air.

(A) than does

(B) more

(C) as some that are

(D) like of

11. The decimal numeral system is one of the _____ ways of expressing numbers.

(A) useful most world’s

(B) world’s most useful

(C) useful world’s most

(D) most world’s useful

12. Emily Dickinson’s garden was a place __ great inspiration for her poems.

(A) that she drew

(B) by drawing her

(C) from which she drew

(D) drawn from which

13. The mountains surrounding Los Angeles effectively shield the city from the hot, dry winds of the Mojave Desert, __ the circulation of air.

(A) but they also prevent

(B) also prevented by them

(C) and also to prevent

(D) and also preventing

14. Not only _____ to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil.

(A) to use seismology

(B) is seismology used

(C) seismology is used

(D) using seismology

15. Nebraska has floods in some years, _____.

(A) in others drought

(B) droughts are others

(C) while other droughts

(D) others in drought

16. Pop Art was a movement of the 1950’s and 1960’s whom imagery was based on readily recognized American products and people.

17. Because the tachinid fly is a parasite of harmful insects, much species have been imported into the United States to combat insect pests.

18. All almost the electricity for industrial use comes from large generators driven by steam turbines.

19. The Egyptians first discovered that drying fruit preserved it, made it sweeter, and improvement its flavor.

20. During his twelve year there, Ellsi Marsalis turned the New Orleans Center for the Creative Arts into a rich training place for future jazz stars.

21. Algebra is the branch of mathematics concerned with operations on sets of numbers or other elements that are often represented at symbols.

22. As her focus changed, the love poetry that Edna St. Vincent Millay produced in the 1920’s increasing gave way to poetry dealing with social injustice.

23. When a pearl is cut in half and examined under a microscope, but its layers can be seen.

24. A conductor uses signals and gesture to let the musicians to know when to play various parts of a composition.

25. If a glass lizard loses its tails, a new one grows to replace it.

26. Many of the recording instruments used in vary branches of science are kymographs.

27. It was near end of prehistoric times that the first wheeled vehicles appeared.

28. Martin Luther King Jr.’s magnificent speaking ability enabling him to effectively express the demands for social justice for Black Americans.

29. Designers of athletic footwear finely tune each category of shoe to its particularly activity by studying human motion and physiology.

30. Gothic Revival architecture has several basis characteristics that distinguish it from other nineteenth-century architectural styles.

31. Since rats are destructive and may carry disease, therefore many cities try to exterminate them.

32. In the United States among 60 percent of the space on the pages of newspapers is reserved for advertising.

33. Recently in the automobile industry, multinational companies have developed to the point where such few cars can be described as having been made entirely in one country.

34. Scientists believe that by altering the genetic composition of plants it is possible to develop specimens that are resisting to disease and have increased food value.

35. The purpose of traveler’s checks is to protect travelers from theft and accidental lost of money.

36. The early periods of aviation in the United States was marked by exhibition flights made by individual fliers or by teams of performers at country fairs.

37. The American anarchist Emma Goldman infused her spirited lectures, publishes, and demonstrations with a passionate belief in the freedom of the individual.

38. Being the biggest expanse of brackish water in the world, the Baltic Sea is of special interesting to scientists.

39. The main advertising media include direct mail, radio, television, magazines, and newspaper.

40. While studying the chemistry of human body, Dr. Rosalyn Yalow won a Nobel Prize for the research she conducted on the role of hormones.

Question 1-9

The ocean bottom – a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of the Earth – is a vast frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep – ocean floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over (5) 3,6000 meters deep. Totally without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth's surface, the deep – ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space.

Although researchers have taken samples of deep – ocean rocks and (10) sediments for over a century, the first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of the National Science Foundation's Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using techniques first developed for the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP's drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady (15) position on the ocean's surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor.

The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15 – year research program that ended in November 1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed (20)sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger's core samples have allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to calculate what it will probably look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar (25) Challenger's voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth.

The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding the world's past climates. (30)Deep – ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land – based evidence of past climates. This record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change – information that may be used to predict future climates.

1. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a "frontier" in line 2 because it

(A) is not a popular area for scientific research

(B) contains a wide variety of life forms

(C) attracts courageous explorers

(D) is an unknown territory

2. The word "inaccessible" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) unrecognizable

(B) unreachable

(C) unusable

(D) unsafe

3. The author mentions outer space in line 8 because

(A) the Earth's climate millions of years ago was similar to conditions in outer space

(B) it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment

(C) rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor

(D) techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration

4. Which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?

(A) It is a type of submarine.

(B) It is an ongoing project.

(C) It has gone on over 100 voyages.

(D) It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.

5. The word "extracting" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) breaking

(B) locating

(C) removing

(D) analyzing

6. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was

(A) an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas

(B) the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom

(C) composed of geologists from all over the world

(D) funded entirely by the gas and oil industry

7. The word "strength" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) basis

(B) purpose

(C) discovery

(D) endurance

8. The word "they" in line 31 refers to

(A) years

(B) climates

(C) sediments

(D) cores

9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project?

(A) Geologists were able to determine the Earth's appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.

(B) Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.

(C) Information was revealed about the Earth's past climatic changes.

(D) Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen.

Questions 10-21

Basic to any understanding of Canada in 20 years after the Second World War is the country's impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1996. In September 1966 Canada's population passed the 20 million mark. Most of this surging (5)growth came from natural increase. The depression of the 1930's and the war had held back marriages and the catching – up process began after 1945. The baby boom continued through the decade of the 1950's, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of increase had been exceeded only once (10)before in Canada's history, in the decade before 1911, when the prairies were being settled. Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950's supported a growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per (15) thousand, one of the highest in the world.

After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued falling until in 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society. Young (20) people were staying at school longer, more women were working, young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families, rising living standards were cutting down the size of families. It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since the (25) time of the Industrial Revolution.

Although the growth in Canada's population has slowed down by 1966 (the increase in the first half of the 1960's was only nine percent). Another large population wave was coming over the horizon. It would be composed of the children of the children who were born during the period of the high (30) birth rate prior to 1957.

10. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Educational changes in Canadian society.

(B) Canada during the Second World War

(C) Population trends in postwar Canada

(D) Standards of living in Canada

11. According to the passage, when did Canada's baby boom begin?

(A) In the decade after 1911

(B) After 1945

(C) During the depression of the 1930's

(D) In 1966

12. The word "five" in line 3 refers to

(A) Canadians

(B) Years

(C) Decades

(D) Marriages

13. The word "surging" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) new

(B) extra

(C) accelerating

(D) surprising

14. The author suggests that in Canada during the 1950's

(A) the urban population decreased rapidly

(B) fewer people married

(C) economic conditions were poor

(D) the birth rate was very high

15. The word "trend" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) tendency

(B) aim

(C) growth

(D) directive

16. The word "peak" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) pointed

(B) dismal

(C) mountain

(D) maximum

17. When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest postwar level?

(A) 1966

(B) 1957

(C) 1956

(D) 1951

18. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957 EXCEPT

(A) people being better educated

(B) people getting married earlier

(C) better standards of living

(D) couples buying houses

19. It can be inferred from the passage that before the industrial Revolution

(A) families were larger

(B) population statistic were unreliable

(C) the population grew steadily

(D) economic conditions were bad

20. The word "It" in line 28 refers to

(A) horizon

(B) population wave

(C) nine percent

(D) first half

21. The phrase "prior to" in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) behind

(B) Since

(C) During

(D) Preceding

Questions 22-30

Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over conventionally grown and marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods – a term whose meaning varies greatly – frequently proclaim that such products are (5) safer and more nutritious than others.

The growing interest of consumers in the safety and more nutritional quality of the typical North American diet is a welcome development. However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping claims that the food supply is unsafe or in adequate in meeting nutritional needs. (10)Although most of these claims are not supported by scientific evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general public to separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits to health have (15) become widely publicized and form the basis for folklore.

Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for "no-aging" diets, new vitamins, and other wonder foods. There are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally superior to unfertilized eggs, that (20)untreated grains are better than fumigated grains and the like.

One thing that most organically grown food products seem to have in common is that they cost more than conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are misled if they believe organic foods can maintain health and provide better nutritional quality than conventionally (25) grown foods. So there is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food and buy and buy only expensive organic foods instead.

22. The world "Advocates" in line 3 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

(A) Proponents

(B) Merchants

(C) Inspectors

(D) Consumers

23. In line 5, the word "others" refers to

(A) advantages

(B) advocates

(C) organic foods

(D) products

24. The "welcome development" mentioned in line 7 is an increase in

(A) interest in food safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet

(B) the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet

(C) the amount of healthy food grown in North America

(D) the number of consumers in North America

25. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term "organic foods"?

(A) It is accepted by most nutritionists.

(B) It has been used only in recent years.

(C) It has no fixed meaning.

(D) It is seldom used by consumers.

26.  The word "unsubstantiated" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) unbelievable

(B) uncontested

(C) unpopular

(D) unverified

27.  The word "maintain" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) improve

(B) monitor

(C) preserve

(D) restore

28.  The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foods instead of conventionally grown foods because

(A) organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown foods

(B) many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods

(C) conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods

(D) too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops.

29.  According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally grown foods are often

(A) careless

(B) mistaken

(C) thrifty

(D) wealthy

30. What is the author's attitude toward the claims made by advocates of health foods?

(A) Very enthusiastic

(B) Somewhat favorable

(C) Neutral

(D) Skeptical

Questions 31-40

There are many theories about the beginning of drama in ancient Greece. The one most widely accepted today is based on the assumption that drama evolved from ritual. The argument for this view goes as follows. In the beginning, human beings viewed (5) the natural forces of the world, even the seasonal changes, as unpredictable, and they sought through various means, to control these unknown and feared powers. Those measures which appeared to bring the desired results were then retained and repeated until they hardened into fixed rituals. Eventually stories (10) arose which explained or veiled the mysteries of the rites. As time passed some rituals were abandoned, but the stories, later called myths, persisted and provided material for art and drama.

Those who believe that drama evolved out of ritual also argue that those rites contained the seed of theater because music, dance, (15) masks, and costumes were almost always used. Furthermore, a suitable site had to be provided for performances, and when the entire community did not participate, a clear division was usually made between the "acting area" and the "auditorium." In addition, there were performers, and since considerable importance was (20) attached to avoiding mistakes in the enactment of rites, religious leaders usually assumed that task. Wearing masks and costumes, they often impersonated other people, animals, or supernatural beings, and mimed the desired effect - success in hunt or battle, the coming rain, the revival of the Sun - as an actor (25) might. Eventually such dramatic representations were separated from religious activities.

Another theory traces the theater's origin from the human interest in storytelling. According to this view, tales (about the hunt, war, or other feats) are gradually elaborated, at first through (30)the use of impersonation, action, and dialogue by a narrator and then through the assumption of each of the roles by a different person. A closely related theory traces theater to those dances that are primarily rhythmical and gymnastic or that are imitations of animal movements and sounds.

31.  What does the passage many discuss?

(A) The origins of theater

(B) The role of ritual in modern dance

(C) The importance of storytelling

(D) The variety of early religious activities.

32.  The word "they" in line 6 refers to

(A) seasonal changes

(B) natural forces

(C) theories

(D) human beings

33.  What aspect of drama does the author discuss in the first paragraph?

(A) The reason drams is often unpredictable

(B) The seasons in which dramas were performed

(C) The connection between myths and dramatic plots

(D) The importance of costumes in early drama

34.  Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a common element of theater and ritual?

(A) Dance

(B) Costumes

(C) Music

(D) Magic

35.  The word "considerable" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) thoughtful

(B) substantial

(C) relational

(D) ceremonial

36.  The word "enactment" in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) establishment

(B) performance

(C) authorization

(D) season

37.  The word "they" in line 22 refers to

(A) mistakes

(B) costumes

(C) animals

(D) performers

38.  According to the passage, what is the main difference between ritual and drama?

(A) Ritual uses music whereas drama does not.

(B) Ritual is shorter than drama.

(C) Ritual requires fewer performers than drama.

(D) Ritual has a religious purpose and drama does not.

39.  The passage supports which of the following statements?

(A) No one really knows how the theater began

(B) Myths are no longer represented dramatically.

(C) Storytelling is an important part of dance

(D) Dramatic activities require the use of costumes.

40.  Where in the passage does the author discuss the separation of the stage and the audience?

(A) Lines 10-12

(B) Lines 15-18

(C) Lines 25-26

(D) Lines 28-32

Questions 41-50

Staggering tasks confronted the people of the united States, North and South, when the Civil war ended. About a million and a half soldiers from both sides had to be demobilized, readjusted to civilian life, and reabsorbed by the devastated economy. Civil government also had to be (5) put back on a peacetime basis and interference from the military had to be stopped.

The desperate plight of the South has eclipsed the fact that reconstruction had to be undertaken also in the North, though less spectacularly. Industries had to adjust to peacetime conditions, factories (10) had to be retooled for civilian needs.

Financial problems loomed large in both the North and the South. The national debt had shot up from a modest $65 million in 1861, the year the ear started to nearly $3 billion in 1865, the year the war ended. This was a colossal sum for those days but one that a prudent government could pay. (15) At the same time, war taxes had to be reduced to less burdensome levels.

Physical devastation caused by invading armies, chiefly in the South and border states, had to be repaired. This herculean task was ultimately completed, but with discouraging slowness.

(20) Other important questions needed answering. What would be the future of the four million black people who were freed from slavery? On what basis were the Southern states to be brought back into the Union?

What of the Southern leaders, all of whom were liable to charges of treason? One of these leaders, Jefferson Davis, President of the Southern (25) Confederacy, was the subject of an insulting popular Northern song, "Hang Jeff Davis from a Sour Apple Tree." And even children sang it. Davis was temporarily chained in his prison cell during the early days of his two-year imprisonment. But he and the other Southern leaders were finally released, partly because it was unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a (30) Southern Confederate state, would convict them. All the leaders were finally pardoned by President Johnson in 1868 in an effort to help reconstruction efforts proceed with as little bitterness as possible.

41.  What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Wartime expenditures

(B) Problems facing the United States after the war

(C) Methods of repairing the damage caused by the war

(D) The results of government efforts to revive the economy

42.  The word "Staggering" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) specialized

(B) confusing

(C) various

(D) overwhelming

43.  The word "devastated" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) developing

(B) ruined

(C) complicated

(D) fragile

44.  According to the passage, which of the following statements about the damage in the South is correct?

(A) It was worse than in the North.

(B) The cost was less than expected

(C) It was centered in the border states.

(D) It was remedied rather quickly.

45.  The passage refers to all of the following as necessary steps following the Civil War EXCEPT

(A) helping soldiers readjust

(B) restructuring industry

(C) returning government to normal

(D) increasing taxes

46.  The word "task" in line 18 refers to

(A) raising the tax level

(B) sensible financial choices

(C) worse decisions about former slaves

(D) reconstruction of damaged areas

47.  Why does the author mention a popular song in lines 25-26?

(A) To give attitude towards the South

(B) To illustrate the Northern love of music

(C) To emphasize the cultural differences between the North and the South

(D) To compare the Northern and Southern presidents

48.  Which of the following can be inferred from the phrase "it was unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a Southern Confederate state, would convict them" (lines 29-30)?

(A) Virginians felt betrayed by Jefferson Davis

(B) A popular song insulted Virginians

(C) Virginians were loyal to their leaders

(D) All of the Virginia military leaders had been put in chains.

49.  The word "them" in line 30 refers to

(A) charges

(B) leaders

(C) days

(D) irons

50.  It can be inferred from the passage that President Johnson pardoned the Southern leaders in order to

(A) raise money for the North

(B) repair the physical damage in the South

(C) prevent Northern leaders from punishing more Southerners

(D) help the nation recover from the war.

1995年10月语法题

1.___the demands of aerospace, medicine, and agriculture, engineers are creating exotic new metallic substances.

(A) Meet

(B) Being met are

(C) To meet

(D) They are meeting

2. _____ James A. Bland, “Carry Me Back to Old Virginny” was adapted as the state song

of Virginia in 1940.

(A) Was written by

(B) His writing was

(C) He wrote the

(D) Written by

3. Mary Garden, _____ the early 1900’s, was considered one of the best singing actresses of her time.

(A) a soprano was popular

(B) in a popular soprano

(C) was a popular soprano

(D) a popular soprano in

4. In the realm of psychological theory, Margaret F. Washburn was a dualist __ that motor phenomena have an essential role in psychology.

(A) who she believed

(B) who believed

(C) believed

(D) who did she believe

5. ___ no real boundary to the part of the ocean referred to as a “deep” because of changing water levels and movement in the sea floor.

(A) It is

(B) To be

(C) Being

(D) There is

6. Unlike moderate antislavery advocates, abolitionists _____ an immediate end to slavery.

(A) demanded

(B) they demand

(C) that they demanded

(D) in that they demand

7. A few animals sometimes fool their enemies _____ to be dead.

(A) appear

(B) to appear

(C) by appearing

(D) to be appearing

8. _____ of the mourning dove is made only by the male.

(A) That the sad cooing call

(B) The sad cooing call

(C) Is the sad cooing call

(D) The cooing call is sad.

9. The work of painters in the United States during the early twentieth century is noted for _____ as well as telling stories.

(A) it is representing of images

(B) which images representing

(C) the images representing

(D) representing images

10. Abraham Lincoln insisted that _____ not just on mere opinion but on moral purpose.

(A) to base democracy

(B) for democracy to be based

(C) democracy be based

(D) whenever democracy is based

11. World trade patterns are indicative of the important economic issues _____ confront the world today.

(A) what

(B) that

(C) who

(D) they

12. In the symphony orchestra, bass drums are not ___ kettle drums.

(A) as prevalent

(B) that prevalent

(C) so prevalent as

(D) prevalent than

13. Most natural ports are located where the shoreline is irregular and _____.

(A) deep water

(B) is the water deep

(C) the water is deep

(D) there is the deep water

14. _____ to the reproductive rates of other small mammals, that of the bat is very low indeed.

(A) Compared

(B) It is compared

(C) To be comparing

(D) Have compared

15. _____ native to Europe, the daisy has now spread throughout most of North America.

(A) Although

(B) If it were

(C) In spite of

(D) That it is.

16. On Ellesmere Island in the Arctic one fossil forest consists of a nearly hundred large stumps scattered on an exposed coal bed.

17. The surface conditions on the planet Mars are the more like the Earth’s than are those of any other planet in the solar system.

18. The midnight sun is a phenomenon in which the Sun visible remains in the sky for twenty-four hours or longer.

19. The Humber River and its valley form a major salmon-fishing, lumbering, hunting, and farmer region in western Newfoundland, Canada.

20. Among the parameters that determine whether an environment is suitably for life as we know it are temperature, water availability, and oxygen content.

21. When eggs of some species of insects hatch, the newly born insects look almost like its adult counterparts.

22. Although there are more than 2,000 different variety of candy, many of them are made from a basic boiled mixture of sugar, water, and corn syrup.

23. The capital of the United States, originally New York City, was moved to Philadelphia where stayed until 1800.

24. Migration of animals may be initiated by physiological stimuli such as reproductive changes, external pressures such as weather changes, or a combination of either types of changes.

25. Lawrence Robert Klein received the 1980 Nobel Prize in economics for pioneering the useful of computers to forecast economic activity.

26. The strength, size, and surefootedness of the Hama make it as excellently beast of burden in mountainous regions today as it was in the past.

27. Nuclear energy, despite its early promise as a source of electrical power, is still insignificant in compared with older and safer energy sources.

28. Hawaii’s eight major islands and numerous islets form the only state in the United States that is not lie on the mainland of North America.

29. Established about 1300, the Acoma pucblo in New Mexico is believed to be oldest continuously occupied settlement in the United States.

30. Nocturnal creatures, raccoons forage primarily at night and spend their days rest in their dens.

31. Marian Anderson, in addition to gaining fame as a concert soloist, also served as a United States delegates to the United Nations.

32. Good dental hygiene and a proper diet are necessary for the maintain of sound teeth.

33. Rice adapt better than other grain crops to areas with unfavorable saline, alkaline, or acid sulfate soils.

34. Jeanette Rankin, pacifist and lifetime crusader for social and electoral reform, was the first woman to be a membership of the United States Congress.

35. In the United States, Maryland ranks second only to Virginia as a oyster- producing state.

36. The social games of children help to prepare themselves for their adult roles.

37. Algae have been an extremely important link in the food chain after the beginning of life on Earth as we know it.

38. The chorus plays a large part in any oratorio, linking areas were sung by soloists with segments of choral music.

39. Butte, Montana, had built above large deposits of silver, gold, and copper and became known as “the richest hill on Earth.”

40. Realistic novels, in trying to present life as it actually is, have written many works that are notable for their artistry of style.

Questions 1-9

Atmospheric pressure can support a column of water up to 10 meters high. But plants can move water much higher, the sequoia tree can pump water to its very top, more than 100 meters above the ground. Until the end of the nineteenth century, the movement of water in trees and other tall (5)plants was a mystery. Some botanists hypothesized that the living cells of plants in which all the cells are killed can still move water to appreciable heights. Other explanations for the movement of water in plants have been based on root pressure, a push on the water from the roots at the bottom of the plant. But root pressure is not nearly great enough to (10) push water to the tops of tall trees. Furthermore, the conifers, which are among the tallest trees, have unusually low root pressures.

If water is not pumped to the top of a tall tree, and if it is not pushed to the top of a tall tree, then we may ask, how does it get there? According to the currently accepted cohesion-tension theory, water is pulled there. The (15) pull on a rising column of water in a plant results from the evaporation of water at the top of the plant. As water is lost from the surface of the leaves, a negative pressure, or tension, is created. The evaporated water is replaced by water moving from inside the plant in unbroken columns that extend from the top of a plant to its roots. The (20)same forces that create surface tension in any sample of water are responsible for the maintenance of these unbroken columns of water. When water is confined in tubes of very small bore, the forces of cohesion (the attraction between water molecules) are so great that the strength of a column of water compares with the strength of a steel wire of the same (25) diameter. This cohesive strength permits columns of water to be pulled to great heights without being broken.

1. How many theories does the author mention?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

2. The passage answers which of the following questions?

(A) What is the effect of atmospheric pressure on foliage?

(B) When do dead cells harm plant growth?

(C) How does water get to the tops of trees?

(D) Why is root pressure weak?

3. The word "demonstrated" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) ignored

(B) showed

(C) disguised

(D) distinguished

4. What do the experiments mentioned in lines 7-9 prove?

(A) Plant stems die when deprived of water

(B) Cells in plant stems do not pump water

(C) Plants cannot move water to high altitudes

(D) Plant cells regulate pressure within stems

5. How do botanists know that root pressure is not the only force that moves water in plants?

(A) Some very tall trees have weak root pressure.

(B) Root pressures decrease in winter.

(C) Plants can live after their roots die.

(D) Water in a plant's roots is not connected to water in its stem.

6. Which of the following statements does the passage support?

(A) Water is pushed to the tops of trees.

(B) Botanists have proven that living cells act as pumps.

(C) Atmospheric pressure draws water to the tops of tall trees.

(D) Botanists have changed their theories of how water moves in plants.

7. The word "it" in line 13 refers to

(A) top

(B) tree

(C) water

(D) cohesion-tension theory.

8. The word "there" in line 14 refers to

(A) treetops

(B) roots

(C) water columns

(D) tubes

9. What causes the tension that draws water up a plant?

(A) Humidity

(B) Plant growth

(C) Root pressure

(D) Evaporation

10. The word "extend" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) stretch

(B) branch

(C) increase

(D) rotate

11. According to the passage, why does water travel through plants in unbroken columns?

(A) Root pressure moves the water very rapidly.

(B) The attraction between water molecules in strong.

(C) The living cells of plants push the water molecules together.

(D) Atmospheric pressure supports the columns.

12. Why does the author mention steel wire in line 24?

(A) To illustrate another means of pulling water

(B) To demonstrate why wood is a good building material

(C)  To indicate the size of a column of water

(D) To emphasize the strength of cohesive forces in water

13. Where in the passage does the author give an example of a plant with low root pressure?

(A) Lines 3-5

(B) Lines 7-9

(C) Lines 12-13

(D) Lines 14-16

Question 14-22

Mass transportation revised the social and economic fabric of the American city in three fundamental ways. It catalyzed physical expansion, it sorted out people and land uses, and it accelerated the inherent instability of urban life. By opening vast areas of unoccupied land for residential (5)expansion, the omnibuses, horse railways, commuter trains, and electric trolleys pulled settled regions outward two to four times more distant from city centers than they were in the pre- modern era. In 1850, for example, the borders of Boston lay scarcely two miles from the old business district; by the turn of the century the radius extended ten miles. Now those who (10) could afford it could live far removed from the old city center and still commute there for work, shopping, and entertainment. The new accessibility of land around the periphery of almost every major city sparked an explosion of real estate development and fueled what we now know as urban sprawl. Between 1890 and 1920, for example, some (15)250,000 new residential lots were recorded within the borders of Chicago, most of them located in outlying areas. Over the same period, another 550,000 were plotted outside the city limits but within the metropolitan area. Anxious to take advantage of the possibilities of commuting, real estate developers added 800,000 potential building sites (20) to the Chicago region in just thirty years – lots that could have housed five to six million people.

Of course, many were never occupied; there was always a huge surplus of subdivided, but vacant, land around Chicago and other cities. These excesses underscore a feature of residential expansion related to the (25) growth of mass transportation: urban sprawl was essentially unplanned. It was carried out by thousands of small investors who paid little heed to coordinated land use or to future land users. Those who purchased and prepared land for residential purposes, particularly land near or outside city borders where transit lines and middle-class (30)inhabitants were anticipated, did so to create demand as much as to respond to it. Chicago is a prime example of this process. Real estate subdivision there proceeded much faster than population growth.

14. With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned?

(A) Types of mass transportation.

(B) Instability of urban life.

(C) How supply and demand determine land use.

(D) The effects of mass transportation on urban expansion.

15. The author mentions all of the following as effects of mass transportation on cities EXCEPT

(A) growth in city area

(B) separation of commercial and residential districts.

(C) Changes in life in the inner city.

(D) Increasing standards of living.

16. The word "vast" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) large

(B) basic

(C) new

(D) urban

17. The word "sparked" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) brought about

(B) surrounded

(C) sent out

(D) followed

18. Why does the author mention both Boston and Chicago?

(A) To demonstrate positive and negative effects of growth.

(B) To show that mass transit changed many cities.

(C) To exemplify cities with and without mass transportation.

(D) To contrast their rates of growth

19. The word "potential" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) certain

(B) popular

(C) improved

(D) possible

20. The word "many" in line 22 refers to

(A) people

(B) lots

(C) years

(D) developers

21. According to the passage, what was one disadvantage of residential expansion?

(A) It was expensive.

(B) It happened too slowly.

(C) It was unplanned.

(D) It created a demand for public transportation.

22. The author mentions Chicago in the second paragraph as an example of a city

(A) that is large

(B) that is used as a model for land development

(C) where land development exceeded population growth

(D) with an excellent mass transportation system.

Question 23-33

The preservation of embryos and juveniles is rare occurrence in the fossil record. The tiny, delicate skeletons are usually scattered by scavengers or destroyed by weathering before they can be fossilized. Ichthyosaurs had a higher chance of being preserved than did terrestrial (5)creatures because, as marine animals, they tended to live in environments less subject to erosion. Still, their fossilization required a suite of factors: a slow rate of decay of soft tissues, little scavenging by other animals, a lack if swift currents and waves to jumble and carry away small bones, and fairly rapid burial. Given these factors, some areas have (10) become a treasury of well-preserved ichthyosaur fossils.

The deposits at Holzmaden, Germany, present an interesting case for analysis. The ichthyosaur remains are found in black, bituminous marine shales deposited about 190 million years ago. Over the years, thousands of specimens of marine reptiles, fish, and invertebrates have been recovered (15) from these rocks. The quality of preservation is outstanding, but what is even more impressive is the number of ichthyosaur fossils containing preserved embryos. Ichthyosaurs with embryos have been reported from 6 different levels of the shale in a small area around Holzmaden, suggesting that a specific site was used by large numbers of ichthyosaurs repeatedly (20) over time. The embryos are quite advanced in their physical development; their paddles, for example, are already well formed. One specimen is even preserved in the birth canal. In addition, the shale contains the remains of many newborns that are between 20 and 30 inches long.

Why are there so many pregnant females and young at Holzmaden (25) when they are so rare elsewhere? The quality of preservation is almost unmatched, and quarry operations factors do not account for the interesting question of how there came to be such a concentration of pregnant ichthyosaurs in a particular place very close to their time of giving birth.

23. The passage supports which of the following conclusions?

(A) Some species of ichthyosaurs decayed more rapidly than other species.

(B) Ichthyosaur newborns are smaller than other newborn marine reptiles.

(C) Ichthyosaurs were more advanced than terrestrial creatures.

(D) Ichthyosaurs may have gathered at Holzmaden to give birth.

24. The word "they" in line 3 refers to

(A) skeletons

(B) scavengers

(C) creatures

(D) environments

25. All of the following are mentioned as factors that encourage fossilization EXCEPT the

(A) speed of burial

(B) conditions of the water

(C) rate at which soft tissues decay

(D) cause of death of the animal.

26. Which of the following is true of the fossil deposits discussed in the passage?

(A) They include examples of newly discovered species.

(B) They contain large numbers of well-preserved specimens

(C) They are older than fossils found in other places

(D) They have been analyzed more carefully than other fossils.

27. The word "outstanding" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) extensive

(B) surprising

(C) vertical

(D) excellent

28. The word "site" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) example

(B) location

(C) development

(D) characteristic

29. Why does the author mention the specimen preserved in the birth canal (line 24)?

(A) To illustrate that the embryo fossils are quite advanced in their development

(B) To explain why the fossils are well preserved

(C) To indicate how the ichthyosaurs died

(D) To prove that ichthyosaurs are marine animals.

30. The word "their" in line 22 refers to

(A) pregnant females and young

(B) quarry operations

(C) the value of the fossils

(D) these factors

31. The phrase "account for" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) record

(B) describe

(C) equal

(D) explain

32. Which of the following best expresses the relationship between the first and second paragraphs?

(A) The first paragraph describes a place while the second paragraph describes a field of study.

(B) The first paragraph defines the terms that are used in the second paragraph.

(C) The second paragraph describes a specific instance of the general topic discussed in the first paragraph.

(D) The second paragraph presents information that contrasts with the information given in the first paragraph.

33. Where in the passage does the author mentions the variety of fossils found at Holzmaden?

(A) Line 1

(B) Lines 4-6

(C) Lines 15-17

(D) Lines 24-25

Questions 34-41

The Lewis and Clark expedition, sponsored by President Jefferson, was the most important official examination of the high plains and the Northwest before the War of 1812. The President's secretary, Captain Meriwether Lewis, had been instructed to "explore the Missouri River, and (5) such principal streams of it as, by its course and communication with the waters of the Pacific Ocean …may offer her most direct and practicable water communication across the continent, for the purposes of commerce." Captain William Clark, the younger brother of famed George Rogers Clerk, was invited to share the command of the exploring party.

(10) Amid rumors that there were prehistoric mammoths wandering around the unknown region and that somewhere in its wilds was a mountain of rock salt 80 by 45 miles in extent, the two captains set out. The date was May 14, 1804. Their point of departure was the mouth of the Wood River, just across the Mississippi from the entrance of the Missouri (15) River. After toiling up the Missouri all summer, the group wintered near the Mandan villages in the center of what is now North Dakota. Resuming their journey in the spring of 1805, the men worked their way along the Missouri to its source and then crossed the mountains of western Montana and Idaho. Picking up a tributary of the Columbia River, they (20) continued westward until they reached the Pacific Ocean, where they stayed until the following spring.

Lewis and Clark brought back much new information, including the knowledge that the continent was wider than originally supposed. More specifically, they learned a good deal about river drainages and mountain (25)barriers. They ended speculation that an easy coast-to-coast route existed via the Missouri-Columbia River systems, and their reports of the climate, the animals and birds, the trees and plants, and the Indians of the West – though not immediately published – were made available to scientists.

34. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?

(A) The river systems of portions of North America.

(B) Certain geological features to the North American continent.

(C) An exploratory trip sponsored by the United States government.

(D) The discovery of natural resources in the United States.

35. According to the passage, the primary purpose of finding a water route across the continent was to

(A) gain easy access to the gold and other riches of the Northwest

(B) become acquainted with the inhabitants of the West.

(C) investigate the possibility of improved farmland in the West.

(D) facilitate the movement of commerce across the continent

36. The river Meriwether Lewis was instructed to explore was the

(A) Wood

(B) Missouri

(C) Columbia

(D) Mississippi

37. According to the passage, the explorers spent their first winter in what would become

(A) North Dakota

(B) Missouri

(C) Montana

(D) Idaho

38. The author states that Lewis and Clark studied all of the following characteristics of the explored territories EXCEPT

(A) mineral deposits

(B) the weather

(C) animal life

(D) native vegetation

39. The phrase "Picking up" in line 19 could best be replaced by which of the following?

(A) Searching for

(B) Following

(C) Learning about

(D) Lifting

40. It can be inferred from the passage that prior to the Lewis and Clark expedition the size of the continent had been

(A) of little interest

(B) underestimated

(C) known to native inhabitants of the West

(D) unpublished but known to most scientists

41. Where in the passage does the author refer to the explorers' failure to find an easy passageway to the western part of the continent?

(A) Lines 1-3

(B) Lines 8-9

(C) Lines 19-21

(D) Lines 23-25.

Questions 42-50

For a century and a half the piano has been one of the most popular solo instruments for Western music. Unlike string and wind instrument, the piano is completely self-sufficient, as it is able to play both the melody and its accompanying harmony at the same time. For this reason, it became (5) the favorite household instrument of the nineteenth century.

The ancestry of the piano can be traced to the early keyboard instruments of the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries – the spinet, the dulcimer, and the virginal. In the seventeenth century the organ, the clavichord, and the harpsichord became the chief instruments of the (10)keyboard group, a supremacy they maintained until the piano supplanted them at the end of the eighteenth century. The clavichord's tone was metallic and never powerful; nevertheless, because of the variety of tone possible to it, many composers found the clavichord a sympathetic instrument for concert use, but the character of the tone could not be varied (15) save by mechanical or structural devices.

The piano was perfected in the early eighteenth century by a harpsichord maker in Italy (though musicologists point out several previous instances of the instrument). This instrument was called a piano e forte(soft and loud), to indicate its dynamic versatility; its strings were (20)struck by a recoiling hammer with a felt-padded head. The wires were much heavier in the earlier instruments. A series of mechanical improvements continuing well into the nineteenth century, including the introduction of pedals to sustain tone or to soften it, the perfection of a metal frame and steel wire of the finest quality, finally produced an (25)instrument capable of myriad tonal effects from the most delicate harmonies to an almost orchestral fullness of sound, from a liquid, singing tone to a sharp, percussive brilliance.

42. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The historical development of the piano

(B) The quality of tone produced by various keyboard instruments

(C) The uses of keyboard instruments in various types of compositions

(D) The popularity of the piano with composers

43. Which of the following instruments was widely used before the seventeenth century?

(A) The harpsichord

(B) The spinet

(C) The clavichord

(D) The organ

44. The words "a supremacy" in line 10 are closest in meaning to

(A) a suggestion

(B) an improvement

(C) a dominance

(D) a development

45. The word "supplanted" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) supported

(B) promoted

(C) replaced

(D) dominated

46. The word "it" in line 13 refers to the

(A) variety

(B) music

(C) harpsichord

(D) clavichord

47. According to the passage, what deficiency did the harpsichord have?

(A) It was fragile

(B) It lacked variety in tone.

(C) It sounded metallic.

(D) It could not produce a strong sound.

48. Where in the passage does the author provide a translation?

(A) Lines 4-5

(B) Lines 11-15

(C) Lines 18-20

(D) Lines 21-27

49. According to the information in the third paragraph, which of the following improvements made it possible to lengthen the tone produced by the piano?

(A) The introduction of pedals

(B) The use of heavy wires

(C) The use of felt-padded hammerheads

(D) The metal frame construction

50. The word "myriad" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) noticeable

(B) many

(C) loud

(D) unusual.

1995年12月语法题

1. The fertile catkins of the willow tree are the green, caterpillar-like ones, commonly_           in length.

(A) or an inch more

(B) or an inch as

(C) at least the inches

(D) an inch or more

2.      a short-handled, long-bladed weapon, similar to a dagger but larger.

(A) Like a sword

(B) A sword is

(C) A sword is what

(D) Before a sword

3. In 1948 the United States Secretary of States Dean Acheron           the Marshall Plan to aid the economic recovery of Europe after the Second World War.

(A) begin to carry out

(B) began carrying out

(C) beginning and carrying out

(D) to have begun carrying out

4. The protection of technologies and technological information has become     of many nations.

(A) the importance of a concern

(B) a concern of important

(C) the importance concerning

(D) an important concern

5.      Several years for bamboo seeds to grow into plants that can be used for commercial purposes.

(A) To be taken

(B) It takes

(C) By taking

(D) Although taking

6. Arthur Miller’s Play Death of a Salesman is the tragic story of a man destroyed by his own hollow

values and those of the society       .

(A) he lives in which

(B) in which he lives

(C) which in he lives

(D) lives he which in

7. During courtship,_  displays his greenand-gold upper tail feathers before the peahen.

(A) in which the crested peacock

(B) which the crested peacock

(C) the crested peacock that

(D) the crested peacock

8.       Theories approximate the truth is the day-to-day business of science.

(A) Determining how closely

(B) How closely to determine

(C) How one determines close

(D) One is close to determining

9. The earthworm is a worm           in moist, warm soil in many geographical areas.

(A) where is it found

(B) is found

(C) and found it

(D) found

10.    Advance and retreat in their eternal rhythms, but the surface of the sea itself is never at rest.

(A) Not only when the tides do

(B) As the tides not only do

(C) Not only do the tides

(D) Do the tides not only

11. The monarch butterfly’s migration of 1,800 miles or more makes          among insects.

(A) uniquely

(B) is uniquely

(C) it unique

(D) it is unique

12. A reagent is any chemical that reacts in a predictable way       with other chemicals.

(A) when mixed

(B) when is mixed

(C) it mixed

(D) mixed is

13. By the 1950’s, Mahalia Jackson’s powerful, joyous gospel music style had gained her     .

(A) and she had an international reputation

(B) with an international reputation

(C) which was her international reputation

(D) an international reputation

14. Hovercraft, or air-cushion vehicles, are unusual          travel over land water on a layer of air.

(A) they

(B) in they

(C) that they

(D) in that they

15. In the United States, a primary election is a method    voters select the nominees for public office

(A) that

(B) is that

(C) by which

(D) by those

16. Allan Pinkerton, founder of the famous detective agency that bears him name, directed a Civil War espionage system behind Confederate lines.

17. Until the 1910 formation of the National Hockey Association in eastern Canada, professional and amateur teams were allowed to playfully together.

18. Contralto Marian Anderson became a member permanent of the Metropolitan Opera Company in 1955.

19. Widely acknowledged as a great and important playwright, Eugene O’Neill brought to the United States stage it was probably its first really serious drama.

20. Because some critics considered it decadent, subversive, and incomprehensibly, abstract art encountered much opposition in its early years.

21. To survive, most birds must eat at least half their own weigh in food every day.

22. The glass tube in a fluorescent lamp contains mercury vapor under small pressure.

23. In 1977, Marilyn Yadlowski, a undergraduate at Cornell University, found that pigeons had excellent low-frequency hearing, far surpassing that of humans.

24. The General Accounting Office reviews the accounting systems used by federal agencies to determination whether expenditures conform to laws, and it also settles claims.

25. Australian koalas are furry, gray animal that live in trees and feed on leaves.

26. Won its war for independence in 1783, the United States then struggled to establish its own economic and financial system.

27. The first known radio program among the United States was broadcast on Christmas Eve, 1906, by Reginald Fessenden from his experimental station at Brant Rock, Massachusetts.

28. A typical feature-length film costs millions of dollars to make and requires the skillful of hundreds of workers.

29. After his trips to the West between 1869 and 1872, Ralph Albert Blakelock would often painted American Indian encampments on brown-and-yellow-toned canvases.

30. Artist Helen Frankenthaler returned home from college in 1949 to her native New York, the city producing the most art revolutionary of the day.

31. The giraffe’s long neck and legs are the most obvious features that make different from all other animals.

32. Tilling means preparation the soil to plant the seeds and keeping the soil in the best condition to help crop grow until it is ready for harvesting.

33. The city of Boston was settled in 1630 on a hilly, wooded peninsula where the Charles River flows into a natural harbors.

34. Critical thinkers are able to identify main issues, recognize underlying assumptions, and evaluating evidence.

35. Because of its maneuverability and ability to land and take off in small areas the helicopter is used in wide range of services.

36. Melting glaciers may account the rise in sea level that has taken place during this century.

37. Farce is a dramatic form that derives much of its humorous from improbable characters and situations.

38. Anthropologist Jane Goodall has contributed a wealth information concerning primate behavior through her studies of chimpanzees.

39. The discovery of gold in 1848 transformed San Francisco suddenly from a quiet port into one of the world’s richest and most famous  city.

40. The outermost part of the Sun’s atmosphere is very hot that its gases continually expand away from the Sun.

Questions 1-10

Another early Native American tribe in what is now the southwestern part of the United States was the Anasazi. By A.D. 800 the Anasazi Indians were constructing multistory pueblos-massive, stone apartment compounds. Each one was virtually a stone town, which is why the (5)Spanish would later call them pueblos, the Spanish word for towns. These pueblos represent one of the Anasazis' supreme achievements. At least a dozen large stone ouses took shape below the bluffs of Chiaco Canyon in northwest New Mexico. They were built with masonry walls more than a meter thick and adjoining apartments to accommodate dozens, (10) even hundreds, of families. The argest, later named Pueblo Bonito (Pretty Town) by the Spanish, rose in five terraced stories, contained more than 800 rooms, and could have housed a population of 1,000 or more.

Besides living quarters, each pueblo included one or more kivas-circular underground chambers faced with stone. They functioned as (15)sanctuaries where the elders met to plan festivals, perform ritual dances, settle pueblo affairs, and impart tribal lore to the younger generation. Some kivas were enormous. Of the 30 or so at pueblo Bonito, two measured 20 meters across. They contained niches for ceremonial objects, a central fire pit, and holes in the floor for communicating with the (20) spirits of tribal ancestors.

Each pueblo represented an astonishing amount of well-organized labor. Using only stone and wood tools, and without benefit of wheels or draft animals, the builders quarried ton upon ton of sandstone from the canyon walls, cut it into small blocks, hauled the blocks to the construction (25) site, and fitted them together with mud mortar. Roof beams of pine or fir had to be carried from logging areas in the mountain forests many kilometers away. Then, to connect the pueblos and to give access to the surrounding tableland, the architects laid out a system of public roads with stone staircases for ascending cliff faces. In time, the roads reached out to (30) more than 80 satellite villages within a 60-kilometer radius.

1. The paragraph preceding the passage most

(A) how pueblos were built

(B) another Native American tribe

(C) Anasazi crafts and weapons

(D) Pueblo village in New Mexico

2. What is the main topic of the passage?

(A) The Anasazi pueblos

(B) Anasazi festivals of New Mexico

(C) The organization of the Anasazi tribe

(D) The use of Anasazi sanctuaries

3. The word "supreme" in lien 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) most common

(B) most outstanding

(C) most expensive

(D) most convenient

4. The word "They" in line 8 refers to

(A) houses

(B) bluffs

(C) walls

(D) families

5. The author mentions that Pueblos bonito had more than 800 rooms as an example of which of the following?

(A) How overcrowded the pueblos could be

(B) How many ceremonial areas it contained

(C) How much sandstone was needed to build it

(D) How big a pueblo could be

6. The word "settle" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) sink

(B) decide

(C) clarify

(D) locate

7. It can be inferred from the passage that building a pueblo probably

(A) required many workers

(B) cost a lot of money

(C) involved the use of farm animals

(D) relied on sophisticated technology

8. The word "ascending" in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) arriving at

(B) carving

(C) connecting

(D) climbing

9. It can be inferred from the passage that in addition to pueblos the Anasazis were skilled at building which of following?

(A) Roads

(B) Barns

(C) Monuments

(D) Water systems

10. The pueblos are considered one of the Anasazis' supreme achievements for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that they were

(A) very large

(B) located in forests

(C) built with simple tools

(D) connected in a systematic way

Questions 11-21

Accustomed though we are to speaking of the films made before 1927 as "silent", the film has never been, in the full sense of the word, silent. From the very beginning, music was regarded as an indispensable accompaniment; when the Lumiere films were shown at the first public film exhibition in the (5) United States in February 1896, they were accompanied by piano improvisations on popular tunes. At first, the music played bore no special relationship to the films; an accompaniment of any kind was sufficient. Within a very short time, however, the incongruity of playing lively music to a solemn film became apparent, and film pianists began to take some care in (10) matching their pieces to the mood of the film.

As movie theaters grew in number and importance, a violinist, and perhaps a cellist, would be added to the pianist in certain cases, and in the larger movie theaters small orchestras were formed. For a number of years the selection of music for each film program rested entirely in the hands of (15) the conductor or leader of the orchestra, and very often the principal qualification for holding such a position was not skill or taste so much as the ownership of a  large personal library of musical pieces. Since the conductor seldom saw the films until the night before they were to be shown (if, indeed, the conductor was lucky enough to see them then), the (20) musical arrangement was normally improvised in the greatest hurry.

To help meet this difficulty, film distributing companies started the practice of publishing suggestions for musical accompaniments. In 1909, for example, the Edison Company began issuing with their films such indications of mood as "pleasant', "sad", "lively". The suggestions became (25) more explicit, and so emerged the musical cue sheet containing indications of mood, the titles of suitable pieces of music, and precise directions to show where one piece led into the next.

Certain films had music especially composed for them. The most famous of these early special scores was that composed and arranged for (30) D. W. Griffith's film Birth of a Nation, which was released in 1915.

11. The passage mainly discusses music that was

(A) performed before the showing of a film

(B) played during silent films

(C) specifically composed for certain movie theaters

(D) recorded during film exhibitions

12. What can be inferred that the passage about the majority of films made after 1927?

(A) They were truly "silent".

(B) They were accompanied by symphonic orchestras.

(C) They incorporated the sound of the actors' voices.

(D) They corresponded to specific musical compositions.

13. The word "solemn" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) simple

(B) serious

(C) short

(D) silent

14. It can be inferred that orchestra conductors who worked in movie theaters needed to

(A) be able to play many instruments

(B) have pleasant voices

(C) be familiar with a wide variety of music

(D) be able to compose original music

15. The word "them" in line 19 refers to

(A) years

(B) hands

(C) pieces

(D) films

16. According to the passage, what kind of business was the Edison Company?

(A) It produced electricity.

(B) It distributed films.

(C) It published musical arrangements.

(D) It made musical instruments.

17. It may be inferred from the passage that the first musical cue sheets appeared around

(A) 1896

(B) 1909

(C) 1915

(D) 1927

18. Which of the following notations is most likely to have been included on a musical cue sheet of the early 1900's?

(A) "Calm, peaceful"

(B) "Piano, violin"

(C) "Key of C major"

(D) "Directed by D. W. Griffith"

19. The word "composed" in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) selected

(B) combined

(C) played

(D) created

20. The word "scores" in line 29is closest in meaning to

(A) totals

(B) successes

(C) musical compositions

(D) groups of musicians

21. The passage probably continues with a discussion of

(A) famous composers of the early twentieth century

(B) other films directed by D. W. Griffith

(C) silent films by other directors

(D) the music in Birth of a Nation

Questions 22-31

The Earth comprises three principal layers: the dense, iron-rich core, the mantle made of silicate rocks that are semimolten at depth, and the thin, solid-surface crust. There are two kinds of crust, a lower and denser oceanic crust and an upper, lighter continental crust found over only about (5) 40 percent of the Earth's surface. The rocks of the crust are of very different ages. Some continental rocks are over 3,000 million years old, while those of the ocean flow are less than 200 million years old. The crusts and the top, solid part of the mantle, totaling about 70 to 100 kilometers in thickness, at present appear to consist of about 15 rigid (10)plates, 7 of which are very large. These plates move over the semimolten lower mantle to produce all of the major topographical features of the Earth. Active zones where intense deformation occurs are confined to the narrow, interconnecting boundaries of contact of the plates.

There are three main types of zones of contact: spreading contacts (15)where plates move apart, converging contacts where plates move towards each other, and transform contacts where plates slide past each other. New oceanic crust is formed along one or more margins of each plate by material issuing from deeper layers of the Earth's crust, for example, by volcanic eruptions of lava at midocean ridges. If at such a (20)spreading contact the two plates support continents, a rift is formed that will gradually widen and become flooded by the sea. The Atlantic Ocean formed like this as the American and Afro-European plates move in opposite directions. At the same time at margins of converging plates, the oceanic crust is being reabsorbed by being subducted into the mantle and (25) remelted beneath the ocean trenches. When two plates carrying continents collide, the continental blocks, too light to be drawn down, continue to float and therefore buckle to form a mountain chain along the length of the margin of the plates.

22. The word "comprises" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) adapts to

(B) benefits from

(C) consists of

(D) focuses on

23. According to the passage, on approximately what percent of the Earth's surface is the continental crust found?

(A) 15

(B) 40

(C) 70

(D) 100

24. The word "which" in line 10 refers to

(A) crusts

(B) kilometers

(C) plates

(D) continents

25. The word "intense" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) surface

(B) sudden

(C) rare

(D) extreme

26. What does the second paragraph of the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The major mountain chains of the Earth

(B) Processes that create the Earth's surface features

(C) The composition of the ocean floors

(D) The rates at which continents move

27. Which of the following drawings best represents a transform contact (line 15-16)?

(A)    (B)

(C)    (D)

28. The word "margins" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) edges

(B) peaks

(C) interiors

(D) distances

29. The word "support" in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) separate

(B) create

(C) reduce

(D) hold

30. According to the passage, mountain range are formed when

(A) the crust is remelted

(B) two plates separate

(C) a rift is flooded

(D) continental plates collide

31. Where in the passage does the author describe how oceans are formed?

(A) Lines 3-5

(B) Lines 8-10

(C) Lines 19-21

(D) Lines 21-26

Questions 32-40

Coincident with concerns about the accelerating loss of species and habitats has been a growing appreciation of the importance of biological diversity, the number of species in a particular ecosystem, to the health of the Earth and human well-being. Much has been written about the diversity (5) of terrestrial organisms, particularly the exceptionally rich life associated with tropical rain-forest habitats. Relatively little has been said, however, about diversity of life in the sea even though coral reef systems are comparable to rain forests in terms of richness of life.

An alien exploring Earth would probably give priority to the planet's (10) dominants, most-distinctive feature-the ocean. Humans have a bias toward land that sometimes gets in the way of truly examining global issues. Seen from far away, it is easy to realize that landmasses occupy only one-third of the Earth's surface. Given that two-thirds of the Earth's surface is water and that marine life lives at all levels of the ocean, the total (15) three-dimensional living space of the ocean is perhaps 100 times greater than that of land and contains more than 90 percent of all life on Earth even though the ocean has fewer distinct species.

The fact that half of the known species are thought to inhabit the world's rain forests does not seem surprising, considering the huge (20)numbers of insects that comprise the bulk of the species. One scientist found many different species of ants in just one tree from a rain forest. While every species is different from every other species, their genetic makeup constrains them to be insects and to share similar characteristics with 750,000 species of insects. If basic, broad categories such as phyla (25) and classes are given more emphasis than differentiating between species, then the greatest diversity of life is unquestionably the sea. Nearly every major type of plant and animal has some representation there.

To appreciated fully the diversity and abundance of life in the sea, it helps to think small. Every spoonful of ocean water contains life, on the (30) order of 100 to 100,000 bacterial cells plus assorted microscopic plants and animals, including larvae of organisms ranging from sponges and corals to starfish and clams and much more.

32. What is the main point of the passage?

(A) Humans are destroying thousands of species.

(B) There are thousands of insect species.

(C) The sea is even richer in life than the rain forests.

(D) Coral reefs are similar to rain forests.

33. The word "appreciation" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) ignorance

(B) recognition

(C) tolerance

(D) forgiveness

34. Why does the author compare rain forests and coral reefs (lines 4-8)?

(A) They are approximately the same size.

(B) They share many similar species.

(C) Most of their inhabitants require water

(D) Both have different forms of life

35. The word "bias" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) concern

(B) disadvantage

(C) attitude

(D) prejudice

36. The passage suggests that most rain forest species are

(A) insects

(B) bacteria

(C) mammals

(D) birds

37. The word "there" in line 27 refers to

(A) the sea

(B) the rain forests

(C) a tree

(D) the Earth's surface

38. The author argues that there is more diversity of life in the sea than in the rain forests because

(A) more phyla and classes of life are represented in the sea

(B) there are too many insects to make meaningful distinctions

(C) many insect species are too small to divide into categories

(D) marine life-forms reproduce at a faster rate

39. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an example of microscopic sea life?

(A) Sponges

(B) Coral

(C) Starfish

(D) Shrimp

40. Which of the following conclusions is supported by the passage?

(A) Ocean life is highly adaptive.

(B) More attentions needs to be paid to preserving ocean species and habitats.

(C) Ocean life is primarily composed of plants.

(D) The sea is highly resistant to the damage done by pollutants.

Questions 41-50

What geologists call the Basin and Range Province in the United States roughly coincides in its northern portions with the geographic province known as the Great Basin. The Great Basin is hemmed in on the west by the Sierra Nevada and on the east by the Rocky Mountains; it has (5) no outlet to the sea. The prevailing winds in the Great Basin are from the west. Warm, moist air from the Pacific Ocean is forced upward as it crosses the Sierra Nevada. At the higher altitudes it cools and the moisture it carriers is precipitated as rain or snow on the western slopes of the mountains. That which reaches the Basin is air wrung dry of moisture. (10)What little water falls there as rain or snow, mostly in the winter months, evaporates on the broad, flat desert floors. It is, therefore, an environment in which organisms battle for survival. Along the rare watercourses, cottonwoods and willows eke out a sparse existence. In the upland ranges, pinon pines and junipers struggle to hold their own.

(15) But the Great Basin has not always been so arid. Many of its dry, closed depressions were once filled with water. Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley were once a string of interconnected lakes. The two largest of the ancient lakes of the Great Basin were Lake Lahontan and Lake Bonneville. The Great Salt Lake is all that remains of the latter, and (20) Pyramid Lake is one of the last briny remnants of the former.

There seem to have been several periods within the last tens of thousands of years when water accumulated in these basins. The rise and fall of the lakes were undoubtedly linked to the advances and retreats of the great ice sheets that covered much of the northern part of the North (25) American continent during those times. Climatic changes during the Ice ages sometimes brought cooler, wetter weather to midlatitude deserts worldwide, including those of the Great Basin. The broken valleys of the Great Basin provided ready receptacles for this moisture.

41. What is the geographical relationship between the Basin and Range Province and the Great Basin?

(A) The Great Basin is west of the Basin and Range Province.

(B) The Great Basin is larger than the Basin and Range Province.

(C) The Great Basin is in the northern part of the Basin and Range Province.

(D) The Great Basin is mountainous; the Basin and Range Province is flat desert.

42. According to the passage, what does the great Basin lack?

(A) Snow

(B) Dry air

(C) Winds from the west

(D) Access to the ocean

43. The word "prevailing" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) most frequent

(B) occasional

(C) gentle

(D) most dangerous

44. It can be inferred that the climate in the Great Basin is dry because

(A) the weather patterns are so turbulent

(B) the altitude prevents precipitation

(C) the winds are not strong enough to carry moisture

(D) precipitation falls in the nearby mountains

45. The word "it" in line 6 refers to

(A) Pacific Ocean

(B) air

(C) west

(D) the Great Basin

46. Why does the author mention cottonwoods and willows in line 13?

(A) To demonstrate that certain trees require a lot of water

(B) To give examples of trees that are able to survive in a difficult environment

(C) To show the beauty of the landscape of the Great Basin

(D) To assert that there are more living organisms in the Great Basin than there used to be

47. Why does the author mention Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley in the second paragraph?

(A) To explain their geographical formation

(B) To give examples of depressions that once contained water

(C) To compare the characteristics of the valleys with the characteristics of the lakes

(D) To explain what the Great Basin is like today

48. The words "the former" in line 20 refer to

(A) Lake Bonneville

(B) Lake Lahontan

(C) The Great Salt Lake

(D) Pyramid Lake

49. The word "accumulated" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) dried

(B) flooded

(C) collected

(D) evaporated

50. According to the passage, the Ice Ages often brought about

(A) desert formation

(B) warmer climates

(C) broken valleys

(D) wetter weather.

1996年01月语法题

1. Sociologists have long recognized that social tension __

(A) elements from group living.

(B) elements of a normal group life

(C) living are a group of elements.

(D) are normal elements of group life

2. ___ have a very keen sense of hearing, although most do not hear sounds audible to the human ear.

(A) While some insects do

(B) Some insects which

(C) Some insects

(D) That some insects.

3. Although both political parties wanted Dwight D. Eisenhower as their presidential nominee in 1952, he became a Republican candidate and __

(A) President was electing

(B) was elected President

(C) to elect the President

(D) being elected president.

4. If an act is rewarded many times, immediately and with strong reinforces, it will rapidly become __.

(A) a habit

(B) into a habit

(C) that which a habit

(D) a habit can be

5. Giant pandas resemble bears in shape and in _____.

(A) it is a slow, clumsy way to walk

(B) the slow, clumsy way they walk

(C) they walk in a slow, clumsy way

(D) their slow walk is clumsy.

6. _____ temperature at which air holds as much water vapor as it can is called the dew point.

(A) It is the

(B) Is the

(C) As the

(D) The

7. The earring is one of the oldest known ornaments and ___ pieces of stone, bone, or shell.

(A) was from originally from

(B) was made originally from

(C) originally made was from

(D) from originally made was

8. No one knows exactly _____.

(A) how did speech begin

(B) how speech began

(C) how the beginning of speech

(D) of how beginning speech.

9. _____ mechanical device has ever been invented that can satisfactorily replace teasel flower heads for raising the nap on cloth.

(A) No

(B) Not the

(C) Never has a

(D) There is no

10. Even as a girl, _____ to be her life, and theater audiences were to be her best teachers.

(A) performances by Fanny Brice were

(B) it was known that Fanny Brice’s performances were

(C) audiences knew that Fanny Brice’s performances were

(D) Fanny Brice knew that performing was

11. _____ the diffusion of heat upward to the Earth’s surface, the temperature within the Earth remains constant.

(A) That

(B) Despite

(C) If

(D) When

12. Noise in a room may be reduced by carpeting, draperies, and upholstered furniture, _____ absorb sound.

(A) which they all

(B) of them all

(C) all of which

(D) of all which

13. __devised to lessen the drudgery of washing clothes that origin of the washing machine is unclear.

(A) Were the inventions so numerous

(B) The inventions so numerous

(C) So numerous were the inventions

(D) The inventions that were so numerous

14. Of the thousands of varieties of bird species in North America, _ bright red plumage, like the cardinal, are most often designated as state bird.

(A) those that have

(B) who have

(C) which have

(D) to have their

15. _____ as a territory in 1854 and admitted as a state in 1861, Kansas is at the geographical center of the United States.

(A) By organizing

(B) Because organized

(C) Organized

(D) He had organized

16. Before pioneers cleared the land for farms, cities, and road, forests covered about 40 percent of what is now the state of Illinois.

17. The sea chantey, a type of folk music, not only described the pleasures of stations’ lives ashore, also but the harsh conditions of life aboard ship.

18. Mount Rushmore National Memorial in South Dakota has a heads of four presidents of the United States carved into its face.

19. Nest building is much less commonly among mammals than among birds.

20. The Awakening, a novel by Kate Chopin, shocked readers and cause a storm of criticism.

21. The Alaskan Highway was officially opened November 20, 1942, although much more work needed be done to complete it.

22. Sagebrush flourishes in the dry soil of the western plains, where other many plants cannot grow.

23. Modern directions of Shakespeare are not longer inhibited by earlier traditions of realistic settings.

24. Surveys show that the majority of passengers are pleasing that an agreement has been reached to forbid smoking on commercial flights within the continental United States.

25. Snakes are capable of graceful motion throughout the entire long of their rubbery bodies.

26. Tariffs preventing the most efficient use of the world’s resources by restricting division of labor to national boundaries.

27. The Aleuts in western Alaska have always depended of the sea for food.

28. Atoms that having different atomic numbers generally behave differently.

29. Over the past few year, many towns in the United States have been joining with neighboring communities to share the costs of government.

30. What makes for human skeleton hard and strong is the presence of the metallic element calcium.

31. Many of Robert Bly’s poems explore solitude, natural vigor, and silent in an immediate and modern idiom.

32. To convert an angle measured in radians for an equivalent angle measured in degrees, multiply the number of radians by 57.296.

33. Serving as chief of the United States Children’s Bureau from 1921 to 1934., Grace Abbott fought for the rights of women and children through the world.

34. To people from temperate climates, tropical butterflies may seem incredible big.

35. The first railroad in the United States were short wooden tramways connecting mines also quarries with nearby streams.

36. The league of Women Voters of the United States identifies certain local, state, and nation issues for study and action.

37. Fibers can come from plants, animals, or mineral ores, or they may be made from a variety chemical substances.

38. Edwin Franko Goldman was the first bandmaster to encourage leading contemporary compositions to write original works for a band.

39. The tapir, an odd-toed, hoofed mammal, feed on plants, eating such things as grass, leaves, fallen fruit, and moss in large quantities.

40. For thousands of years, people have used some kind of refrigeration cooling beverages and preserve edibles.

Questions 1-9

In science, a theory is a reasonable explanation of observed events that are related. A theory often involves an imaginary model that helps scientists picture the way an observed event could be produced. A good example of this is found in the kinetic molecular theory, in which gases are pictured as  (5) being made up of many small particles that are in constant motion.

A useful theory, in addition to explaining past observations, helps to predict events that have not as yet been observed. After a theory has been publicized, scientists design experiments to test the theory. If observations confirm the scientists' predictions, the theory is supported. If observations do (10) not confirm the predictions, the scientists must search further. There may be a fault in the experiment, or the theory may have to be revised or rejected.

Science involves imagination and creative thinking as well as collecting information and performing experiments. Facts by themselves are not science. As the mathematician Jules Henri Poincare said: "Science is built with facts (15) just as a house is built with bricks, but a collection of facts cannot be called science any more than a pile of bricks can be called a house."

Most scientists start an investigation by finding out what other scientists have learned about a particular problem. After known facts have been gathered, the scientist comes to the part of the investigation that requires considerable imagination. Possible solutions to the problem are (20) formulated. These possible solutions are called hypotheses.

In a way, any hypothesis is a leap into the unknown. It extents the scientist's thinking beyond the known facts. The scientist plans experiments, performs calculations and makes observations to test hypotheses. For without hypotheses, further investigation lacks purpose and direction. When (25)hypotheses are confirmed, they are incorporated into theories.

1. The word "related" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) connected

(B) described

(C) completed

(D) identified

2. The word "this" in line 4 refers to

(A) a good example

(B) an imaginary model

(C) the kinetic molecular theory

(D) an observed event

3. According to the second paragraph, a useful theory is one that helps scientists to

(A) find errors in past experiments

(B) make predictions

(C) observe events

(D) publicize new findings

4. The word "supported" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) finished

(B) adjusted

(C) investigated

(D) upheld

5. Bricks are mentioned in lines 13-16 to indicate how

(A) mathematicinans approach science

(B) building a house is like performing experiments

(C) science is more than a collection of facts

(D) scientific experiments have led to improved technology

6. In the fourth paragraph, the author implies that imagination is most important to scientists when they

(A) evaluate previous work on a problem

(B) formulate possible solutions to a problem

(C) gather known facts

(D) close an investigation

7. In line 21, the author refers to a hypotheses as "a leap into the unknown" in order to show that hypotheses

(A) are sometimes ill-conceived

(B) can lead to dangerous resultss

(C) go beyond available facts

(D) require effort to formulate

8. In the last paragraph, what does the author imply a major function of hypotheses?

(A) Sifting through known facts

(B) Communicating a scientist's thoughts to others

(C) Providing direction for scientific research

(D) Linking together different theories

9. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

(A) Theories are simply imaginary models of past events.

(B) It is better to revise a hypothesis than to reject it.

(C) A scientist's most difficult task is testing hypotheses.

(D) A good scientist needs to be creative.

Question 10-20

By the mid-nineteenth century, the term "icebox" had entered the American language, but ice was still only beginning to affect the diet of ordinary citizens in the United States. The ice trade grew with the growth of cities. Ice was used in hotels, taverns, and hospitals, and by some (5)forward-looking city dealers in fresh meat, fresh fish, and butter. After the Civil War (1860-1865), as ice used to refrigerate freight cars, it also came into household use. Even before 1880, half the ice sold in New York, Philadelphia, and Baltimore, and one-third of that sold in Boston and Chicago, went to families for their own use. This had become possible (10)because a new household convenience, the icebox, a precursor of the modern refrigerator, had been invented.

Making an efficient icebox was not as easy as we might now suppose. In the early nineteenth century, the knowledge of the physics of heat, which was essential to a science of refrigeration, was rudimentary. The (15)commonsense notion that the best icebox was one that prevented the ice from melting was of course mistaken, for it was the melting of the ice that performed the cooling. Nevertheless, early efforts to economize ice included wrapping the ice in blankets, which kept the ice from doing its job. Not until near the end of the nineteenth century did inventors achieve the delicate (20)balance of insulation and circulation needed for an efficient icebox.

But as early as 1803, an ingenious Maryland farmer, Thomas Moore, had been on the right track. He owned a farm about twenty miles outside the city of  Washington, for which the village of Georgetown was the market center. When he used an icebox of his own design to transport his (25) butter to market, he found that customers would pass up the rapidly melting stuff in the tubs of his competitors to pay a premium price for his butter, still fresh and hard in neat, one-pound bricks. One advantage of his icebox, moore explained, was that farmers would no longer have to travel to market at night in order to keep their produce cool.

10. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The influence of ice on the diet

(B) The development of refrigeration

(C) The transportation of goods to market

(D) Sources of ice in the nineteenth century

11. According to the passage, when did the word "icebox" become part of the language of the United States?

(A) In 1803

(B) Sometime before 1850

(C) During the Civil War

(D) Near the end of the nineteenth century

12. The phrase "forward-looking" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) progressive

(B) popular

(C) thrifty

(D) well-established

13. The author mentions fish in line 6 because

(A) many fish dealers also sold ice

(B) fish was shipped in refrigerated freight cars

(C) fish dealers were among the early commercial users of ice

(D) fish was not part of the ordinary person's diet before the invention of the icebox

14. The word "it" in line 6 refers to

(A) fresh meat

(B) the Civil War

(C) ice

(D) a refrigerator

15. According to the passage, which of the following was an obstacle to the development of the icebox?

(A) Competition among the owners of refrigerated freight cars

(B) The lack of a network for the distribution of ice

(C) The use of insufficient insulation

(D) Inadequate understanding of physics

16. The word "rudimentary" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) growing

(B) undeveloped

(C) necessary

(D) uninteresting

17. According to the information in the second paragraph, an ideal icebox would

(A) completely prevent ice from melting

(B) stop air from circulating

(C) allow ice to melt slowly

(D) use blankets to conserve ice

18. The author describes Thomas Moore as having been "on the right track" (line 21-22) to indicate that

(A) the road to the market passed close to Moore's farm

(B) Moore was an honest merchant

(C) Moore was a prosperous farmer

(D) Moore's design was fairly successful

19. According to the passage, Moore's icebox allowed him to

(A) charge more for his butter

(B) travel to market at night

(C) manufacture butter more quickly

(D) produce ice all year round

20. The "produce" mentioned in line 29 could include

(A) iceboxes

(B) butter

(C) ice

(D) markets

Question 21-30

Aside from perpetuating itself, the sole purpose of the American Academy and Institute of Arts and Letters is to "foster, assist and sustain an interest" in literature, music, and art. This it does by enthusiastically handing out money. Annual cash awards are given to deserving artists in (5) various categories of creativity: architecture, musical composition, theater, novels, serious poetry, light verse, painting, sculpture. One award subsidizes a promising American writer's visit to Rome. There is even an award for a very good work of fiction that fallen commercially-once won by the young John Updike for The poorhouse Fair and, more recently, by (10) Alice Walker for In Love and Trouble.

The awards and prizes total about $750,000 a year, but most of them range in size from $5,000 to $12,500, a welcome sum to many young practitioners whose work may not bring in that much in a year. One of the advantages of the awards is that many go to the struggling artists, rather (15) than to those who are already successful. Members of the Academy and Institute are not eligible for any cash prizes. Another advantage is that, unlike the National Endowment for the Arts or similar institutions throughout the world, there is no government money involved.

Awards are made by committee. Each of the three departments—(20)Literature (120 members), Art(83), Music(47)--has a committee dealing with its own field. Committee membership rotates every year, so that new voices and opinions are constantly heard.

The most financially rewarding of all the Academy-Institute awards are the Mildred and Harold Strauss Livings. Harold Strauss, a devoted (25)editor at Alfred A. Knopf, the New York publishing house, and Mildred Strauss, his wife, were wealthy any childless. They left the Academy-Institute a unique bequest: for five consecutive years, two distinguished (and financially needy) writers would receive enough money so they could devote themselves entirely to "prose literature" (no plays, no (30) poetry, and no paying job that might distract). In 1983, the first Strauss Livings of $35,000 a year went to short-story writer Raymond Carver and novelist-essayist Cynthia Ozick. By 1988, the fund had grown enough so that two winners, novelists Diane Johnson and Robert Stone, each got $50,000 a year for five years.

21. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Award-winning works of literature

(B) An organization that supports the arts

(C) The life of an artist

(D) Individual patrons of the arts

22. The word "sole" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) only

(B) honorable

(C) common

(D) official

23. The word "subsidizes" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) assures

(B) finances

(C) schedules

(D) publishes

24. Which of the following can be inferred about Alice Walker's book in Love and Trouble?

(A) It sold more copies than The Poorhouse Fair.

(B) It described the author's visit to Rome.

(C) It was a commercial success.

(D) It was published after The Poorhouse Fair.

25. Each year the awards and prizes offered by the Academy-Institute total approximately

(A) $12,500

(B) $53,000

(C) $50,000

(D) $750,000

26. The word "many" in line 14 refers to

(A) practitioners

(B) advantages

(C) awards

(D) strugglers

27. What is one of the advantages of the Academy-Institute awards mentioned in passage?

(A) They are subsidized by the government.

(B) They are often given to unknown artists.

(C) They are also given to Academy-Istitute members.

(D) They influence how the National Endowment for the Arts makes its award decisions.

28. The word "rotates" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) alternates

(B) participates

(C) decides

(D) meets

29. The word "they" in line 29 refers to

(A) Mildred and Harold Strauss

(B) years

(C) writers

(D) plays

30. Where in the passage does the author cite the goal of the Academy-Institute?

(A) Lines 1-4

(B) Lines 13-15

(C) Line 21-22

(D) Line 24-26

Questions 31-41

Archaeological records-paintings, drawings and carvings of humans engaged in activities involving the use of hands-indicate that humans have been predominantly right-handed for more than 5,000 years. In ancient Egyptian artwork, for example, the right hand is depicted as the dominant (5) one in about 90 percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns on tools also indicate that a majority of ancient people were right-handed.

Cro-Magnon cave paintings some 27,000 years old commonly show outlines of human hands made by placing one hand against the cave wall and applying paint with the other. Children today make similar outlines of (10) their hands with crayons on paper. With few exceptions, left hands of Cro-Magnons are displayed on cave walls, indicating that the paintings were usually done by right-handers.

Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in early human ancestors back to at least 1.4 million years ago. One important line (15) of evidence comes from flaking patterns of stone cores used in tool making: implements flaked with a clockwise motion (indicating a right-handed toolmaker) can be distinguished from those flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation (indicating a left-handed toolmaker).

Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient (20)humans are thought to have cut meat into strips by holding it between their teeth and slicing it with stone  knives, as do the present-day Inuit. Occasionally the knives slip and leave scratches on the users' teeth. Scratches made with a left-to-right stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than scratches in the opposite direction (made by left-handers).

(25) Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology: scientists think that physical differences between the right and left sides of the interior of the skull indicate subtle physical differences between the two sides of the brain. The variation between the hemispheres corresponds to which side of the body is used to perform specific activities. Such studies, as well as (30)studies of tool use, indicate that right- or left-sided dominance is not exclusive to modern Homo sapiens. Population of Neanderthals, such as Homo erectus and Homo habilis, seem to have been predominantly right-handed, as we are.

31. What is the main idea of the passage?

(A) Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began to use tools.

(B) It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence concerning tool use.

(C) Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for over a million years.

(D) Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modern humans.

32. The word "other" in line 9 refers to

(A) outline

(B) hand

(C) wall

(D) paint

33. What does the author say about Cro-Magnon paintings of hands?

(A) Some are not very old.

(B) It is unusual to see such paintings.

(C) Many were made by children.

(D) The artists were mostly right-handed.

34. The word "implements" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) tools

(B) designs

(C) examples

(D) pieces

35. When compared with implements "flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation" (line 16), it can be inferred that "implements flaked with a clock-wise motion" (line17-18) are

(A) more common

(B) larger

(C) more sophisticated

(D) older

36. The word "clues" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) solutions

(B) details

(C) damage

(D) information

37. The fact that the Inuit cut meat by holding it between their teeth is significant because

(A) the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human teeth can be verified

(B) it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their ancestors

(C) the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly from patterns produced by modern knives

(D) it demonstrates that ancient humans were not skilled at using tools

38. The word "hemispheres" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) differences

(B) sides

(C) activities

(D) studies

39. Why does the author mention Homo erectus and Home habilis in line 32?

(A) To contrast them with modern humans

(B) To explain when human ancestors began to make tools

(C) To show that early humans were also predominantly right handed

(D) To prove that the population of Neanderthals was very large

40. All of the follows are mentioned as types of evidence concerning handedness EXCEPT

(A) ancient artwork

(B) asymmetrical skulls

(C) studies of tool use

(D) fossilized hand bones

41. Which of the following conclusions is suggested by the evidence from cranial morphology (line 25)?

(A) Differences in the hemispheres of the brain probably came about relatively recently.

(B) there may be a link between handedness and differences in the brain's hemispheres

(C) Left-handedness was somewhat more common among Neanderthals

(D) ariation between the brain hemispheres was not evident in the skill of Home erectus and Home habilis

Questions 42-50

Plants are subject to attack and infection by a remarkable variety of symbiotic species and have evolved a diverse array of mechanisms designed to frustrate the potential colonists. These can be divided into preformed or passive defense mechanisms and inducible or active systems. (5)Passive plant defense comprises physical and chemical barriers that prevent entry of pathogens, such as bacteria, or render tissues unpalatable or toxic to the invader. The external surfaces of plants, in addition to being covered by an epidermis and a waxy cuticle, often carry spiky hairs known as trichomes, which either prevent feeling by insects or may even puncture (10) and kill insect Iarvae. Other trichomes are sticky and glandular and effectively trap and immobilize insects.

If the physical barriers of the plant are breached, then preformed chemicals may inhibit or kill the intruder, and plant tissues contain a diverse array of toxic or potentially toxic substances, such as resins, tannins, (15)glycosides, and alkaloids, many of which are highly effective deterrents to insects that feed on plants. The success of the Colorado beetle in infesting potatoes, for example, seems to be correlated with its high tolerance to alkaloids that normally repel potential pests. Other possible chemicaldefenses, while not directly toxic to the parasite, may inhibit (20)some essential step in the establishment of a parasitic relationship. For example, glycoproteins in plant cell walls may inactivate enzymes that degrade cell walls. These enzymes are often produced by bacteria and fungi.

Active plant defense mechanisms are comparable to the immune system of vertebrate animals, although the cellular and molecular bases are (25) fundamentally different. Both, however, are triggered in reaction to intrusion, implying that the host has some means of recognizing the presence of a foreign organism. The most dramatic example of an inducible plant defense reaction is the hypersensitive response. In the hypersensitive response, cells undergo rapid necrosis--that is, they become (30) diseased and die--after being penetrated by a parasite; the par a site itself subsequently ceases to grow and is therefore restricted to one or a few cells around the entry site. Several theories have been put forward to explain the basis of hypersensitive resistance.

42. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The success of parasites in resisting plant defense mechanisms

(B) Theories on active plant defense mechanisms

(C) How plant defense mechanisms function

(D) How the immune system of animals and the defense mechanisms of plants differ

43. The phrase "subject to" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) susceptible to

(B) classified by

(C) attractive to

(D) strengthened by

44. The word "puncture" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) pierce

(B) pinch

(C) surround

(D) cover

45. The word "which" in line 15 refers to

(A) tissues

(B) substances

(C) barriers

(D) insects

46. Which of the following substances does the author mention as NOT necessarily being toxic to the Colordo beetle?

(A) Resins

(B) Tannins

(C) Glycosides

(D) Alkaloids

47. Why does the author mention "glycoproteins" in line 21?

(A) To compare plant defense mechaisms to the immune system of animals

(B) To introduce the discussion of active defense mechanisms in plants

(C) To illustrate how chemicals function in plant defense

(D) To emphasize the importance of physical barriers in plant defense

48. The word "dramatic" in line 27 could best be replaced by

(A) striking

(B) accurate

(C) consistent

(D) appealing

49. Where in the passage does the author describe an active plant defense reaction ?

(A) lines 1-3

(B) lines 5-7

(C) lines 18-20

(D) lines 28-32

50. The passage most probably continues with a discussion of theories on

(A) the basis of passive plant defense

(B) how chemicals inhibit a parasitic relationship

(C) how plants procuce toxic chemicals

(D) the principles of the hypersensitive response

1996年05月语法题

1. Wind motion can be observed in the mesosphere by _____ the trails of meteors passing through it.

(A) to watch

(B) watching

(C) watched

(D) watch

2. Thomas Edison’s first patented invention was a device_____ in Congress.

(A) votes counted for

(B) had been counting votes

(C) for counting vote

(D) be a counted vote

3. Clara Bow, a popular actress in the 1920’s, retired _____ she was unable to make the transition from silent films to sound films.

(A) nevertheless

(B) in spite of

(C) because

(D) and for

4. Built in 1882, the Kinzua Viaduct in Mckean County, Pennsylvania, is open only to those visitors _____ are able to walk its 2,058 - foot length.

(A) who

(B) to whom

(C) which they

(D) that which

5. A bridge must be strong enough to support its own weight _____ the weight of the people and vehicles that use it.

(A) as well

(B) so well

(C) as well as

(D) so well as

6. The swallows of Capistrano are famous _____ to the same nests in California each spring.

(A) to return

(B) who returned

(C) they returned

(D) for returning

7. In the fourteenth century, __ that glass coated with silver nitrate would turn yellow when fired in an oven.

(A) the discovery

(B) it was discovered

(C) with the discovery

(D) if it was discovered

8. _____ recurring fear is out of proportion to any real danger, it is called a phobia.

(A) When

(B) Whereas

(C) Which

(D) Whether

9. Many modern photographers attempt to manipulate elements of photography other _____ in their photographs.

(A) than light is

(B) than light

(C) being light

(D) light

10. For any adhesive to make a really strong bond, _____ to be glued must be absolutely clean and free from moisture or grease.

(A) and surfaces

(B) when surfaces

(C) the surfaces

(D) surfaces that

11. Although still underwater, Loihi Seamount, the newest Hawaiian island, _____ closer to the surface by frequent volcanic eruptions that add layers of lava to the island.

(A) brought

(B) to be brought

(C) being brought

(D) is being brought

12. _____ unstable and explodes as a supernova is not known.

(A) For a star to become

(B) How a star becomes

(C) A star becomes

(D) That a star is becoming

13. Not until linoleum was invented in 1860 _____ hard - wearing, easy - to - clean flooring.

(A) any house did have

(B) did any house have

(C) house had any

(D) any house had

14. Hiram Revels, the first Black member of the United States Senate, served as senator from Mississippi, an office _____ he was elected in 1870.

(A) which

(B) to which

(C) and which

(D) being which

15. Oceans continually lose by evaporation much of the river water _____.

(A) to constantly flow into them

(B) is constantly flowing into them

(C) constantly flows into them

(D) constantly flowing into them

16. Because of it consists only of a relatively short strand of DNA protected by a shell of protein, a virus cannot eat or reproduce by itself.

17. The oxygen in the air we breathe has no tasted, smell, or color.

18. In 1977 Kathleen Battle was hired by the New York Metropolitan Opera, Where her became the star soprano.

19. The aardvark is a mammal that burrows into the ground to catches ants and termites.

20. Because of the availability of trucks and easy access to modern highways, the locate of farms has become relatively unimportant with respect to their distance from markets.

21. The homes created by the legendary architect Frank Lloyd Wright are still viewed as uniquely, innovative, and valuable.

22. Geologists find it useful to identification fossils in a rock sample because certain assemblages of species are characteristic of specific geologic time periods.

23. Many poets enhance their work by creating a contrast among realism and symbolism in a given poem.

24. Most countries depend to few extent on cereal imports to augment their own crops.

25. The fragrant leaves of the laurel plant to sell commercially as bay leaves and are used for seasoning foods.

26. When contented, and occasionally when hunger, cats frequently make a purring sound.

27. The evolution of fishes is a history of constant adaptation to new possibilities, and a refined of these adaptations.

28. In 1991 Antonia Novello, the United States Surgeon General launched several programs to address particular problem that young people have.

29. Some psychologists believe that those who are encouraged to be independent, responsible, and competent in childhood are likely more than others to become motivated to achieve.

30. The central purpose of management is for making every action or decision help achieve a carefully chosen goal.

31. As a poetry Nikki Giovanni makes effective use of jazz and blues rhythms.

32. Unlike wood, paper, and fabric, which tendency to disintegrate after being buried for many years, ceramics and glassware although easily broken, survive well in the ground.

33. Margaret Mead achieved world famous through her studies of child - rearing, personality, and culture.

34. The discovery of the antibiotic penicillin in 1928 has not produced antibiotics useful for the treatment of infectious diseases until 1940.

35. In the United State, the Cabinet consist of a group of advisers, each of whom is chosen by the President to head an executive department of the government.

36. Colleges in the newly formed United States, in recovering from the adverse effects of the American Revolution, inaugurated a broad curriculum in response of social demands.

37. Humus is formed during soil microorganisms decompose animal and plant material into elements usable by plants.

38. Ozone is an unstable faintly bluish gas that is the most chemical active form of oxygen.

39. The development of professional sports in the United States dates back to nineteenth century.

40. Long before his death, John Dewey saw his philosophy have a profound influences on education and thought in the United States and elsewhere.

Question 1-12

Orchids are unique in having the most highly developed of all blossoms, in which the usual male and female reproductive organs are fused in a single structure called the column. The column is designed so that a single pollination will fertilize hundreds of thousands, and in some (5) cases millions, of seeds, so microscopic and light they are easily carried by the breeze. Surrounding the column are three sepals and three petals, sometimes easily recognizable as such, often distorted into gorgeous, weird, but always functional shapes. The most noticeable of the petals is called the labellum, or lip. It is often dramatically marked as an (10) unmistakable landing strip to attract the specific insect the orchid has chosen as its pollinator.

To lure their pollinators from afar, orchids use appropriately intriguing shapes, colors, and scents. At least 50 different aromatic compounds have been analyzed in the orchid family, each blended to attract one, or at most (15) a few, species of insects or birds. Some orchids even change their scents to interest different insects at different times.

Once the right insect has been attracted, some orchids present all sorts of one-way obstacle courses to make sure it does not leave until pollen has been accurately placed or removed. By such ingenious adaptations to specific (20)pollinators, orchids have avoided the hazards of rampant crossbreeding in the wild, assuring the survival of species as discrete identities. At the same time they have made themselves irresistible to collectors.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Birds

(B) Insects

(C) Flowers

(D) Perfume

2. The orchid is unique because of

(A) the habitat in which it lives

(B) the structure of its blossom

(C) the variety of products that can be made from it

(D) the length of its life

3. The word "fused" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) combined

(B) hidden

(C) fertilized

(D) produced

4. How many orchid seeds are typically pollinated at one time?

(A) 200

(B) 2,000

(C) 20,000

(D) 200,000

5. Which of the following is a kind of petal?

(A) The column

(B) The sepal

(C) The stem

(D) The labellum

6. The labellum (line 9) is most comparable to

(A) a microscope

(B) an obstacle course

(C) an airport runway

(D) a racetrack

7. The word "lure" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) attract

(B) recognize

(C) follow

(D) help

8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a means by which an orchid attracts insects?

(A) Size

(B) Shape

(C) Color

(D) Perfume

9. The word "their" in line 15 refers to

(A) orchids

(B) birds

(C) insects

(D) species

10. Which of the following statements about orchids scents does the passage support?

(A) They are effective only when an insect is near the blossom.

(B) Harmful insects are repelled by them.

(C) They are difficult to tell apart.

(D) They may change at different times.

11. The word "placed" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) estimated

(B) measured

(C) deposited

(D) identified

12. The word "discrete" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) complicated

(B) separate

(C) inoffensive

(D) functional

Question 13-22

One of the most important social developments that helped to make possible a shift in thinking about the role of public education was the effect of the baby boom of the 1950's and 1960's on the schools. In the 1920's, but especially in the Depression conditions of the 1930's, the (5)United States experienced a declining birth rate – every thousand women aged fifteen to forty-four gave birth to about 118 live children in 1920, 89.2 in 1930, 75.8 in 1936, and 80 in 1940. With the growing prosperity brought on by the Second World War and the economic boom that followed it, young people married and established households earlier (10) and began to raise larger families than had their predecessors during the Depression. Birth rates rose to 102 per thousand in 1946, 106.2 in 1950, and 118 in 1955. Although economics was probably the most important determinant, it is not the only explanation for the baby boom. The increased value placed on the idea of the family also helps to explain (15) this rise in birth rates. The baby boomers began streaming into the first grade by the mid-1940's and became a flood by 1950. The public school system suddenly found itself overtaxed. While the number of schoolchildren rose because of wartime and postwar conditions, these same conditions made the schools even less prepared to cope with the (20)flood. The wartime economy meant that few new schools were built between 1940 and 1945. Moreover, during the war and in the boom times that followed, large numbers of teachers left their profession for better-paying jobs elsewhere in the economy.

Therefore, in the 1950's and 1960's, the baby boom hit an antiquated (25) and inadequate school system. Consequently, the "custodial rhetoric" of the 1930's and early 1940's no longer made sense; that is, keeping youths aged sixteen and older out of the labor market by keeping them in school could no longer be a high priority for an institution unable to find space and staff to teach younger children aged five to sixteen. With the (30) baby boom, the focus of educators and of laymen interested in education inevitably turned toward the lower grades and back to basic academic skills and discipline. The system no longer had much interest in offering nontraditional, new, and extra services to older youths.

13. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The teaching profession during the baby boom

(B) Birth rates in the United States in the 1930's and 1940

(C) The impact of the baby boom on public education

(D) The role of the family in the 1950's and 1960's

14. The word "it" in line 13 refers to

(A) 19550

(B) economics

(C) the baby boom

(D) value

15. The word "overtaxed" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) well prepared

(B) plentifully supplied

(C) heavily burdened

(D) charged too much

16. The public school of the 1950's and 1960's faced all of the following problems EXCEPT

(A) a declining number of students

(B) old-fashioned facilities

(C) a shortage of teachers

(D) an inadequate number of school buildings

17. According to the passage, why did teachers leave the teaching profession after the outbreak of the war?

(A) The needed to be retrained

(B) They were dissatisfied with the curriculum.

(C) Other jobs provided higher salaries.

(D) Teaching positions were scarce.

18. The word "inadequate" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) deficient

(B) expanded

(C) innovative

(D) specialized

19. The "custodial rhetoric" mentioned in line 25 refers to

(A) raising a family

(B) keeping older individuals in school

(C) running an orderly house hold

(D) maintaining discipline in the classroom

20. The word "inevitably" in line 31 is closest in meaning to

(A) unwillingly

(B) impartially

(C) irrationally

(D) unavoidably

21. Where in the passage does the author refer to the attitude of Americans toward raising a family

in the 1950's and 1960's?

(A) Lines 1-3

(B) Lines 14-15

(C) Lines 24-25

(D) Lines 29-32

22. Which of the following best characterizes the organization of the passage?

(A) The second paragraph presents the effect of circumstances described in the first paragraph.

(B) The second paragraph provides a fictional account to illustrate a problem presented in the first paragraph.

(C) The second paragraph argues against a point made in the first paragraph.

(D) The second paragraph introduces a problem not mentioned in the first paragraph.

Questions 23-32

Nineteenth-century writers in the United States, whether they wrote novels, short stories, poems, or plays, were powerfully drawn to the railroad in its golden year. In fact, writers responded to the railroads as soon as the first were built in the 1830's. By the 1850's, the railroad was a (5) major presence in the life of the nation. Writers such as Ralph Waldo Emerson and Henry David Thoreau saw the railroad both as a boon to democracy and as an object of suspicion. The railroad could be and was a despoiler of nature; furthermore, in its manifestation of speed and noise, it might be a despoiler of human nature as well. By the 1850's and 1860's, (10) there was a great distrust among writer and intellectuals of the rapid industrialization of which the railroad was a leading force.

Deeply philosophical historians such as Henry Adams lamented the role that the new frenzy for business was playing in eroding traditional values. A distrust of industry and business continued among writers (15)throughout the rest of the nineteenth century and into the twentieth.

For the most part, the literature in which the railroad plays an important role belong to popular culture rather than to the realm of serious art. One thinks of melodramas, boys' books, thrillers, romances, and the like rather than novels of the first rank. In the railroads' prime years, between 1890 (20) and 1920, there were a few individuals in the United States, most of them with solid railroading experience behind them, who made a profession of writing about railroading-works offering the ambience of stations, yards, and locomotive cabs. These writers, who can genuinely be said to have created a genre, the "railroad novel." are now mostly forgotten, their  (25)names having faded from memory. But anyone who takes the time to consult their fertile writings will still find a treasure trove of information about the place of the railroad in the lift of the United States.

23. With which of the following topics is the passage mainly concerned?

(A) The role of the railroad in the economy of the United States.

(B) Major nineteenth-century writers.

(C) The conflict between expanding industry and preserving nature.

(D) The railroad as a subject for literature.

24. The word "it" in line 7 refers to

(A) railroad

(B) manifestation

(C) speed

(D) nature

25. In the first paragraph, the author implies that writers' reactions to the development of railroads were

(A) highly enthusiastic

(B) both positive and negative

(C) unchanging

(D) disinterested

26. The word "lamented" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) complained about

(B) analyzed

(C) explained

(D) reflected on

27. According to the passage, the railroad played a significant role in literature in all of the following kinds of books EXCEPT

(A) thrillers

(B) boys' books

(C) important novels

(D) romances

28. The phrase "first rank" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) largest category

(B) highest quality

(C) earliest writers

(D) most difficult language

29. The word "them" in line 21 refers to

(A) novels

(B) years

(C) individuals

(D) works

30. The author mentions all of the following as being true about the literature of railroads EXCEPT that

(A) many of its writers had experience working on railroads

(B) many of the books were set in railroad stations and yards

(C) the books were well known during the railroads' prime years.

(D) quite a few of the books are still popular today.

31. The words "faded from" in line 25 are closest in meaning to

(A) grew in

(B) disappeared from

(C) remained in

(D) developed from

32. What is the author's attitude toward the "railroad novels" and other books about railroads written between 1890 and 1920?

(A) They have as much literary importance as the books written by Emerson, Thoreau, and Adams.

(B) They are good examples of the effects industry and business had on the literature of the United States.

(C) They contributed to the weakening of traditional values.

(D) They are worth reading as sources of knowledge about the impact of railroads on life in the United States.

Questions 33-44

By the 1820's in the United States, when steamboats were common on western waters, these boats were mostly powered by engines built in the West (Pittsburgh, Cincinnati, or Louisville), and of a distinctive western design specially suited to western needs. The first steam engines in (5)practical use in England and the United States were of low-pressure design. This was the type first developed by James Watt, then manufactured by the firn of Boulton and Watt, and long the standard industrial engine. Steam was accumulated in a large, double-acting vertical cylinder, but the steam reached only a few pounds of pressure per square (10) inch. It was low-pressure engines of this type that were first introduced into the United States by Robert Fulton. He imported such a Boulton and Watt engine from England to run the Clermont. But this type of engine was expensive and complicated, requiring many precision-fitted moving parts.

(15) The engine that became standard on western steamboats was of a different and novel design. It was the work primarily of an unsung hero of American industrial progress, Oliver Evans(1755-1819). The self-educated son of a Delaware farmer. Evans early became obsessed by the possibilities of mechanized production and steam power. As early as 1802 (20) he was using a stationary steam engine of high-pressure design in his mill. Engines of this type were not unknown, but before Evans they were generally considered impractical and dangerous.

Within a decade the high-pressure engine, the new type, had become standard on western waters. Critics ignorant of western conditions often (25) attacked it as wasteful and dangerous. But people who really knew the Ohio, the Missouri, and the Mississippi insisted, with good reasons, that it was the only engine for them. In shallow western  rivers the weight of vessel and engine was important; a heavy engine added to the problem of navigation. The high-pressure engine was far lighter in proportion to (30)horsepower, and with less than half as many moving parts, was much easier and cheaper to repair. The main advantages of low-pressure engines were safe operation and economy of fuel consumption, neither of which meant much in the West.

33. What is the passage mainly about?

(A) Steamboat engines in the western United States

(B) River travel in the western United States

(C) A famous United States inventor

(D) The world's first practical steamboat

34. What was the Clermont (line 11-12)?

(A) A river

(B) A factory

(C) A boat

(D) An engine

35. Who developed the kind of steam engine used on western steamboats?

(A) Watt

(B) Boulton

(C) Fulton

(D) Evans

36. The word "novel" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) fictional

(B) intricate

(C) innovative

(D) powerful

37. What opinion of Evans is suggested by the use of the term "unsung hero" in line 16?

(A) More people should recognize the importance of his work .

(B) More of his inventions should be used today.

(C) He should credited with inventing the steam engine.

(D) More should be learned about his early lift.

38. What does the author imply about Evans?

(A) He went to England to learn about steam power.

(B) He worked for Fulton.

(C) He traveled extensively in the West.

(D) He taught himself about steam engines.

39. The work "stationary" in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) single

(B) fixed

(C) locomotive

(D) modified

40. The word "they" in line 21 refers to

(A) engines

(B) mechanized production and steam power

(C) possibilities

(D) steamboats

41. What does the author imply about the western rivers?

(A) It was difficult to find fuel near them.

(B) They flooded frequently.

(C) They were difficult to navigate.

(D) They were rarely used for transportation.

42. The word "it" in line 26 refers to

(A) decade

(B) high-pressure engine

(C) weight

(D) problem

43. The word "vessel" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) fuel

(B) crew

(C) cargo

(D) craft

44. Which of the following points was made by the critics of high-pressure engines?

(A) They are expensive to import.

(B) They are not powerful enough for western waters.

(C) They are dangerous.

(D) They weigh too much.

Questions 45-50

Volcanic fire and glacial ice are natural enemies. Eruptions at glaciated volcanoes typically destroy ice fields, as they did in 1980 when 70 percent of Mount Saint Helens ice cover was demolished. During long dormant intervals, glaciers gain the upper hand cutting deeply into (5)volcanic cones and eventually reducing them to rubble. Only rarely do these competing forces of heat and cold operate in perfect balance to create a phenomenon such as the steam caves at Mount Rainier National Park.

Located inside Rainier's two ice-filled summit craters, these caves form a labyrinth of tunnels and vaulted chambers about one and one-half  (10)miles in total length. Their creation depends on an unusual combination of factors that nature almost never brings together in one place. The cave-making recipe calls for a steady emission of volcanic gas and heat, a heavy annual snowfall at an elevation high enough to keep it from melting during the summer, and a bowl-shaped crater to hold the snow.

(15) Snow accumulating yearly in Rainier's summit craters is compacted and compressed into a dense form of ice called firn, a substance midway between ordinary ice and the denser crystalline ice that makes up glaciers. Heat rising from numerous openings (called fumaroles) along the inner crater walls melts out chambers between the rocky walls and the overlying (20) ice pack. Circulating currents of warm air then melt additional opening in the firm ice, eventually connecting the individual chambers and, in the larger of Rainier's two craters, forming a continuous passageway that extends two- thirds of the way around the crater's interior.

To maintain the cave system, the elements of fire under ice must remain (25)in equilibrium. Enough snow must fill the crater each year to replace that melted from below. If too much volcanic heat is discharged, the crater's ice pack will melt away entirely and the caves will vanish along with the snow of yesteryear. If too little heat is produced, the ice, replenished annually by winter snowstorms, will expand, pushing against the enclosing crater walls (30) and smothering the present caverns in solid firm ice.

45. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?

(A) The importance of snowfall for Mount Rainier.

(B) The steam caves of Mount Rainier.

(C) how ice covers are destroyed .

(D) The eruption of Mount Saint Helens in 1980.

46. The word "they" in line 2 refers to

(A) fields

(B) intervals

(C) eruptions

(D) enemies

47. According to the passage long periods of volcanic inactivity can lead to a volcanic cone's

(A) strongest eruption

(B) sudden growth

(C) destruction

(D) unpredictability

48. The second paragraph mentions all of the following as necessary elements in the creation of steam caves EXCEPT

(A) a glacier

(B) a crater

(C) heat

(D) snow

49. According to the passage, heat from Mount Rainier's summit craters rises from

(A) crystalline ice

(B) firns

(C) chambers

(D) fumaroles

50. In line 30 "smothering" the caverns means that they would be

(A) eliminated

(B) enlarged

(C) prevented

(D) hollowed

1996年08月语法题

1. A microscope can reveal vastly _____ detail than is visible to the naked eye.

(A) than

(B) than more

(C) more than

(D) more.

2. Narcissus bulbs _____ at least three inches apart and covered with about four inches of well drained soil.

(A) should be planted

(B) to plant

(C) must planting

(D) should plant

3. Industrialization has been responsible for _____ most radical of the environmental changes caused by humans.

(A) a

(B) the

(C) some of which

(D) which are the

4. In many areas the slope and topography of the land _____ excess rainfall to run off into a natural outlet.

(A) neither permit

(B) without permitting

(C) nor permitting

(D) do not permit.

5. Color and light, taken together, _____ the aesthetic impact of the interior of a building.

(A) very powerfully influence

(B) very influence powerfully

(C) powerfully very influence

(D) influence powerfully very.

6. _____ that Rachel Carson’s 1962 book Silent Spring was one of the chief sources of inspiration for the development of nontoxic pesticides.

(A) There is likely

(B) Likely to be

(C) It is likely

(D) Likely

7. Total color blindness, _____, is the result of a defect in the retina.

(A) a rare condition that

(B) a rare condition

(C) that a rare condition

(D) is a rare condition.

8. _____ no conclusive evidence exists, many experts believe that the wheel was invented only once and then diffused to the rest of the world.

(A) Even

(B) But

(C) Although

(D) So

9. Wherever there is plenty of rain during the growing season, life is _____ in various forms.

(A) abundant

(B) the abundance

(C) an abundant

(D) it abundant

10. In her time, Isadora Duncan was _____ today a liberated woman.

(A) calling what we would

(B) who would be calling

(C) what we would call

(D) she would call it.

11. _____ around stones that are sun-warmed, even the smallest of stones creates tiny currents of warm air.

(A) The cool air

(B) If the air is cool

(C) That the air cools

(D) The cooler the air.

12. Despite its wide range of styles and instrumentation, country music has certain common features _____ its own special character.

(A) give it that

(B) that give it

(C) give that

(D) that gives it to

13. Most of _____ archaeologists know about prehistoric cultures is based on studies of material remains.

(A) these

(B) what

(C) which

(D) their

14. According to some critics, the novels of William Burroughs demonstrate the major hazard of absurd literature, _____ tendency toward over-embellishment and incoherence.

(A) notwithstanding

(B) besides

(C) is a

(D) its

15. Coinciding with the development of jazz in New Orleans in the 1920’s _____ in blues music.

(A) was one of the greatest periods.

(B) one of the greatest periods

(C) was of the greatest periods

(D) the greatest periods.

16. Gone With the Wind, the epic novel about life in South during the Civil War period, took ten years write.

17. None two butterflies have exactly the same design on their wings.

18. To save the California condor from extinction, a group of federal, local, and privately organizations initiated a rescue program.

19. A coral reef, a intricate aquatic community of plants and animals, is found only in warm, shallow, sunlit seas.

20. Carnegie hall was the first building in New York designed special for orchestral music.

21. Since it lives in the desert, the collared lizard depends from insects for water as well as for food.

22. The Texas Panhandle region, in the northwestern part of the state, produces more wheat, cotton, and grain sorghum than any of other area of Texas.

23. Light rays what enter the eye must be focused onto a point on the retina in order for a clear visual image to form.

24. The orangutan’s hands and feet are designed for holding and grasping branches, and its powerful immensely arms enable it to climb and swing in trees without difficulty.

25. The extraordinary beautiful of orchids makes them the basis of a multimillion dollar floral industry.

26. The Vermont Elememary Science Project, according to its founders, are designed to challenge some of the most widely held beliefs about teaching.

27. The number 8.5 is an example of a “mixed number” because it is composing of an integer and a fraction.

28. If it is kept dry, a seed can still sprout up to forty years after their formation.

29. In The Sociology of Science, now considered a classic, Robert Merton discusses cultural, economy and social forces that contributed to the development of modern science.

30. Bacteria lived in the soil play a vital role in recycling the carbon and nitrogen needed by plants.

31. Some snakes have hollow teeth are called fangs that they use to poison their victims.

32. Stars derive their energy from thermonuclear reactions that take place in their heat interiors.

33. Carrie Chapman Call organized the League of Women Votes after successfully campaign for the constitutional amendment that gave women the right to vote.

34. Any group that conducting its meeting using parliamentary rules will encounter situations where prescribed procedures cannot be applied.

35. The strongly patriotic character of Charles Sangster’s poetry is credited about greatly furthering the cause of confederation in Canada.

36. Jessamine West’s first and most famous novel, The friendly Persuasion describes the life of a Quaker farmed family in the mid-1800’s.

37. One inventor that Thomas Edison can take credit for is the light bulb.

38. Electric motors range in size from the tiny mechanisms that operate sewing machine to the great engines in heavy locomotives.

39. The nitrogen makes up over 78 percent of the Earth’s atmosphere, the gaseous mass surrounding the planet.

40. The Mississippi, the longest river in the United States, begins as small clear stream in northwestern Minnesota.

Question 1--10

The word laser was coined as an acronym for Light Amplification by the Stimulated Emission of Radiation. Ordinary light, from the Sun or a light bulb, is emitted spontaneously, when atoms or molecules get rid of excess energy by themselves, without any outside intervention. Stimulated (5) emission is different because it occurs when an atom or molecule holding onto excess energy has been stimulated to emit it as light.

Albert Einstein was the first to suggest the existence of stimulated emission in a paper published in 1917. However, for many years physicists thought that atoms and molecules always were much more likely to emit (10) light spontaneously and that stimulated emission thus always would be much weaker. It was not until after the Second World War that physicists began trying to make stimulated emission dominate. They sought ways by which one atom or molecule could stimulate many other to emit light, amplifying it to much higher powers.

(15) The first to succeed was Charles H.Townes, then at Colombia University in New York . Instead of working with light, however, he worked with microwaves, which have a much longer wavelength, and built a device he called a "maser" for Microwave Amplification by the Stimulated Emission of Radiation. Although he thought of the key idea in (20) 1951, the first maser was not completed until a couple of years later. Before long, many other physicists were building masers and trying to discover how to produce stimulated emission at even shorter wavelength.

The key concepts emerged about 1957. Townes and Arthur Schawlow, then at Bell Telephone Laboratories, wrote a long paper outlining the (25)conditions needed to amplify stimulated emission of visible light waves. At about the same time, similar ideas crystallized in the mind of Gordon Gould, then a 37-year-old graduate student at Columbia, who wrote them down in a series of notebooks. Townes and Schawlow published their ideas in a scientific journal, Physical Review Letter, but Gould filed a patent (30) application. Three decades later, people still argue about who deserves the credit for the concept of the laser.

1. The word "coin" in line 1 could be replaced by

(A) created

(B) mentioned

(C) understood

(D) discovered

2. The word "intervention" in line 4 can best be replaced by

(A) need

(B) device

(C) influence

(D) source

3. The word "it" in line 6 refers to

(A) light bulb

(B) energy

(C) molecule

(D) atom

4. Which of the following statements best describes a laser?

(A) A device for stimulating atoms and molecules to emit light

(B) An atom in a high-energy state

(C) A technique for destroying atoms or molecules

(D) An instrument for measuring light waves

5. Why was Towne's early work with stimulated emission done with microwaves?

(A) He was not concerned with light amplification

(B) It was easier to work with longer wavelengths.

(C) His partner Schawlow had already begun work on the laser.

(D) The laser had already been developed

6. In his research at Columbia University, Charles Townes worked with all of the following EXCEPT

(A) stimulated emission

(B) microwaves

(C) light amplification

(D) a maser

7. In approximately what year was the first maser built?

(A) 1917

(B) 1951

(C) 1953

(D) 1957

8. The word "emerged" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) increased

(B) concluded

(C) succeeded

(D) appeared

9. The word "outlining" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) assigning

(B) studying

(C) checking

(D) summarizing

10. Why do people still argue about who deserves the credit for the concept of the laser?

(A) The researchers' notebooks were lost.

(B) Several people were developing the idea at the same time.

(C) No one claimed credit for the development until recently.

(D) The work is still incomplete.

Question 11--21

Panel painting, common in thirteenth -and fourteenth -century Europe, involved a painstaking, laborious process. Wooden planks were joined, covered with gesso to prepare the surface for painting , and then polished smooth with special tools. On this perfect surface, the artist would sketch a (5) composition with chalk, refine it with inks, and then begin the deliberate process of applying thin layers of egg tempera paint (egg yolk in which pigments are suspended) with small brushes. The successive layering of these meticulously applied paints produced the final, translucent colors.

(10) Backgrounds of gold were made by carefully applying sheets of gold leaf, and then embellishing of decorating the gold leaf by punching it with a metal rod on which a pattern had been embossed. Every step in the process was slow and deliberate. The quick-drying tempera demanded that the artist know exactly where each stroke be placed before the brush met (15) the panel, and it required the use of fine brushes. It was, therefore, an ideal technique for emphasizing the hard linear edges and pure, fine areas of color that were so much a part of the overall aesthetic of the time. The notion that an artist could or would dash off an idea in a fit of spontaneous inspiration was completely alien to these deliberately produced works.

(20) Furthermore, making these paintings was so time-consuming that it demanded assistance. All such work was done by collective enterprise in the workshops. The painter or master who is credited with having created painting may have designed the work and overseen its production, but it is highly unlikely that the artist's hand applied every stroke of the brush. (25)More likely, numerous assistants, who had been trained to imitate the artist's style, applied the paint. The carpenter's shop probably provided the frame and perhaps supplied the panel, and yet another shop supplied the gold. Thus, not only many hands, but also many shops were involved in the finalproduct.

(30) In spite of problems with their condition, restoration, and preservation many panel paintings have survived, and today many of them are housed in museum collections.

11. What aspect of panel paintings does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Famous examples

(B) Different styles

(C) Restoration

(D) Production

12. According to the passage, what does the first step in making a panel painting ?

(A) Mixing the paint

(B) Preparing the panel

(C) Buying the gold leaf

(D) Making ink drawings

13. The word "it" in line 5 refers to.

(A) chalk

(B) composition

(C) artist

(D) surface

14. The word "deliberate" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) decisive

(B) careful

(C) natural

(D) unusual

15. Which of the following processes produced the translucent colors found on panel paintings?

(A) Joining wooden planks to form large sheets

(B) Polishing the gesso

(C) Applying many layers of paint

(D) Covering the background with gold leaf

16. What characteristic of tempera paint is mentioned in the passage ?

(A) It dries quickly

(B) It is difficult to make

(C) It dissolves easily

(D) It has to be applied directly to wood

17. The word "demanded" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) ordered

(B) reported

(C) required

(D) questioned

18. The "collective enterprise" mentioned in line 18 includes all of the following EXCEPT

(A) supplying the gold leaf

(B) building the panels

(C) applying the paint

(D) selling the painting

19. The word "imitate" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) copy

(B) illustrate

(C) promote

(D) believe in

20. The author mentions all of the following as problems with the survival of panel painting EXCEPT

(A) condition

(B) theft

(C) preservation

(D) restoration

21. The word "them" in line 31 refers to

(A) problems

(B) condition, restoration, preservation

(C) panel paintings

(D) museum collections

Question 22--32

Crows are probably the most frequently met and easily identifiable members of the native fauna of the United States. The great number of tales, legends, and myths about these birds indicates that people have been exceptionally interested in them for a long time. On the other hand, when (5) it comes to substantive -- particularly behavioral -- information, crows are less well known than many comparably common species and, for that matter, not a few quite uncommon ones: the endangered California condor, to cite one obvious example. There are practical reasons for this.

Crows are notoriously poor and aggravating subjects for field (10)research. Keen observers and quick learners, they are astute about the intentions of other creatures, including researchers, and adept at avoiding them. Because they are so numerous, active, and monochromatic, it is difficult to distinguish one crow from another. Bands, radio transmitters, or other identifying devices can be attached to them, but this of course (15)requires catching live crows, who are among the wariest and most untrappable of birds.

Technical difficulties aside, crow research is daunting because the ways of these birds are so complex and various. As preeminent is generalists, members of this species ingeniously exploit a great range of habitats and (20) resources, and they can quickly adjust to changes in their circumstances. Being so educable, individual birds have markedly different interests and inclinations, strategies and scams. For example, one pet crow learned how to let a dog out of its kennel by pulling the pin on the door. When the dog escaped, the bird went into the kennel and ate its food.

22. What is the main topic of the passage?

(A) The ways in which crows differ from other common birds

(B) The myths and legends about crows

(C) The characteristics that make crows difficult to study

(D) The existing methods for investigating crow behavior

23. According to the first paragraph, what evidence is there that crows have interested people for a long time?

(A) The large number of stories about crows.

(B) The frequency with which crows are sighted

(C) The amount of research that has been conducted on crows

(D) The ease with which crows are identified

24. The word "comparable" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) interestingly

(B) similar

(C) otherwise

(D) sometimes

25. In line 7, the author mention the endangered California condor as an example of a species that is

(A) smaller than the crow

(B) easily identifiable

(C) featured in legends

(D) very rare

26. In line 6, the author mentions the endangered California condor as an example of a species that is

(A) crows

(B) subjects

(C) intentions

(D) researchers

27. According to the second paragraph, crows are poor subjects for field research for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

(A) They can successfully avoid observers.

(B) They are hard to distinguish from one another

(C) They can be quite aggressive.

(D) They are difficult to catch.

28. In the second paragraph, the author implies that using radio transmitters would allow a researcher who studies crow to

(A) identify individual crows

(B) follow flocks of crows over long distances

(C) record the times when crows are most active

(D) help crows that become sick or injured

29. According to the third paragraph, which of the following is true about crows?

(A) They seldom live in any one place for very long.

(B) They thrive in a wide variety of environments.

(C) They have marked preferences for certain kinds of foods.

(D) They use up the resources in one area before moving to another.

30. In line 22, the word "inclinations" is closest in meaning to

(A) tricks

(B) opportunities

(C) preferences

(D) experiences

31. In lines 22-25, the author mentions a pet crow to illustrate which of the following?

(A) The clever ways that crows solve problems

(B) The differences between pet crows and wild crows

(C) The ease with which crows can be tamed

(D) The affection that crows show to other creatures

32. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

(A) Crows have relatively long lives.

(B) Crows have keen vision

(C) Crows are usually solitary

(D) Crows are very intelligent.

Questions 33-41

In the early days of the United States, postal charges were paid by the recipient and charges varied with the distance carried. In 1825, the United States Congress permitted local postmasters to give letters to mail carriers for home delivery, but these carriers received no government salary and (5) their entire compensation depended on what they were paid by the recipients of individual letters.

In 1847 the United States Post Office Department adopted the idea of a postage stamp, which of course simplified the payment for postal service but caused grumbling by those who did not like to prepay. Besides, the (10) stamp covered only delivery to the post office and did not include carrying it to a private address. In Philadelphia, for example, with a population of 150,000, people still had to go to the post office to get their mail. The confusion and congestion of individual citizens looking for their letters was itself enough to discourage use of the mail. It is no wonder that, (15) during the years of these cumbersome arrangements, private letter-carrying and express businesses developed. Although their activities were only semilegal, they thrived, and actually advertised that between Boston and Philadelphia they were a half-day speedier than the government mail. The government postal service lost volume to private competition and was (20) not able to handle efficiently even the business it had.

Finally, in 1863, Congress provided that the mail carriers who delivered the mail from the post offices to private addresses should receive a government salary, and that there should be no extra charge for that delivery. But this delivery service was at first confined to cities, and free (25) home delivery became a mark of urbanism. As late as 1887, a town had to have 10,000 people to be eligible for free home delivery. In 1890, of the 75 million people in the United States, fewer than 20 million had mail delivered free to their doors. The rest, nearly three-quarters of the population, still received no mail unless they went to their post office.

33. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The increased use of private mail services

(B) The development of a government postal system

(C) A comparison of urban and rural postal services

(D) The history of postage stamps.

34. The word "varied" in line 2 could best be replaced by

(A) increased

(B) differed

(C) returned

(D) started

35. Which of the following was seen as a disadvantage of the postage stamp?

(A) It had to be purchased by the sender in advance.

(B) It increased the cost of mail delivery.

(C) It was difficult to affix to letters.

(D) It was easy to counterfeit.

36. Why does the author mention the city of Philadelphia in line 9?

(A) It was the site of the first post office in the United States.

(B) Its postal service was inadequate for its population.

(C) It was the largest city in the United States in 1847.

(D) It was commemorated by the first United States postage stamp.

37. The word "cumbersome" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) burdensome

(B) handsome

(C) loathsome

(D) quarrelsome

38. The word "they" in line 18 refers to

(A) Boston and Philadelphia

(B) businesses

(C) arrangements

(D) letters

39. The private postal services of the nineteenth century claimed that they could do which of the following better than the government?

(A) Deliver a higher volume of mail.

(B) Deliver mail more cheaply.

(C) Deliver mail faster.

(D) Deliver mail to rural areas.

40. In 1863 the United States government began providing which of the following to mail carriers?

(A) A salary

(B) Housing

(C) Transportation

(D) Free postage stamps

41. The word "Confined" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) granted

(B) scheduled

(C) limited

(D) recommended

Questions 43-50

Archaeology has long been an accepted tool for studying prehistoric cultures. Relatively recently the same techniques have been systematically applied to studies of the more immediate past. This has been called "historical archaeology," a term that is used in the United States to refer to (5) any archaeological investigation into North American sites that postdate the arrival of Europeans.

Back in the 1930's and 1940's, when building restoration was popular, historical archaeology was primarily a tool of architectural reconstruction. The role of archaeologists was to find the foundations of historic buildings (10) and then take a back seat to architects.

The mania for reconstruction had largely subsided by 1950's. Most people entering historical archaeology during this period came out of university anthropology departments, where they had studied prehistoric cultures. They were, by training social scientists, not historians, and their (15) work tended to reflect this bias. The questions they framed and the techniques they used were designed to help them understand, as scientists, how people behaved. But because they were treading on historical ground for which there was often extensive written documentation and because their own knowledge of these periods was usually limited, their (20)contributions to American history remained circumscribed. Their reports, highly technical and sometimes poorly written, went unread.

More recently, professional archaeologists have taken over. These researchers have sought to demonstrate that their work can be a valuable tool not only of science but also of history, providing fresh insights into (25) the daily lives of ordinary people whose existences might not otherwise be so well documented. This newer emphasis on archaeology as social history has shown great promise, and indeed work done in this area has lead to a reinterpretation of the United States past.

In Kingston, New York, for example, evidence has uncovered that (30) indicates that English goods were being smuggled into that city at a time when the Dutch supposedly controlled trading in the area. And in Sacramento an excavation at site of a fashionable nineteenth-century hotel revealed that garbage had been stashed in the building's basement despite sanitation laws to the contrary.

42. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Why historical archaeology was first developed

(B) How the methods and purpose of historical archaeology have changed

(C) The contributions architects make to historical archaeology

(D) The attitude of professional archaeologists toward historical archaeology

43. According to the first paragraph, what is a relatively new focus in archaeology?

(A) Investigating the recess past

(B) Studying prehistoric cultures

(C) Excavating ancient sites in what is now the United States.

(D) Comparing ancient sites in what is now the United States.

44. According to the passage, when had historical archaeologists been trained as anthropologists?

(A) Prior to the 1930's

(B) During the 1930's and 1940's

(C) During the 1950's and 1960's

(D) After the 1960's

45. The word "framed" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) understood

(B) read

(C) avoided

(D) posed

46. In the third paragraph, the author implies that the techniques of history and the techniques of social science are

(A) quite different from each other

(B) equally useful in studying prehistoric cultures

(C) usually taught to students of archaeology

(D) both based on similar principles

47. The phrase "their contributions" in line 19 refers to the contributions of

(A) social scientists

(B) prehistoric cultures

(C) historians

(D) documentation and knowledge

48. The author mentions an excavation at the site of a hotel in Sacramento in order to give an example of

(A) a building reconstruction project

(B) the work of the earliest historical archaeologists

(C) a finding that conflicts with written records

(D) the kind of information that historians routinely examine

49. The word "supposedly" in line 31 is closest in meaning to

(A) ruthlessly

(B) tightly

(C) barely

(D) seemingly

50. The word "sanitation" in line 34 is closest in meaning to

(A) city

(B) housing

(C) health

(D) trade

1996年10月语法题

1. Charlie Parker, _____ was one of the creators of the music style called “bop.”

(A) a great jazz improviser who

(B) to improvise great jazz

(C) a great jazz improviser

(D) improvised great jazz.

2. The world’s deepest cave, Pierre St. Martin in the Pyrenees Mountains, is almost three times as deep _____.

(A) as the Empire State Building is high.

(B) That the Empire State Building is higher.

(C) Is higher than the Empire State Building

(D) And the Empire State Building’s height.

3. When Columbus reached the New World, corn was the _____ in the Americas.

(A) widely most grown plant.

(B) Most widely grown plant

(C) Most grown widely plant

(D) Plant widely grown most.

4. Because kaolin shrinks in firing at a different rate than ordinary clay, _____ when creating pottery using both types of clay.

(A) special handling is required

(B) special handling required

(C) a requirement of special handling

(D) the required special handling

5. The ceremonial Chilcat blanket of the Northwest Tlingit Indians was generally _____ from cedar bark, wool, and goats’ hair.

(A) wove

(B) to weave

(C) weaving

(D) woven

6. _____ composed traditionally has been a subject of debate among scholars.

(A) Were ballads how

(B) Ballads were how they

(C) How ballads that were

(D) How ballads were

7. Jupiter, the closest of the giant planets to Earth, has _____ solid surface and is surrounded by zones of intense radiation.

(A) not

(B) nor

(C) no

(D) neither.

8. The black-billed cuckoo has been known to steal eggs _____ to other birds.

(A) belong

(B) which belonging

(C) which they belong

(D) that belong

9. The purpose of phonetics is _____ an inventory and a description of the sounds found in speech.

(A) to provide

(B) provided

(C) which provided

(D) providing that

10. Earthquakes can damage a tree _____ violently, and it can take several years for the tree to heal.

(A) to cause shaking

(B) when shaking it causes

(C) by causing it to shake

(D) to cause to shake it

11. _____ bacteria in foods are killed, as they are during baking or stewing, decay is slowed down.

(A) What

(B) The

(C) If

(D) So

12. The colors and patterns of the wings of butterflies and moths help _____ the organism against predators.

(A) protect

(B) being protected

(C) protecting

(D) protection of

13. In 1993 the Library of Congress appointed author Rita Dove _____ of the United States.

(A) as was poet laureate

(B) was poet laureate

(C) poet laureate

(D) and poet laureate

14. At the South Pole _____, the coldest and most desolate region on Earth.

(A) Antarctica lies where

(B) Where Antarctica lies

(C) Antarctica lies and

(D) Lies Antarctica

15. Tornados, powerful, destructive wind storms, occur most often in the spring when hot winds _____ over flat land encounter heavy cold air.

(A) which to rise.

(B) that rising

(C) are rising

(D) rising

16. Many exercises such as calisthenics, running, or to swim involve producing muscle tension through a range of movements that are called isotonics.

17. Intelligence, education, and experience all helps shape management style.

18. The basic elements of public-opinion research are interviewers, questionnaires, tabulating equipment, and to sample population.

19. Conservation organizations help for to preserve the ecology of an area by keeping track of endangered species.

20. Gwendolyn Brooks, which won a Pulitzer Prize for Poetry in 1950, had 75 poems published by the time she was twenty.

21. O Halifax is largest city and chief port of Nova Scotia and is the eastern terminus of Canada’s two great railway systems.

22. T. S. Eliot received wide recognition after publishes The Waste Land, which fused poetic traditions with elements of modern music and language.

23. Numerous types of cells, such as skin cells and white blood cells, have the power reproduce asexually.

24. The knee is more likely to be damage than most other joints because it is subject to tremendous forces during vigorous activity.

25. Although ferns lack flowers, they do have leaves, stems, and root.

26. Crazy Horse is generally recognized for his courageous and skill, and he was revered by the Sioux as their greatest leader.

27. In medicine, certain plastics have important uses because they do not affected by chemicals in the body, and they do not harm the body.

28. Since a hospital is organized to protect and treat people who are ill, its goals, structures, and functions depend on the currently state of medical science.

29. A change in direction of the monsoon winds result from the differences between the heating or cooling of landmasses and that of oceans.

30. Small distinctions among stamps, unimportant to the person average, would mean a great deal to the stamp collector.

31. Members of a nation’s foreign service represent that country’s interests abroad and report on the conditions, trends, and policies of the country which they are stationed.

32. Abraham Lincoln’s boyhood home resembled those of many others mid-western pioneers, with its dirt floor, sleeping loft, and crude fireplace.

33. Dwelling primarily in the ice northern polar seas, beluga whales are characteristically small, white, agile, and elusive.

34. There is evidence that the caribou originated into North America and crossed over al land bridge into Asia and evolved into the Old World’s reindeer.

35. The bold way in which Margaret Mead defined the terms “family” - based as much on choice as on biological relationship - is possibly the most enduring of her legacies.

36. The planet Mars is a freezing, barren deserts with huge, dry canyons and towering volcanoes.

37. Of the many machines invented in the late nineteenth century, none had a great impact on the United States economy than the automobile.

38. A number of the Pacific Islands are volcanoes that have pushed up from the ocean floor, others are the tops sunken mountain ranges.

39. It has been reported that during any twenty-four hour period, a minimal of three hundred North American women start their own businesses.

40. Archeological studies have provided evidence that the use of plants for decoration as well as for food developed early in the history.

Questions 1-8

When Jules Verne wrote Journey to the Center of the Earth in 1864, there were many conflicting theories about the nature of the Earth's interior. Some geologists thought that it contained a highly compressed ball of incandescent gas, while others suspected that it consisted of (5)separate shells, each made of a different material. Today, well over a century later, there is still little direct evidence of what lies beneath our feet. Most of our knowledge of the Earth's interior comes not from mines or boreholes, but from the study of seismic waves - powerful pulses of energy released by earthquakes.

(10) The way that seismic waves travel shows that the Earth's interior is far from uniform. The continents and the seabed are formed by the crust - a thin sphere of relatively light, solid rock. Beneath the crust lies the mantle, a very different layer that extends approximately halfway to the Earth's center. There the rock is the subject of a battle between increasing heat and (15) growing pressure.

In its high levels, the mantle is relatively cool; at greater depths, high temperatures make the rock behave more like a liquid than a solid. Deeper still, the pressure is even more intense, preventing the rock from melting in spite of a higher temperature.

(20) Beyond a depth of around 2,900 kilometers, a great change takes place and the mantle gives way to the core. Some seismic waves cannot pass through the core and others are bent by it. From this and other evidence, geologists conclude that the outer core is probably liquid, with a solid center. It is almost certainly made of iron, mixed with smaller (25)amounts of other elements such as nickel.

The conditions in the Earth's core make it a far more alien world than space. Its solid iron heart is subjected to unimaginable pressure and has a temperature of about 9,000^0F. Although scientists can speculate about its nature, neither humans nor machines will ever be able to visit it.

1. The word "conflicting" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) controlling

(B) outdated

(C) opposing

(D) important

2. What is today's richest source of information about the Earth's interior for geologists?

(A) Boreholes

(B) Shells

(C) Seismic waves

(D) Mines

3. The word "There" in line 14 refers to the

(A) mantle

(B) crust

(C) seabed

(D) Earth's center.

4. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of the Earth's mantle?

(A) Light, solid rock

(B) Uniformity of composition

(C) Dramatically increasing pressure

(D) Compressed, incandescent gas

5. The phrase "gives way to" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) runs along

(B) rubs against

(C) turns into

(D) floats on

6. The word "it" in line 22 refers to

(A) mantle

(B) core

(C) change

(D) depth

7. Why does the author state in line 26 that the Earth's core is "more alien" than space?

(A) Government funds are not available to study the Earth's core.

(B) Scientists aren't interested in the characteristics of the Earth's core.

(C) It is impossible to go to the Earth's core to do research.

(D) The Earth's core is made of elements that are dangerous to humans.

8. The word "speculate" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) report

(B) learn

(C) worry

(D) hypothesize

Question 9-20

Despite the road improvements of the turnpike era (1790-1830). Americans continued as in colonial times to depend wherever possible on water routes for travel and transportation. The larger rivers, especially the Mississippi and the Ohio, became increasingly useful as steamboats grew (5) in number and improved in design.

River boats carried to New Orleans the corn and other crops of northwestern farmers, the cotton and tobacco of southwestern planters. From New Orleans, ships took the cargoes on to eastern seaports. Neither the farmers of the west nor the  merchants of the east were completely (10)satisfied with this pattern of trade. Farmers could get better prices for their crops if the alternative existed of sending them directly eastward to market and merchants could sell larger quantities of their manufactured goods if these could be transported more directly and more economically to the west.

(15) New waterways were needed. Sectional jealousies and constitutional scruples stood in the way of action by the federal government and necessary expenditures were too great for private enterprise. If extensive canals were to be dug, the job would be up to the various states.

New York was the first to act. It had the natural advantage of a (20)comparatively level route between the Hudson River and Lake Erie, through the only break in the entire Appalachian Mountain chain. Yet the engineering tasks were imposing. The distance was more than 350 miles and there were ridges to cross and a wilderness of woods and swamps to penetrate. The Erie Canal begun in 1817 and completed in 1825, was by far (25) the greatest construction job that Americans had ever undertaken. It quickly proved a financial success as well. The prosperity of the Erie encouraged the state to enlarge its canal system by building several branches.

The range of the New York canal system was still further extended when the states of Ohio and Indiana, inspired by the success of the Erie Canal, (30)provided water connections between Lake Erie and the Ohio River.

9. What does the passage suggest was the principal route for transporting crops to the east prior in 1825?

(A) River to road

(B) Canal to river

(C) River to ocean

(D) Road to canal.

10. It can be inferred from the passage that shipping cargo east by way of New Orleans was

(A) Advantageous for manufactures

(B) Inexpensive for merchants

(C) Not economical for farmers

(D) Considered economical by the government

11. The word "alternative" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) option

(B) transition

(C) intention

(D) authorization

12. The word "them" in line 11 refers to

(A) crops

(B) farmers

(C) prices

(D) merchants

13. Which of the following products would a northwestern farmer in the early nineteenth century be most likely to purchase from the east?

(A) Grain

(B) Vegetables

(C) Textiles

(D) Fruit.

14. According to the passage, where was the Erie Canal located?

(A) Between Ohio and Indiana.

(B) Along the Appalachian Mountains

(C) Between Lake Erie and the Ohio River

(D) Across New York State.

15. The word "imposing" in line 22 could best be replaced by

(A) impractical

(B) successful

(C) demanding

(D) misleading

16. The word "penetrate" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) cut down

(B) go through

(C) fill up

(D) take over

17. The word "its" in line 27 refers to

(A) prosperity

(B) Erie

(C) System

(D) State

18. The word "extended" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) increased

(B) constructed

(C) deepened

(D) measured

19. According to the passage, Indiana and Ohio supported the development of the New York canal system by

(A) helping to build the Erie Canal.

(B) Building branches to connect it with the Ohio River

(C) Providing much of the water for the Erie Canal.

(D) Contributing financially to the construction costs

20. What does the paragraph following the passage probably discuss?

(A) Industry on Lake Erie

(B) Canals in Ohio and Indiana

(C) Sectional jealousies in Indiana and Ohio

(D) Travel on the Erie Canal.

Question 21-31

Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government train carrying oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a snowstorm and had to be abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to see what had become of (5) his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and healthy. How had they survived?

The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste to cross the "Great American Desert" to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern parts of the (10)United States, the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar bluejoint grass was often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless.

(15) Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves all winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or mesquite grass, (20) not only were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer and autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they remained naturally sweet and (25) nourishing through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after year for they trampled the natural seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of winter and the occasional rains of spring. The dry summer air cured them much as storing in a barn (30) cured the cultivated grasses.

21. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Western migration after the Civil War

(B) The climate of the western United States

(C) The raising of cattle.

(D) A type of wild vegetation

22. What can be inferred by the phrase "Legend has it" in line 1?

(A) The story of the train may not be completely factual.

(B) Most history books include the story of the train.

(C) The driver of the train invented the story.

(D) The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period.

23. The word "they" in line 6 refers to

(A) plains

(B) skeletons

(C) oxen

(D) Americans

24. What can be inferred about the "Great American Desert" mentioned in line 8?

(A) It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area.

(B) Many had settled there by the 1860's.

(C) It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War.

(D) It was not discovered until the late 1800's.

25. The word "barren" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) lonely

(B) dangerous

(C) uncomfortable

(D) infertile.

26. The word "preferred" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) ordinary

(B) available

(C) required

(D) favored

27. Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second paragraph?

(A) Cattle raised in the western United States refused to eat it.

(B) It would probably not grow in the western United States.

(C) It had to be imported into the United States.

(D) It was difficult for cattle to digest.

28. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the Western grasses?

(A) Grama grass

(B) Bluejoint grass

(C) Buffalo grass

(D) Mesquite grass

29. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses?

(A) They have tough stems.

(B) They are not affected by dry weather.

(C) They can be grown indoors.

(D) They contain little moisture.

30. The word "hard" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) firm

(B) severe

(C) difficult

(D) bitter

31. According to the passage, the cattle helped promote the growth of the wild grasses by

(A) stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground

(B) naturally fertilizing the soil

(C) continually moving from one grazing area to another

(D) eating only small quantities of grass.

Question 32-44

Seventeenth-century houses in colonial North America were simple structures that were primarily functional carrying over traditional designs that went back to the Middle Ages. During the first half of the eighteenth century, however, houses began to show a new elegance. As wealth (5)increased, more and more colonists built fine houses.

Since architecture was not yet a specialized profession in the colonies, the design of buildings was left either to amateur designers or to carpenters who undertook to interpret architectural manuals imported from England. Inventories of colonial libraries show an astonishing number of these (10)handbooks for builders, and the houses erected during the eighteenth century show their influence. Nevertheless, most domestic architecture of the first three-quarters of the eighteenth century displays a wide divergence of taste and freedom of application of the rules laid down in these books.

(15) Increasing wealth and growing sophistication throughout the colonies resulted in houses of improved design, whether the material was wood, stone, or brick. New England still favored wood, though brick houses became common in Boston and other towns, where the danger of fire gave an impetus to the use of more durable material. A few houses in New (20)England were built of stone, but only in Pennsylvania and adjacent areas was stone widely used in dwellings. An increased use of brick in houses and outbuildings is noticeable in Virginia and Maryland, but wood remained that most popular material even in houses built by wealthy landowners. In the Carolinas, even in closely packed Charleston, wooden (25) houses were much more common than brick houses.

Eighteenth-century houses showed great interior improvements over their predecessors. Windows were made larger and shutters removed. Large, clear panes replaced the small leaded glass of the seventeenth century. Doorways were larger and more decorative. Fireplaces became (30) decorative features of rooms. Walls were made of plaster or wood, sometimes elaborately paneled. White paint began to take the place of blues, yellows, greens, and lead colors, which had been popular for walls in the earlier years. After about 1730, advertisements for wallpaper styles in scenic patterns began to appear in colonial newspapers.

32. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The improved design of eighteenth-century colonial houses.

(B) A comparison of eighteenth-century houses and modern houses.

(C) The decorations used in eighteenth-century houses.

(D) The role of carpenters in building eighteenth-century houses.

33. What was one of the main reasons for the change in architectural style in eighteenth-century North America?

(A) More architects arrived in the colonies.

(B) The colonists developed an interest in classical architecture.

(C) Bricks were more readily available.

(D) The colonists had more money to spend on housing.

34. According to the passage, who was responsible for designing houses in eighteenth-century North America?

(A) Professional architects

(B) Customers

(C) Interior decorators

(D) Carpenters.

35. The passage implies that the rules outlined in architectural manuals were

(A) generally ignored

(B) legally binding

(C) not strictly adhered to

(D) only followed by older builders

36. The word "divergence" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) description

(B) development

(C) difference

(D) display

37. The word "durable" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) attractive

(B) expensive

(C) refined

(D) long-lasting

38. Where was stone commonly used to build houses?

(A) Virginia

(B) Pennsylvania

(C) Boston

(D) Charleston

39. The word "dwellings" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) houses

(B) towns

(C) outbuildings

(D) rural areas

40. The word "predecessors" in line 27 refers to

(A) colonist who arrived in North America in the seventeenth century.

(B) houses constructed before the eighteenth century

(C) interior improvements

(D) wooden houses in Charleston

41. The author mentions elaborately paneled walls in line 30 as an example of

(A) how the interior design of colonial houses was improved.

(B) why walls were made of wood or plaster.

(C) How walls were made stronger in the eighteenth century.

(D) What kind of wood was used for walls after 1730.

42. The word "elaborately" in line 31 is closest in meaning to

(A) done in great detail

(B) put together carefully

(C) using many colors

(D) reinforced structurally

43. What does the author imply about the use of wallpaper before 1730?

(A) Wallpaper samples appeared in the architectural manuals.

(B) Wallpaper was the same color as the wall paints used

(C) Patterned wallpaper was not widely used.

(D) Wallpaper was not used in stone house.

44. Where in the passage does the author give a reason why brick was the preferred material for

houses in some urban areas?

(A) Lines 11-14

(B) Lines 17-19

(C) Lines 21-24

(D) Lines 27-29

Question 45-50

Bloodhounds are biologically adapted to trailing their prey. The process by which the nose recognizes an odor is not fully understood, but there are apparently specific receptor sites for specific odors. In one explanation, recognition occurs when a scent molecule fits into its (5)corresponding receptor site, like a key into a lock, causing a mechanical or chemical change in the cell. Bloodhounds apparently have denser concentrations of receptor sites tuned to human scents.

When a bloodhound trails a human being, what does it actually smell? The human body, which consists of about 60 trillion living cells, sheds (10) exposed skin at a rate of 50 million cells a day. So even a trail that has been dispersed by breezes may still seem rich to a bloodhound. The body also produces about 31 to 50 ounces of sweat a day.

Neither this fluid nor the shed skin cells have much odor by themselves, but the bacteria working on both substances is another matter. (15) One microbiologist estimates the resident bacteria population of a clean square centimeter of skin on the human shoulder at "multiples of a million." As they go about their daily business breaking down lipids, or fatty substances, on the skin, these bacteria release volatile substances that usually strike the bloodhound's nose as an entire constellation of (20)distinctive scents.

45. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Why people choose bloodhounds for household pets

(B) How a bloodhound's sense of smell works

(C) How humans compensate for an underdeveloped sense of smell

(D) The way in which bacteria work on skin cells and body sweat.

46. The author compares a scent molecule with a

(A) key

(B) lock

(C) cell

(D) bloodhound

47. In line 8, the word "it" refers to

(A) bloodhound

(B) human being

(C) smell

(D) body

48. According to the passage, how many cells of skin does the human body rid itself of every day?

(A) 60 trillion

(B) 50 million

(C) 1 million

(D) Between 31 and 50

49. In line 11, the word "rich" is used to mean that a trail is

(A) paved with precious materials

(B) a profitable business to get into

(C) a very costly undertaking

(D) filled with an abundance of clues.

50. Which of the following acts as a stimulus in the production of the human scent?

(A) Sweat

(B) Dead skin cells

(C) Bacteria

(D) Fatty substance.

1997年1月TOFEL语法

B

1. _____ a necessary dimension for measuring astronomical space and the distance of heavenly bodies form the Earth.

(A) Once in time

(B) Time is

(C) The time

(D) It is time

2. Jackie Joyner-Kersee, _____ the world record in the heptathlon in the 1988 Olympics, also won the long jump in the year.

(A) whose setting

(B) which she set

(C) whoever set

(D) who set

3. The fossilized remains of a type of camel_____ a dog have been found in the Bad Lands of South.

(A) no more large

(B) no larger than

(C) not larger

(D) which no larger

4. Gorillas are quiet animals, _____ they are capable of making about 20 different sounds.

(A) whether

(B) which

(C) even though

(D) as well as

5. Although the Earth's chemical composition had been studied for years, only toward the end of the nineteenth century _____ as a discipline in its own right.

(A) when geochemistry was recognized

(B) was recognized as geochemistry

(C) then recognized as geochemistry

(D) as geochemistry was recognized

6. Because the wood of the dogwood tree is very hard, _____ is used for objects, such as roller skate wheels, in which hardness is desired.

(A) and

(B) it

(C) what

(D) thus

7. In hot, dry regions, the Sun's heat causes the outer layer of rocks _____, a process called exfoliation.

(A) are expanded and peeled way

(B) to expand and peel away

(C) expands and peels away

(D) they expand and peel away

8. The lower _____ in a room, the more slowly our eyes focus.

(A) the level of lighting

(B) light level

(C) leveling of light

(D) lighting is level

9. _____ Sarah Orne Jewett, a nineteenth-century writer, read widely in her family's extensive library.

(A) That she received little education formally

(B) The little formal education that she received

(C) Little formal education that was received by

(D) Although she received little formal education

10. In the early twentieth century, the "Model T" automobile was mass-produced and sold at a price _____ could afford.

(A) the average person who

(B) that the average person who

(C) and the average person

(D) the average person

11. Not only _____ all the positive charge of an atom, it is also the site of the weight of every atom.

(A) does the nucleus hold

(B) the nucleus holding

(C) the nucleus does hold

(D) holds the nucleus

12. The wind-rippled sand at California's Kelso Dunes resembles _____.

(A) to be an ocean floor

(B) as an ocean floor

(C) an ocean floor

(D) being an ocean floor

13. Fossil records indicate _____ existing in the past have become extinct.

(A) that many species of organisms

(B) many species of organisms that

(C) many species of organisms are

(D) there are many organisms

14. Experiments related to the sense of smell are more easily _____ than those related to perception of color.

(A) setting them up

(B) to set up

(C) set up

(D) sets up those

15. The Pulitzer Prize has been _____ in American literature for more than seventy years.

(A) the award most prestigious that

(B) the most prestigious award

(C) a prestigious award that most

(D) most prestigious award

16. Those interested in covered bridges can find six of they between Keene and Winchester, New Hampshire.

17. The Sun's energy is generated deep in the solar core by the synthesis of helium from hydrogen through a sequences of thermonuclear fusion reactions.

18. Using carbon-dating techniques, archaeologists can determine the age of many ancient objects by measurement the amount of radioactive carbon they contain.

19. The evolutionary adaptation of a particular species of animal over time occurs in response to environmental conditions, including others animals.

20. Saturn is the second largest planet after Jupiter, with a diameter nearly ten times those of Earth.

21. Ogden Nash often extended sentences over several lines produce surprising and comical rhymes.

22. By the second month of life, most infant can turn their heads and move their eyes to follow the movements of people and large objects around them.

23. Early movies had appeal immediate and became a means to present contemporary attitudes, fashions, and events.

24. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr., clergyman and civil rights leader, won the 1964 Nobel Peace Prize for his work toward racially equality in the United States.

25. Leontyne Price ranks among the most celebration sopranos of her time.

26. Carrie Chapman Call was instrumental in passing the Nineteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution gives women the right to vote.

27. Discovery in 1789 and isolated from other element in 1841, uranium is valued as a source of atomic energy.

28. Ulysses S. Kay was among the United States composers visited the Soviet Union in 1958 to participate in a cultural exchange program.

29. Alaska is fame for tall mountains and beautiful scenery.

30. True ferns have undergone remarkably little change during its long geological history, which extends back to the Devonian period.

31. Diplomatic negotiations generally take place in embassies or in the foreign offices of the countries which in ambassadors are accredited.

32. The novelist Shirley Hazzard is noted for the insight, poetic style, and sensitive she demonstrates in her works.

33. Compare with the jagged estuaries of the Atlantic coast, the Pacific coast seems almost uniformly straight.

34. Because of its low cholesterol content, margarine is a widely used substitute from butter.

35. After the Boston Tea Party in 1773, coffeehouses in the North American colonies became centers for gossip, gamble, and political criticism.

36. Studies by B.F. Skinner indicate that reward positively reinforces behavior and makes that behavior likely more to recur.

37. Mathematical puzzles are common into history because they have been used a intelligence tests and amusements.

38. Most authorities consider both dreaming while sleep and daydreaming to be forms of fantasy.

39. Genetic engineering is helping researchers unravel the mysteries of previously incurable diseases so that they can get to its root causes and find cures.

40. The Montessori method of education stresses initiative and self-reliance to permitting pupils to pursue independently whatever interests them, but within disciplined limits.

Question 1-8

Both the number and the percentage of people in the United States involved in nonagricultural pursuits expanded rapidly during the half century following the Civil War, with some of the most dramatic increases occurring in the domains of transportation, manufacturing, and trade and (5) distribution. The development of the railroad and telegraph systems during the middle third of the nineteenth century led to significant improvements in the speed, volume, and regularity of shipments and communications, making possible a fundamental transformation in the production and distribution of goods.

(10) In agriculture, the transformation was marked by the emergence of the grain elevators, the cotton presses, the warehouses, and the commodity exchanges that seemed to so many of the nation's farmers the visible sign of a vast conspiracy against them. In manufacturing, the transformation was marked by the emergence of a "new factory system" in which plants (15) became larger, more complex, and more systematically organized and managed. And in distribution, the transformation was marked by the emergence of the jobber, the wholesaler, and the mass retailer. These changes radically altered the nature of work during the half century between 1870 and 1920.

(20) To be sure, there were still small workshops, where skilled craftspeople manufactured products ranging from newspapers to cabinets to plumbing fixtures. There were the sweatshops in city tenements, where groups of men and women in household settings manufactured clothing or cigars on a piecework basis. And there were factories in occupations such (25) as metalwork where individual contractors presided over what were essentially handicraft proprietorships that coexisted within a single buildings. But as the number of wage earners in manufacturing rose from 2.7 million in 1880 to 4.5 million in 1900 to 8.4 million in 1920, the number of huge plants like the Baldwin Locomotive Works in Philadelphia (30) burgeoned, as did the size of the average plant. (The Baldwin Works had 600 employees in 1855, 3,000 in 1875, and 8,000 in 1900.) By 1920, at least in the northeastern United States where most of the nation's manufacturing wage earners were concentrated, three-quarters of those worked in factories with more than 100 employees and 30 percent worked (35) in factories with more than 1,000 employees.

1. The word "domains" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) fields

(B) locations

(C) organizations

(D) occupations

2. What can be inferred from the passage about the agricultural sector of the economy after the Civil War?

(A) New technological developments had little effect on farmers.

(B) The percentage of the total population working in agriculture declined.

(C) Many farms destroyed in the war were rebuilt after the war.

(D) Farmers achieved new prosperity because of better rural transportation.

3. The word "fundamental" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) possible

(B) basic

(C) gradual

(D) unique

4. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as part of the "new factory system?"

(A)    A change in the organization of factories.

(B) A growth in the complexity of factories.

(C)      An increase in the size of factories.

(D) An increase in the cost of manufacturing industrial products.

5. Which of the following statements about manufacturing before 1870 can be inferred from the passage?

(A) Most manufacturing activity was highly organized.

(B) Most manufacturing occurred in relatively small plants.

(C)      The most commonly manufactured goods were cotton presses.

(D) Manufacturing and agriculture each made up about half of the nation's economy.

6. The word "skilled" in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) hardworking

(B) expert

(C) well-paid

(D) industrial

7. The word "presided over" in line 25 are closest in meaning to

(A) managed

(B) led to

(C) worked in

(D) produced

8. The author mentions the Baldwin Locomotive Works in lines 29-30 because it was

(A)    a well-known metal-works

(B)    the first plant of its kind in Philadelphia

(C)    typical of the large factories that were becoming more common

(D)    typical of factories that consisted of a single building

Question 9-19

Stars may be spheres, but not every celestial object is spherical. Objects in the universe show a variety of shapes: round planets (some with rings), tailed comets, wispy cosmic gas and dust clouds, ringed nebulae, pinwheel-shaped spiral galaxies, and so on. But none of the shapes on this (5) list describes the largest single entities in the universe. These are the double radio sources, galaxies with huge clouds of radio emission that dwarf the visible galaxies, sometimes by a factor of a hundred or more. Stretching over distances greater than a million light-years, these radio-emitting regions resemble twin turbulent gas clouds, typically forming (10)dumbbell-like shapes with the visible galaxy (when it is visible) in the center.

These double radio sources present astronomers with a puzzle. Their radio emission arises from the synchrotron process, in which electrons accelerated to nearly the speed of light move through magnetic fields. (15)However, in view of the rate at which the radio sources emit energy, they should disappear in a few million years as their electrons slow down and cease producing radiation. Somehow new electrons must be continually accelerated to nearly the speed of light, otherwise, by now almost none of the double radio sources would be observed.

(20) With the advent of high-resolution radio interferometers during the late 1970's, part of the answer became clear: the electrons are produced in jets that are shot out in opposite directions from the center of galaxy. Remarkably narrow and highly directional, the jets move outward at speeds close to the speed of light. When the jets strike the highly rarefied (25) gas that permcales intergalactic space, the fast-moving electrons lose their highly directional motion and form vast clouds of radio-emitting gas.

Cosmic jets have ranked among the hottest topics of astronomical research in recent years as astronomers strive to understand where they come from. Why should a galaxy eject matter at such tremendous speeds in two narrow jets? And why are such jets not seen in the Milky Way?

9. The word "celestial" in line 1 could best be replaced by

(A)    visible

(B)    astronomical

(C)    glowing

(D)    scientific

10. The word "entities" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A)    factors

(B)    processes

(C)    objects

(D)    puzzles

11. In the first paragraph, the author describes objects in the universe in terms of their

(A)    color

(B)    origin

(C)    location

(D)    shape

12. Which of the following is the best representation of the clouds of radio emission described in the first paragraph?

(A)  (B)  (C)  (D)

13. According to the passage, scientists do not fully understand why double radio sources

(A) have not eventually disappeared

(B) cannot be observed with a telescope

(C) are beginning to slow down

(D) are not as big as some planets and stars

14. The word "their" in line 24 refers to

(A)    speeds

(B)    directions

(C)    electrons

(D)    clouds

15. According to the passage, what happens when electrons and gas collide in space?

(A)      The gas becomes more condensed

(B)    The gas becomes less radiated

(C)    The electrons disperse

(D)    The electrons become negatively charged

16. The author suggests that astronomers consider the study of cosmic jets to be

(A)    an obsolete scientific field

(B)    an unprofitable venture

(C)    an intriguing challenge

(D)    a subjective debate

17. In what lines does the passage compare the size of double radio sources with that of other galaxies?

(A)    Lines 4-7

(B)    Lines 13-15

(C)    Lines 21-22

(D)    Lines 26-27

18. Where in the passage does the author mention a technology that aided in the understanding of double radio sources?

(A)    Line 2

(B)    Line 8

(C)    Line 19

(D)    Line 23

19. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses

(A)    specific double radio sources

(B)    an explanation of the synchrotron process

(C)    possible reasons for the presence of cosmic jets

(D)    the discovery of the first double radio sources.

Questions 20-28

The sculptural legacy that the new United States inherited from its colonial predecessors was far from a rich one, and in fact, in 1776 sculpture as an art form was still in the hands of artisans and craftspeople. Stone carvers engraved their motifs of skulls and crossbones and other (5)religious icons of death into the gray slabs that we still see standing today in old burial grounds. Some skilled craftspeople made intricately carved wooden ornamentations for furniture or architectural decorations, while others caved wooden shop signs and ships' figureheads. Although they often achieved expression and formal excellence in their generally (10) primitive style, they remained artisans skilled in the craft of carving and constituted a group distinct from what we normally think of as "sculptors" in today's use of the word.

On the rare occasion when a fine piece of sculpture was desired, Americans turned to foreign sculptors, as in the 1770's when the cities of (15) New York and Charleston, South Carolina, commissioned the Englishman Joseph Wilton to make marble statues of William Pitt. Wilton also made a lead equestrian image of King George III that was created in New York in 1770 and torn down by zealous patriots six years later. A few marble memorials with carved busts, urns, or other decorations were (20)produced in England and brought to the colonies to be set in the walls of churches-as in King's Chapel in Boston. But sculpture as a high art, practiced by artists who knew both the artistic theory of their Renaissance-Baroque-Rococo predecessors and the various technical procedures of modeling, casting, and carving rich three-dimensional forms, was not (25)known among Americans in 1776. Indeed, for many years thereafter, the United States had two groups from which to choose - either the local craftspeople or the imported talent of European sculptors.

The eighteenth century was not one in which powered sculptural conceptions were developed. Add to this the timidity with which (30)unschooled artisans - originally trained as stonemasons, carpenters, or cabinetmakers - attacked the medium from which they sculpture made in the United States in the late eighteenth century.

20. What is the main idea of the passage?

(A) There was great demand for the work of eighteenth-century artisans.

(B) Skilled sculptors did not exist in the United States in the 1770's.

(C) Many foreign sculptors worked in the United States after 1776.

(D) American sculptors were hampered by a lack of tools and materials.

21. The word "motifs" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) tools

(B) prints

(C) signatures

(D) designs

22. The work of which of the following could be seen in burial grounds?

(A) European sculptors

(B) Carpenters

(C) Stone carves

(D) Cabinetmakers

23. The word "other" in line 7 refers to

(A) craftspeople

(B) decorations

(C) ornamentations

(D) shop signs

24. The word "distinct" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) separate

(B) assembled

(C) notable

(D) inferior

25. The word "rare" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) festive

(B) infrequent

(C) delightful

(D) unexpected

26. Why does the author mention Joseph Wilton in line 14?

(A) He was an English sculptor who did work in the United States.

(B) He was well known for his wood carvings

(C) He produced sculpture for churches.

(D) He settled in the United States in 1776.

27. What can be inferred about the importation of marble memorials from England?

(A) Such sculpture was less expensive to produce locally than to import

(B) Such sculpture was not available in the United States.

(C) Such sculpture was as prestigious as those made locally.

(D) The materials found abroad were superior.

28. How did the work of American carvers in 1776 differ from that of contemporary sculptors?

(A) It was less time-consuming

(B) It was more dangerous.

(C) It was more expensive.

(D) It was less refined.

Question 29-39

Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining (5) a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body then (10) cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day.

(15)  Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish (20) this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to rehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body (25) fluids causes death from water intoxication. The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people (30) that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.

29. What is the main topic of the passage?

(A)      Weather variations in the desert

(B)    Adaptations of desert animals

(C)    Diseased of desert animals

(D)    Human use of desert animals.

30. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?

(A) It helps them hide from predators.

(B) It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors.

(C) It helps them see their young at night

(D) It keeps them cool at night.

31. The word "maintaining" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) measuring

(B) inheriting

(C) preserving

(D) delaying

32. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of

(A) an animal with a low average temperature

(B) an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel

(C) a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures

(D) a desert animal with a constant body temperature

33. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?

(A) Just before sunrise

(B) In the middle of the day

(C) Just after sunset

(D) Just after drinking

34. The word "tolerate" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) endure

(B) replace

(C) compensate

(D) reduce

35. What causes water intoxication?

(A) Drinking too much water very quickly

(B) Drinking polluted water

(C) Bacteria in water

(D) Lack of water.

36. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals?

(A) They do not need to eat much food.

(B) They can eat large quantities quickly

(C) They easily lose their appetites.

(D) They can travel long distances looking for food.

37. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?

(A) To show how they use camels.

(B)      To contrast them to desert mammals.

(C) To give instructions about desert survival.

(D) To show how they have adapted to desert life.

38. The word "obtain" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) digest

(B) carry

(C) save

(D) get

39. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?

(A) Variation in body temperatures

(B) Eating while dehydrated

(C) Drinking water quickly

(D) Being active at night.

Questions 40-50

Rent control is the system whereby the local government tells building owners how much they can charge their tenants in rent. In the United States, rent controls date back to at least World War II.

(4)     In 1943 the federal government imposed rent controls to help solve the problem of housing shortages during wartime. The federal program ended after the war, but in some locations, including New York City, controls continued. Under New York's controls, a landlord generally cannot raise rents on apartments as long as the tenants continue to renew their leases. In places such as Santa Monica, California, rent controls are more recent. They were spurred by the inflation of the 1970's, which, combined with California's rapid population growth, pushed housing prices, as well as rents, to record levels. In 1979 Santa Monica's municipal government ordered landlords to roll back their rents to the levels charged in 1978. Future rents could only go up by two-thirds as much as any increase in the overall price level.

(16)  In any housing market, rental prices perform three functions: (1) promoting the efficient maintenance of existing housing and stimulating the construction of new housing, (2) allocating existing scarce housing among competing claimants, and (3) rationing use of existing housing by potential renters.

(21)  One result of rent control is a decrease in the construction of new rental units. Rent controls have artificially depressed the most important long-term determinant of profitability - rents. Consider some examples. In a recent year in Dallas, Texas, with a 16 percent rental vacancy rate but no rent control laws, 11,000 new housing units were built. In the same year, in San Francisco, California, only 2,000 units were built. The major difference? San Francisco has only a 1.6 percent vacancy rate but stringent rent control laws. In New York City, except for government-subsidized construction, the only rental units being built are luxury units, which are exempt from controls. In Santa Monica, California, new apartments are not being constructed. New office rental space and commercial developments are, however. They are exempt from rent controls.

40. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A)    The construction of apartments in the United States.

(B)      Causes and effects of rent control

(C)      The fluctuations of rental prices

(D)    The shortage of affordable housing in the United States.

41. The word "They" in line 10 refers to

(A) the tenants

(B) their leases

(C) places

(D) rent controls.

42. Which of the following was NOT a reason for the introduction of rent controls in Santa Monica, California?

(A) Rapid population growth

(B) Inflation

(C) Economic conditions during wartime

(D) Record-high housing prices

43. The phrase "roll back" in lines 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) credit

(B) measure

(C) vary

(D) reduce

44. The word "stimulating" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) experimenting with

(B) identifying

(C) estimating

(D) encouraging

45. It can be inferred that the purpose of rent control is to

(A) protect tenants

(B) promote construction

(C) increase vacancy rates

(D) decrease sales of rental units

46. The word "depressed" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) saddened

(B) created

(C) lowered

(D) defeated

47. The information in the last paragraph supports which of the following statements?

(A) San Francisco has eliminated its rent control laws.

(B) Rent control leads to a reduction in the construction of housing units

(C) Luxury apartments are rarely built when there is rent control

(D) There is a growing need for government-subsidized housing.

48. According to the passage, which of the following cities does NOT currently have rent controls?

(A) Santa Monica

(B) Dallas

(C) San Francisco

(D) New York City

49. The word "stringent" in line 27 is closest in meaning to

(A) straightforward

(B) strict

(C) expanded

(D) efficient

50. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT exempt from rent control?

(A) Luxury apartments

(B) Commercial development

(C) Moderately priced apartments

(D) Office space.

1997年5月TOFEL 语法

B

1. The ponderosa pine is _____ of most of the timber used by forest product firms in the Black Hills of South Dakota.

(A) the source

(B) as source

(C) the source which

(D) because the source

2. Computers that once took up entire rooms are now _____ to put on desktops and into wristwatches.

(A) small enough

(B) smaller than

(C) so small

(D) as small as

3. According to some educator, the goal of teaching is to help students learn what _____ to know to live a well-adjusted and successful life.

(A) do they need

(B) they need

(C) they are needed

(D) as they may need.

4. The sapphire's transparency to ultraviolet and infrared radiation makes _____ in optical instruments.

(A) it is of use

(B) it uses

(C) it a useful

(D) it useful

5. _____ initial recognition while still quite young.

(A) Most famous scientists achieved.

(B) That most famous scientists achieved

(C) Most famous scientists who achieved

(D) For most famous scientists to achieve.

6. Mango trees, __ densely covered with glossy leaves and bear small fragrant flowers, grow rapidly and can attain heights of up to 90 feet.

(A) whose

(B) which are

(C) are when

(D) which

7. _____, the Canadian composer Barbara Pentland wrote four symphonies, three concertos, and an opera, among other works.

(A) An artist who, prolific

(B) Is a prolific artist

(C) Prolific an artist

(D) A prolific artist.

8. The Chisos Mountains in Big Bend National Park in Texas were created by volcanic eruptions that occurred _____.

(A) the area in which dinosaurs roamed

(B) when dinosaurs roamed the area

(C) did dinosaurs roam the area

(D) dinosaurs roaming the area.

9. In bas-relief sculpture, a design projects very slightly from its background, _____ some coins.

(A) as on

(B) because

(C) the way that

(D) similarly.

10. Alaska found the first years of its statehood costly because it had to take over the expense of services _ previously by the federal government.

(A) To provide

(B) Be provided

(C) providing

(D) provided.

11. With age, the mineral content of human bones decreases, _____ them more fragile.

(A) make

(B) and to make

(C) thereby making

(D) which it makes.

12. Not until Kentucky's Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972 _____.

(A) when was its full extent realized

(B) that its full extent realized

(C) was its full extent realized

(D) the realization of its full extent.

13. The first explorer _____ California by land was Jedediah Strong Smith, a trapper who crossed the southwestern deserts of the United States in 1826.

(A) that he reached

(B) reached

(C) to reach

(D) reaching it

14. Written to be performed on a _____, Thornton Wilder's play Our Town depicts life in a small New England community.

(A) stage scenery of bare

(B) bare of stage scenery

(C) scenery bare of stage

(D) stage bare of scenery.

15. _____ many copper mines in the state of Arizona, a fact which contributes significantly to the state's economy.

(A) They are

(B) There are

(C) Of the

(D) The

16. A food additive is any chemical that food manufactures intentional add to their products.

17. Margaret Mead studied many different cultures, and she was one of the first anthropologists to photograph hers subjects.

18. Talc, a soft mineral with a variety of uses, sold is in slabs or in powdered from.

19. During the 1870's iron workers in Alabama proved they could produce iron by burning iron ore with coke, instead than with charcoal.

20. Geologists at the Hawaiian Volcano Observatory rely on a number of instruments to studying the volcanoes in Hawaii.

21. Underlying aerodynamics and all other branches of theoretical mechanics are the laws of motion who were developed in the seventeenth century.

22. Was opened in 1918, the Phillips Collection in Washington, D.C., was the first museum in the United States devoted to modern art.

23. A mortgage enables a person to buy property without paying for it outright; thus more people are able to enjoy to own a house.

24. Alike ethnographers, ethno historians make systematic observations, but they also gather data from documentary and oral sources.

25. Basal body temperature refers to the most lowest temperature of a healthy individual during waking hours.

26. Research in the United States on acupuncture has focused on it use in pain relief and anesthesia.

27. The Moon's gravitational field cannot keep atmospheric gases from escape into space.

28. Although the pecan tree is chiefly value for its fruit, its wood is used extensively for flooring, furniture, boxed, and crates.

29. Born in Texas in 1890, Katherine Anne Porter produced three collection of short stories before publishing her well-known novel Ship of Fools in 1962.

30.    Insulation from cold, protect against dust and sand, and camouflage are among the functions of hair for animals.

31.    The notion that students are not sufficiently involved in their education is one reason for the recently surge of support for undergraduate research.

32. As secretary of transportation from 1975 to 1977, William Coleman worked to help the bankrupt railroads in the northeastern United States solved their financial problems.

33.    Faults in the Earth's crust are most evidently in sedimentary formations, where they interrupt previously continuous layers.

34. Many flowering plants benefit of pollination by adult butterflies and moths.

35. A number of the American Indian languages spoken at the time of the European arrival in the New World in the late fifteen century have become extinct.

36. George Gershwin was an American composer whose concert works joined the sounds of jazz with them of traditional orchestration.

37. One of the problems of United States agriculture that has persisted during the 1920's until the present day is the tendency of farm income to lag behind the costs of production.

38. Volcanism occurs on Earth in several geological setting, most of which are associated with the boundaries of the enormous, rigid plates that make up the lithosphere.

39. Early European settlers in North America used medicines they made from plants native to treat colds, pneumonia, and ague, an illness similar to malaria.

40. Some insects bear a remarkable resemblance to dead twigs, being long, slenderness, wingless, and brownish in color.

Question 1-8

With Robert Laurent and William Zorach, direct carving enters into the story of modern sculpture in the United States. Direct carving - in which the sculptors themselves carve stone or wood with mallet and chisel - must be recognized as something more than just a technique. Implicit in it is an aesthetic principle as well: that the medium has certain qualities of beauty and expressiveness with which sculptors must bring their own aesthetic sensibilities into harmony. For example, sometimes the shape or veining in a piece of stone or wood suggests, perhaps even dictates, not only the ultimate form, but even the subject matter.

(10)  The technique of direct carving was a break with the nineteenth-century tradition in which the making of a clay model was considered the creative act and the work was then turned over to studio assistants to be cast in plaster or bronze or carved in marble. Neoclassical sculptors seldom held a mallet or chisel in their own hands, readily conceding that the assistants they employed were far better than they were at carving the finished marble.

(17)  With the turn-of-the-century Crafts movement and the discovery of nontraditional sources of inspiration, such as wooden African figures and masks, there arose a new urge for hands-on, personal execution of art and an interaction with the medium. Even as early as the 1880's and 1890's, nonconformist European artists were attempting direct carving. By the second decade of the twentieth century, Americans - Laurent and Zorach most notably - had adopted it as their primary means of working.

(24)  Born in France, Robert Laurent(1890-1970) was a prodigy who received his education in the United States. In 1905 he was sent to Paris as an apprentice to an art dealer, and in the years that followed he witnessed the birth of Cubism, discovered primitive art, and learned the techniques of woodcarving from a frame maker.

(29)  Back in New York City by 1910, Laurent began carving pieces such as The Priestess, which reveals his fascination with African, pre-Columbian, and South Pacific art. Taking a walnut plank, the sculptor carved the expressive, stylized design. It is one of the earliest examples of direct carving in American sculpture. The plank's form dictated the rigidly frontal view and the low relief. Even its irregular shape must have appealed to Laurent as a break with a long-standing tradition that required a sculptor to work within a perfect rectangle or square.

1. The word "medium" in line 5 could be used to refer to

(A) stone or wood

(B) mallet and chisel

(C) technique

(D) principle

2. What is one of the fundamental principles of direct carving?

(A) A sculptor must work with talented assistants.

(B)      The subject of a sculpture should be derived from classical stories.

(C) The material is an important element in a sculpture.

(D) Designing a sculpture is a more creative activity than carving it.

3. The word "dictates" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) reads aloud

(B) determines

(C) includes

(D) records

4. How does direct carving differ from the nineteenth-century tradition of sculpture?

(A)    Sculptors are personally involved in the carving of a piece.

(B)    Sculptors find their inspiration in neoclassical sources.

(C)    Sculptors have replaced the mallet and chisel with other tools.

(D)    Sculptors receive more formal training.

5. The word "witnessed" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) influenced

(B) studied

(C) validated

(D) observed

6. Where did Robert Laurent learn to carve?

(A) New York

(B) Africa

(C) The South Pacific

(D) Paris.

7. The phrase "a break with" in line 35 is closest in meaning to

(A) a destruction of

(B) a departure from

(C) a collapse of

(D) a solution to

8. The piece titled The Priestess has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

(A) The design is stylized.

(B) It is made of marble.

(C) The carving is not deep.

(D) It depicts the front of a person.

Question 9-19

Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for roosting communally are not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is important for birds to keep warm at night and conserve precious food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered roost. Solitary roosters shelter in dense vegetation or enter a cavity - horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan burrow into snow banks - but the effect of sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling together in the roosts, as wrens, swifts, brown creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the surface area exposed to the cold air, so the birds keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were found to reduce their heat losses by a quarter and three together saved a third of their heat.

(13)  The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as "information centers." During the day, parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they return in the evening some will have fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some investigators have observed that when the birds set out again next morning, those birds that did not feed well on the previous day appear to follow those that did. The behavior of common and lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors of similar birds with different roosting habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small, familiar hunting ground, whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area. The common kestrel roosts and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one bird can learn from others where to find insect swarms.

(26)  Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds awake at any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially counteracted by the fact that mass roosts attract predators and are especially vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees can be attacked by birds of prey. The birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it easier to catch small birds perching at the margins of the roost.

9. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) How birds find and store food.

(B) How birds maintain body heat in the winter.

(C) Why birds need to establish territory.

(D) Why some species of birds nest together.

10. The word "conserve" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) retain

(B) watch

(C) locate

(D) share

11. Ptarmigan keep warm in the winter by

(A) Huddling together on the ground with other birds.

(B) Building nests in trees.

(C) Burrowing into dense patches of vegetation

(D) Digging tunnels into the snow.

12. The word "magnified" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) caused

(B) modified

(C) intensified

(D) combined

13. The author mentions kinglets in line 10 as an example of birds that

(A) protect themselves by nesting in holes.

(B) Nest with other species of birds

(C) Nest together for warmth

(D) Usually feed and nest in pairs.

14. The word "forage" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) fly

(B) assemble

(C) feed

(D) rest

15. Which of the following statements about lesser and common kestrels is true?

(A) The lesser kestrel and the common kestrel have similar diets.

(B) The lesser kestrel feeds sociably but the common kestrel does not.

(C)      The common kestrel nests in larger flocks than does the lesser kestrel.

(D)      The common kestrel nests in trees, the lesser kestrel nests on the ground.

16. The word "counteracted" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) suggested

(B) negated

(C) measured

(D) shielded

17. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds that huddle together while sleeping?

(A) Some members of the flock warm others of impending dangers.

(B) Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.

(C) Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for food.

(D) Several members of the flock care for the young.

18. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the passage?

(A) Diseases easily spread among the birds.

(B) Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds.

(C)      Food supplies are quickly depleted

(D) Some birds in the group will attack the others.

19. The word "they" in line 29 refers to

(A) a few birds

(B) mass roosts

(C) predators

(D) trees.

Question 20-30

Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810 a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850's an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860's, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.

(13)  Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890's, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented I the 1870's, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920's and 1930's.

(27)  Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.

20. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Causes of food spoilage.

(B) Commercial production of ice

(C) Inventions that led to changes in the American diet.

(D) Population movements in the nineteenth century.

21. The phrase "in season" in line 2 refers to

(A) a kind of weather

(B) a particular time of year

(C) an official schedule

(D) a method of flavoring food.

22. The word "prevent" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) estimate

(B) avoid

(C) correct

(D) confine

23. During the 1860's, canned food products were

(A) unavailable in rural areas

(B) shipped in refrigerator cars

(C) available in limited quantities.

(D) A staple part of the American diet.

24. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use

(A) before 1860

(B) before 1890

(C) after 1900

(D) after 1920

25. The word "them" in line 17 refers to

(A) refrigerator cars

(B) perishables

(C) growers

(D) distances

26. The word "fixture" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) luxury item

(B) substance

(C) commonplace object

(D) mechanical device

27. The author implies that in the 1920's and 1930's home deliveries of ice

(A) decreased in number

(B) were on an irregular schedule

(C) increased in cost

(D) occurred only in the summer.

28. The word "Nevertheless" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) therefore

(B) because

(C) occasionally

(D) however

29. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?

(A) Drying

(B) Canning

(C) Cold storage

(D) Chemical additives.

30.Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

(A)      Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.

(B) Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners

(C) Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.

(D) People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.

Question 31-38

The ability of falling cats to right themselves in midair and land on their feet has been a source of wonder for ages. Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for physicists it bordered on the miraculous. Newton's laws of motion assume that the total amount of spin of a body cannot change unless an external torque speeds it up or slows it down. If a cat has no spin when it is released and experiences no external torque, it ought not to be able to twist around as it falls.

(9)     In the speed of its execution, the righting of a tumbling cat resembles a magician's trick. The gyrations of the cat in midair are too fast for the human eye to follow, so the process is obscured. Either the eye must be speeded up, or the cat's fall slowed down for the phenomenon to be observed. A century ago the former was accomplished by means of high-speed photography using equipment now available in any pharmacy. But in the nineteenth century the capture on film of a falling cat constituted a scientific experiment.

(17)  The experiment was described in a paper presented to the Paris Academy in 1894. Two sequences of twenty photographs each, one from the side and one from behind, show a white cat in the act of righting itself. Grainy and quaint though they are, the photos show that the cat was dropped upside down, with no initial spin, and still landed on its feet. Careful analysis of the photos reveals the secret: As the cat rotates as the front of body clockwise, the rear and tail twist counterclockwise, so that the total spin remains zero, in perfect accord with Newton's laws. Halfway down, the cat pulls in its legs before reversing its twist and then extends them again, with the desired end result. The explanation was that while no body can acquire spin without torque, a flexible one can readily change its orientation, or phase. Cats know this instinctively, but scientists could not be sure how it happened until they increased the speed of their perceptions a thousand fold.

31. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The explanation of an interesting phenomenon

(B) Miracles in modern science

(C)      Procedures in scientific investigation

(D) The differences between biology and physics.

32. The word "process" in line 11 refers to

(A) the righting of a tumbling cat

(B) the cat's fall slowed down

(C) high-speed photography

(D) a scientific experiment

33. Why are the photographs mentioned in line 17 referred to as an "experiment"?

(A)      The photographs were not very clear.

(B) The purpose of the photographs was to explain the process.

(C) The photographer used inferior equipment

(D) The photographer thought the cat might be injured.

34. Which of the following can be inferred about high-speed photography in the late 1800's?

(A)  It was a relatively new technology.

(B) The necessary equipment was easy to obtain.

(C) The resulting photographs are difficult to interpret.

(D) It was not fast enough to provide new information.

35. The word "rotates" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) drops

(B) turns

(C) controls

(D) touches

36. According to the passage, a cat is able to right itself in midair because it is

(A) frightened

(B) small

(C) intelligent

(D) flexible

37. The word "readily" in line 27 is closest in meaning to

(A) only

(B) easily

(C) slowly

(D) certainly

38. How did scientists increase "the speed of their perceptions a thousand fold" (lines 29-30)?

(A) By analyzing photographs

(B) By observing a white cat in a dark room

(C) By dropping a cat from a greater height.

(D) By studying Newton's laws of motion.

Question 39-50

The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting definitions used by the United States Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census officially distinguished the nation's "urban" from its "rural" population for the first time. "Urban population" was defined as persons living in towns of 8,000 inhabitants or more. But after 1900 it meant persons living in incorporated places having 2,500 or more inhabitants.

(8)     Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of "urban" to take account of the new vagueness of city boundaries. In addition to persons living in incorporated units of 2,500 or more, the census now included those who lived in unincorporated units of that size, and also all persons living in the densely settled urban fringe, including both incorporated and unincorporated areas located around cities of 50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit, conceived as an integrated economic and social unit with a large population nucleus, was named a Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area (SMSA).

(17) Each SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or more or (b) two cities having shared boundaries and constituting, for general economic and social purposes, a single community with a combined population of at least 50,000,  the smaller of which must have a population of at least 15,000. Such an area included the county in which the central city is located, and adjacent counties that are found to be metropolitan in character and economically and socially integrated with the country of the central city. By 1970, about two-thirds of the population of the United States was living in these urbanized areas, and of that figure more than half were living outside the central cities.

(27)  While the Census Bureau and the United States government used the term SMSA (by 1969 there were 233 of them), social scientists were also using new terms to describe the elusive, vaguely defined areas reaching out from what used to be simple "town" and "cities". A host of terms came into use: "metropolitan regions", "polynucleated population groups", "conurbations", "metropolitan clusters", "megalopolises", and so on.

39. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A)    How cities in the United States began and developed

(B)      Solutions to overcrowding in cities

(C)    The changing definition of an urban area

(D)    How the United States Census Bureau conducts a census

40.  According to the passage, the population of the United States was first classified as rural or urban in

(A) 1870

(B) 1900

(C) 1950

(D) 1970

41. The word "distinguished" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) differentiated

(B) removed

(C) honored

(D) protected

42. Prior to 1900, how many inhabitants would a town have to have before being defines as urban?

(A) 2,500

(B) 8,000

(C) 15,000

(D) 50,000

43. According to the passage, why did the Census Bureau revise the definition of urban in 1950?

(A) City borders had become less distinct.

(B) Cities had undergone radical social change

(C) Elected officials could not agree on an acceptable definition.

(D) New businesses had relocated to larger cities.

44. The word "those" in line 11 refers to

(A) boundaries

(B) persons

(C) units

(D) areas

45. The word "constituting" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) located near

(B) determine by

(C) calling for

(D) marking up

46. The word "which" in line 21 refers to a smaller

(A) population

(B) city

(C) character

(D) figure

47. Which of the following is NOT true of an SMSA?

(A)    It has a population of at least 50,000

(B)      It can include a city's outlying regions

(C)      It can include unincorporated regions

(D) It consists of at least two cities.

48. By 1970, what proportion of the population in the United States did NOT live in an SMSA?

(A) 3/4

(B) 2/3

(C) 1/2

(D) 1/3

49. The Census Bureau first used the term "SMSA" in

(A) 1900

(B) 1950

(C) 1969

(D) 1970

50. Where in the passage does the author mention names used by social scientists for an urban area?

(A) Lines 4-5

(B) Lines 8-9

(C) Lines 24-26

(D) Lines 30-32.

1997年8月TOFEL 语法

B

1. Some snakes lay eggs, but others_____ birth to live offspring.

(A) give

(B) giving

(C) they give

(D) to have given

2. Because it was so closely related to communication, _ art form to develop.

(A) drawing was probably the earliest

(B) to draw early was probably

(C) early drawing probably

(D) the earliest draw.

3. Halley's Comet had its first documented sighting in 240 B.C. in China and _____ it has been seen from the Earth 29 times.

(A) after

(B) because of

(C) since then

(D) that is

4. _____ that managers commit in problem solving is jumping to a conclusion about the cause of a given problem.

(A) Major errors.

(B) Since the major error

(C) The major error

(D) Of the major errors.

5. Algonkian-speaking Native Americans greeted the Pilgrims _____ settled on the eastern shores of what is now New England.

(A) to whom

(B) of which

(C) who

(D) which

6. The best known books of Ross Macdonald,____writer of detective novels, feature the character Lew Archer, a private detective.

(A) is the

(B) is an

(C) they are by

(D) the

7. The first building to employ steel skeleton construction, _____.

(A) Chicago, Illinois, the home of the Home Insurance Company Building completed in 1885.

(B) The Home Insurance Company Building in Chicago, Illinois, was completed in 1885.

(C) Because the Home Insurance Company Building in Chicago, Illinois was completed in 1885.

(D) The Home Insurance Company Building in Chicago, Illinois, in 1885.

8. During the course of its growth, a frog undergoes a true metamorphosis__with fishlike larval stage.

(A)    begin

(B)    began

(C)    beginning

(D)    is begun.

9. Mahalia Jackson, _____ combined powerfully vitality with great dignity, was one of the best known gospel singers in the United-States.

(A) it was her singing

(B) which songs

(C) who sang

(D) whose singing

10. Precious metals, gems, and ivory have been used to make buttons, but most buttons are made of _____ wood, glass, or plastic.

(A) such materials that

(B) materials as such

(C) such materials as

(D) such materials.

11. Outside the bright primary rainbow, _____ much fainter secondary rainbow may be visible.

(A) so

(B) a

(C) since

(D) still

12. An critic, teacher, librarian, or poet who hopes to broaden poetry's audience faces the difficult challenge of persuading skeptical readers __

(A) that poetry is important today

(B) for poetry to be important today

(C) to be important poetry today

(D) poetry that is important today.

13. Following the guidelines for speaking and voting established by the book Robert's Rules of Order, _____ during meetings.

(A) and avoid large decision-making organizations' procedural confusion

(B)      large decision-making organizations avoid procedural confusion

(C) is procedural confusion avoided by large decision-making organizations

(D) are avoiding procedural confusion in large decision-making organizations.

14. Indigo is a vat color, _ called because it does not dissolve in water.

(A) which it

(B) it is

(C) but

(D) so

15. Associated with the Denishawn company from 1916 until 1923, Martha Grahaim developed a powerful, ____ that was integral to the foundations of modern dance.

(A) expressively stylish

(B) a style expressive

(C) stylishly expressive

(D) expressive style.

16. In the New England colonies, Chippendale designs were adapted to locally tastes, and beautiful furniture resulted.

17. According to most psychological studies, body language expresses a speaker's emotions and attitudes, and it also tends to affect the emotions and attitudes of the listen.

18. The dachshund is a hardy, alert dog with a well sense of smell.

19. Quasars, faint celestial objects resembling stars, are perhaps the most distant objects know.

20. The importance of environmental stimuli in the development of coordination between sensory input and motor response varies to species to species.

21. A smile can be observed, described, and reliably identify, it can also be elicited and manipulated under experimental conditions.

22. A musical genius, John Cage is noted for his highly unconventional ideas, and he respected for his unusual compositions and performances.

23. Chocolate is prepared by a complexity process of cleaning, blending and roasting cocoa beans, which must be ground and mixed with sugar.

24. Several million points on the human body registers either cold, heat, pain, or touch.

25. In the 1800's store owners sold everything from a needle to a plow, trust  everyone, and never took inventory.

26. Although they reflect a strong social conscience, Arthur Miller's stage works are typical more concerned with individuals than with systems.

27. While highly prized for symbolizing good luck, the four-leaf clover is rarity found in nature.

28. An involuntary reflex, an yawn is almost impossible to stop once the mouth muscles begin the stretching action.

29. Elected to serve in the United States House of representatives in 1968, Shirley Chisholm was known for advocacy the interests of the urban poor.

30. A mirage is an atmospheric optical illusion in what an observer sees a nonexistent body of water or an image of some object.

31. Turquoise, which found in microscopic crystals, is opaque with a waxy luster, varying in color from greenish gray to sky blue.

32. Homo erectus is the name commonly given into the primate species from which humans are believed to have evolved.

33. Today, modern textile mills can manufacture as much fabrics in a few seconds as it once took workers weeks to produce by hand.

34. The Hopi, the westernmost tribe of Pueblo Indians, have traditionally live large multilevel structures clustered in towns.

35. Exploration of the Solar System is continuing and at the present rate of progress all the planets will have been contacted within the near 50 years.

36. Since their appearance on farms in the United States between 1913 and 1920, trucks have changed patterns of production and market of farm products.

37. Antique collection became a significant pastime in the 1800's when old object began to be appreciated for their beauty as well as for their historical importance.

38. American painter Georgia O'Keeffe is well known as her large paintings of  flowers in which single blossoms are presented as if in close-up.

39. Despite television is the dominant entertainment medium for United States households, Garrison Keillor's Saturday night radio show of folk songs and stories is heard by millions of people.

40.    The work which the poet Emma Lazarus is best known is "The New Colossus", which is inscribed on the pedestal of the Statue of Liberty.

Question 1-9

In the 1600's when the Spanish moved into what later was to become the southwestern United States, they encountered the ancestors of the modern-day Pueblo, Hopi, and Zuni peoples. These ancestors, known variously as the Basket Makers, the Anasazi, or the Ancient Ones, had lived in the area for at least 2,000 years. They were an advanced agricultural people who used irrigation to help grow their crops.

(7)     The Anasazi lived in houses constructed of adobe and wood. Anasazi houses were originally built in pits and were entered from the roof. But around the year 700 A.D., the Anasazi began to build their homes above ground and join them together into rambling multistoried complexes, which the Spanish called pueblos or villages. Separate subterranean rooms in these pueblos _____ known as kivas or chapels _____ were set aside for religious ceremonials. Each kiva had a fire pit and a hole that was believed to lead to the underworld. The largest pueblos had five stories and more than 800 rooms.

(16)  The Anasazi family was matrilineal, that is, descent was traced through the female. The sacred objects of the family were under the control of the oldest female, but the ritual ceremonies were conducted by her brother or son. Women owned the rooms in the pueblo and the crops, once they were harvested. While still growing, crops belonged to the man who, in contrast to most other Native American groups, planted them. The women made baskets and pottery, the men wove textile and crafted turquoise jewelry.

(24)  Each village had two chiefs. The village chief dealt with land disputes and religious affairs. The war chief led the men in fighting during occasional conflicts that broke out with neighboring villages and directed the men in community building projects. The cohesive political and social organization of the Anasazi made it almost impossible for other groups to conquer them.

1. The Anasazi people were considered "agriculturally advanced" because of the way they

(A) stored their crops

(B) fertilized their fields.

(C) watered their crops.

(D) planted their fields.

2. The word "pits" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) stages

(B) scars

(C) seeds

(D) holes.

3. The word "stories" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) articles

(B) tales

(C) levels

(D) rumors

4. Who would have been most likely to control the sacred objects of an Anasazi family?

(A) A twenty-year-old man

(B) A twenty-year-old woman

(C) A forty-year-old man

(D) A forty-year-old woman

5. The word "they" in line 20 refers to

(A) women

(B) crops

(C) rooms

(D) pueblos

6. The word "disputes" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) discussions

(B) arguments

(C) developments

(D) purchases

7. Which of the following activities was NOT done by Anasazi men?

(A) Making baskets

(B) Planting crops

(C) Building homes

(D) Crafting jewelry.

8. According to the passage, what made it almost impossible for other groups to conquer the Anasazi?

(A) The political and social organization of the Anasazi

(B) The military tactics employed by the Anasazi

(C)      The Anasazi's agricultural technology.

(D) The natural barriers surrounding Anasazi willages.

9. The passage supports which of the following generalizations?

(A) The presence of the Spanish threatened Anasazi society.

(B) The Anasazi benefited from trading relations with the Spanish.

(C) Anasazi society exhibited a well-defined division of labor.

(D) Conflicts between neighboring Anasazi villages were easily resolved.

Question 10-19

Barbed wire, first patented in the United States in 1867, played an important part in the development of American farming, as it enabled the settlers to make effective fencing to enclose their land and keep cattle away from their crops. This had a considerable effect on cattle ranching, since the herds no longer had unrestricted use of the plans for grazing, and the fencing led to conflict between the farmers and the cattle ranchers.

(7)     Before barbed wire came into general use, fencing was often made from serrated wire, which was unsatisfactory because it broke easily when under strain, and could snap in cold weather due to contraction. The first practical machine for producing barbed wire was invented in 1874 by an Illinois farmer, and between then and the end of the century about 400 types of barbed wire were devised, of which only about a dozen were ever put to practical use.

(14)  Modern barbed wire is made from mild steel high-tensile steel, or aluminum. Mild steel and aluminum barbed wire have two strands twisted together to form a cable which is stronger than single-strand wire and less affected by temperature changes. Single-strand wire, round or oval, is made from high-tensile steel with the barbs crimped or welded on . The steel wires used are galvanized - coated with zinc to make them rustproof. The two wires that make up the line wire or cable are fed separately into a machine at one end. They leave it at the other end twisted-together and barbed. The wire to make the barbs is fed into the machine from the sides and cut to length by knives that cut diagonally through the wire to produce a sharp point. This process continues automatically, and the finished barbed wire is wound onto reels, usually made of wire in length of 400 meters or in weights of up to 50 kilograms.

(27)  A variation of barbed wire is also used for military purposes. It is formed into long cojis or entanglements called concertina wire.

10. What is the main topic of the passage?

(A) Cattle ranching in the United States.

(B) A type of fencing

(C) Industrial uses of wire

(D) A controversy over land use.

11. The word "unrestricted" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) unsatisfactory

(B) difficult

(C) considerable

(D) unlimited

12. The word "snap" in line 9 could best be replaced by which of the following?

(A) freeze

(B) click

(C) loosen

(D) break

13. What is the benefit of using two-stranded barbed wire?

(A) Improved rust-resistance

(B) Increased strength

(C) More rapid attachment of barbs

(D) Easier installation.

14. According to the author, the steel wires used to make barbed wire are specially processed to

(A) protect them against rust

(B) make them more flexible

(C) prevent contraction in cold weather

(D) straighten them.

15. The word "fed" in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) put

(B) eaten

(C) bitten

(D) nourished

16. The knives referred to in line 21 are used to

(A) separate double-stranded wire

(B) prevent the reel from advancing too rapidly

(C) twist the wire

(D) cut the wire that becomes barbs

17. What is the author's purpose in the third paragraph?

(A)      To explain the importance of the wire.

(B) To outline the difficulty of making the wire

(C)  To describe how the wire is made

(D) To suggest several different uses of the wire.

18. According to the passage, concertina wire is used for

(A) livestock management

(B) international communications

(C) prison enclosures

(D) military purposes.

19. Which of the following most closely resembles the fencing described in the passage?

(A)  （图）

(B)  （图）

(C)  （图）

(D)  （图）

Question 20-28

Under certain circumstance the human body must cope with gases at greater-than-normal atmospheric pressure. For example, gas pressures increase rapidly during a dive made with scuba gear because the breathing equipment allows divers to stay underwater longer and dive deeper. The pressure exerted on the human body increases by 1 atmosphere for every 10 meters of depth in seawater, so that at 30 meters in seawater a diver is exposed to a pressure of about 4 atmospheres. The pressure of the gases being breathed must equal the external pressure applied to the body; otherwise breathing is very difficult. Therefore all of the gases in the air breathed by a scuba diver at 40 meters are present at five times their usual pressure. Nitrogen which composes 80 percent of the air we breathe usually causes a balmy feeling of well-being at this pressure. At a depth of 5 atmospheres nitrogen causes symptoms resembling alcohol intoxication known as nitrogen narcosis. Nitrogen narcosis apparently results from a direct effect on the brain of the large amounts of nitrogen dissolved in the blood. Deep dives are less dangerous if helium is substituted for nitrogen, because under these pressures helium does not exert a similar narcotic effect.

(18) As a scuba diver descends, the pressure of nitrogen in the lungs increases. Nitrogen then diffuses from the lungs to the blood and from the blood to body tissues. The reverse occurs when the diver surfaces; the nitrogen pressure in the lungs falls and the nitrogen diffuses from the tissues into the blood and from the blood into the lungs. If the return to the surface is too rapid, nitrogen in the tissues and blood cannot diffuse out rapidly enough and nitrogen bubbles are formed. They can cause severe pains, particularly around the joints.

(26)  Another complication may result if the breath is held during ascent. During ascent from a depth of 10 meters, the volume of air in the lungs will double because the air pressure at the surface is only half of what it was at 10 meters. This change in volume may cause the lungs to distend and even rupture. This condition is called air embolism. To avoid this event, a diver must ascent slowly, never at a rate exceeding the rise of the exhaled air bubbles, and must exhale during ascent.

20. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The equipment divers use

(B) The effects of pressure on gases in the human body

(C) How to prepare for a deep dive

(D) The symptoms of nitrogen bubbles in the bloodstream.

21.    The word "exposed to" in line 7 are closest in meaning to

(A) leaving behind

(B) prepared for

(C) propelled by

(D) subjected to

22. The word "exert" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) cause

(B) permit

(C) need

(D) change

23. The word "diffuses" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) yields

(B) starts

(C) surfaces

(D) travels

24. What happens to nitrogen in body tissues if a diver ascends too quickly.

(A) It forms bubbles

(B) It goes directly to the brain

(C) It is reabsorbed by the lungs.

(D) It has a narcotic effect.

25. The word "They" in line 21 refers to

(A) joints

(B) pains

(C) bubbles

(D) tissues.

26. The word "rupture" in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) hurt

(B) shrink

(C) burst

(D) stop

27. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following presents the greatest danger to a diver?

(A) Pressurized helium

(B) Nitrogen diffusion

(C) Nitrogen bubbles

(D) An air embolism

28. What should a diver do when ascending?

(A) Rise slowly

(B) Breathe faster

(C) Relax completely

(D) Breathe helium.

Question 29-38

Each advance in microscopic technique has provided scientists with new perspectives on the function of living organisms and the nature of matter itself. The invention of the visible-light microscope late in the sixteenth century introduced a previously unknown realm of single-celled plants and animals. In the twentieth century, electron microscopes have provided direct views of viruses and minuscule surface structures. Now another type of microscope, one that utilize x-rays rather than light or electrons, offers a different way of examining tiny details, it should extend human perception still farther into the natural world.

(10)  The dream of building an x-ray microscope dates to 1895, its development, however, was virtually halted in the 1940's because the development of the electron microscope was progressing rapidly. During the 1940's electron microscopes routinely achieved resolution better than that possible with a visible-light microscope, while the performance of x-ray microscopes resisted improvement. In recent years, however, interest in x-ray microscopes has revived, largely because of advances such as the development of new sources of x-ray illumination. As a result, the brightness available today is millions of times that of x-ray tubes, which, for most of the century, were the only available sources of soft x-rays.

(20)  The new x-ray microscopes considerably improve on the resolution provided by optical microscopes. They can also be used to map the distribution of certain chemical elements. Some can form pictures in extremely short times, others hold the promise of special capabilities such as three dimensional imaging. Unlike conventional electron microscopy, x-ray microscopy enables specimens to be kept in air and in water, which means that biological samples can be studied under conditions similar to their natural state. The illumination used, so-called soft x-rays in the wavelength range of twenty to forty angstroms (an angstrom is one ten-billionth of a meter), is also sufficiently penetrating to image intact biological cells in many cases. Because of the wavelength of the x-rays used, soft x-ray microscopes will never match the highest resolution possible with electron microscopes. Rather, their special properties will make possible investigations that will complement those performed with light- and electron-based instruments.

29. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The detail seen through a microscope

(B) Sources of illumination for microscopes

(C) A new kind of microscope

(D) Outdated microscopic technique

30. According to the passage, the invention of the visible-light microscope allowed scientists to

(A) see viruses directly

(B) develop the electron microscope later on

(C) understand more about the distribution of the chemical elements

(D) discover single celled plants and animals they had never seen before.

31.    The word "minuscule" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) circular

(B) dangerous

(C) complex

(D) tiny

32. The word "it" in line 7 refers to

(A) a type of microscope

(B) human perception

(C) the natural world

(D) light

33. Why does the another mention me visible light microscope in the first paragraph?

(A) To begin a discussion of sixteenth century discoveries.

(B) To put the x-ray microscope in historical perspective

(C) To show how limited its uses are

(D) To explain how it functioned

34.    Why did it take so long to develop the x-ray microscope?

(A) Funds for research were insufficient.

(B) The source of illumination was not bright enough until recently.

(C) Materials used to manufacture x-ray tubes were difficult to obtain

(D) X-ray microscopes were too complicated to operate.

35. The word "enables" in line 32 is closest in meaning to

(A) constitutes

(B) specifies

(C) expands

(D) allows

36. The word "Rather" in line 32 is closest in meaning to

(A) significantly

(B) preferably

(C) somewhat

(D) instead

37. The word "those" in line 33 refers to

(A) properties

(B) investigations

(C) microscopes

(D) x-rays

38. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about x-ray microscopes in the future?

(A)    They will probably replace electron microscopes altogether.

(B)      They will eventually be much cheaper to produce than they are now.

(C)    They will provide information not available from other kinds of microscopes.

(D)      They will eventually change the illumination range that they now use.

Question 39-50

Perhaps the most striking quality of satiric literature is its freshness, its originality of perspective. Satire rarely offers original ideas. Instead it presents the familiar in a new form. Satirists do not offer the world new philosophies. What they do is look at familiar conditions from a (5)perspective that makes these conditions seem foolish, harmful or affected. Satire jars us out of complacence into a pleasantly shocked realization that many of the values we unquestioningly accept are false. Don Quixote makes chivalry seem absurd, Brave New World ridicules the pretensions of science, A Modest proposal dramatizes starvation by (10)advocating cannibalism. None of these ideas is original. Chivalry was suspect before Cervantes, humanists objected to the claims of pure science before Aldous Huxley and people were aware of famine before Swift. It was not the originality of the idea that made these satires popular. It was the manner of expression the satiric method that made them interesting and (15) entertaining. Satires are read because they are aesthetically satisfying works of art, not because they are morally wholesome or ethically instructive. They are stimulating and refreshing because with commonsense briskness they brush away illusions and secondhand opinions. With spontaneous irreverence, satire rearranges perspectives, scrambles familiar objects into incongruous juxtaposition and speaks in a personal idiom instead of abstract platitude.

(22)  Satire exists because there is need for it. It has lived because readers appreciate a refreshing stimulus, an irreverent reminder that they lived in a world of platitudinous thinking, cheap moralizing, and foolish philosophy. Satire serves to prod people into an awareness of truth though rarely to any action on behalf of truth. Satire tends to remind people that much of what they see, hear, and read in popular media is sanctimonious, sentimental, and only partially true. Life resembles in only a slight degree the popular image of it. Soldiers rarely hold the ideals that movies attribute to them, nor do ordinary citizens devote their lives to unselfish service of humanity. Intelligent people know these things but tend to forget them when they do not hear them expressed.

39.    What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Difficulties of writing satiric literature.

(B) Popular topics of satire

(C) New philosophies emerging from satiric literature

(D) Reasons for the popularity of satire.

40. The word "realization" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) certainly

(B) awareness

(C) surprise

(D) confusion

41. Why does the author mention Don Quirote, Brave New World and A Modest Proposal in lines 7-9?

(A) They are famous examples of satiric literature

(B) They present commonsense solutions to problems.

(C) They are appropriate for readers of all ages.

(D) They are books with similar stories.

42. The word "aesthetically" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) artistically

(B) exceptionally

(C) realistically

(D) dependably

43.    Which of the following can be found in satire literature?

(A) Newly emerging philosophies

(B) Odd combinations of objects and ideas

(C) Abstract discussion of moral and ethnics

(D) Wholesome characters who are unselfish.

44. According to the passage, there is a need for satire because people need to be

(A) informed about new scientific developments

(B) exposed to original philosophies when they are formulated

(C) reminded that popular ideas are often inaccurate

(D) told how they can be of service to their communities.

45. The word "refreshing" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) popular

(B) ridiculous

(C) meaningful

(D) unusual

46. The word "they" in line 27 refers to

(A) people

(B) media

(C) ideals

(D) movies

47. The word "devote" in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) distinguish

(B) feel affection

(C) prefer

(D) dedicate

48.      As a result of reading satiric literature, readers will be most likely to

(A) teach themselves to write fiction

(B) accept conventional points of view

(C) become better informed about current affairs

(D) reexamine their opinions and values

49. The various purposes of satire include all of the following EXCEPT

(A) introducing readers to unfamiliar situations

(B) brushing away illusions

(C) reminding readers of the truth

(D) exposing false values.

50.    Why does the author mention "service of humanity" in line 25?

(A)    People need to be reminded to take action

(B)    Readers appreciate knowing about it

(C)      It is an ideal that is rarely achieved.

(D)    Popular media often distort such stories.

1997年10月TOFEL语法

B

1. Portland, Maine, is __ the poet Henry Wadsworth Longfellow spent his early years.

(A) where

(B) it where

(C) where is

(D) which is where

2. As consumers' response to traditional advertising techniques declines, businesses are beginning --- new methods of reaching customers.

(A) the development that

(B) it developing

(C) develop

(D) to develop

3. The knee is _____ most other joints in the body because it cannot twist without injury.

(A) more likely to be damaged than

(B) likely to be more than damaged

(C) more than likely to be damaged

(D) to be damaged more than likely

4. The quince is an attractive shrub or small tree _____ closely related to the apple and pear trees.

(A) is

(B) that is

(C) that it is

(D) is that which

5. Many gases, including the nitrogen and oxygen in air, _____ color or odor.

(A) have no

(B) which have no

(C) not having

(D) they do not have

6. The American Academy of Poets, __ the 1930's, provides financial assistance to support working poets.

(A) when it was founded

(B) was founded

(C) which was founded in

(D) was founded in

7. During the Pleistocene glacial periods ___ portions of the Earth where plant and animal life flourished making it possible for people to subsist.

(A) the

(B) it was

(C) there were

(D) have there been

8. The photographs of Carrie Mae Weems, in which she often makes her family members _____, are an affectionate and incisive representation of the African American experience.

(A) are her subjects

(B) her subjects

(C) are subjects

(D) which her subjects.

9. Hubble's law states that the greater the distance between any two galaxies, _____ is their relative speed of separation.

(A) the greatest

(B) the greater

(C) greater than

(D) as great as

10. The onion is characterized by an edible bulb composed of leaves rich in sugar and a pungent oil, _____ the vegetable's strong taste.

(A) which the source of

(B) that the source is

(C) the source of

(D) of the source is

11. A regional writer with a gift for dialect, _____ her fiction with the eccentric, comic, but vital inhabitants of rural Mississippi.

(A) and Eudora Welty is peopling

(B) Eudora Welty peoples

(C) because Eudora Welty peoples.

(D) Eudora Welty, to people.

12.    Relative humidity is the amount of water vapor the air contains at a certain temperature _____ with the amount it could hold at that temperature.

(A) to compare

(B) compared

(C) comparing

(D) compares

13. Scientists believe the first inhabitants of the Americas arrived by crossing the land bridge that connected Siberia and _____ more than 10,000 years ago.

(A) this is Alaska now

(B) Alaska is now

(C) is now Alaska

(D) what is now Alaska.

14.    Fibers of hair and wool are not continuous and must normally be spun into thread _____ woven into textile fabrics.

(A) as are they

(B) when to be

(C) that they are

(D) if they are to be

15. Margaret Brent, because of her skill in managing estates, became _____ largest landholders in colonial Maryland.

(A) what the

(B) one of the

(C) who the

(D) the one that

16. Eleanor Roosevelt set the standard against which the wives of all United States Presidents since have evaluated.

17. The Armory Show, held in New York in 1913, was a important exhibition of modern European art.

18. Ripe fruit is often stored in a place who contains much carbon dioxide so that the fruit will not decay too rapidly.

19. In 1852, Massachusetts passed a law requiring all children from four to eighteen years of old to attend school.

20. The main purpose of classifying animals is to show the most probable evolutionary relationship of the different species to each another.

21. Matthew C. Perry, a United States naval commander, gained fame not in war and through diplomacy.

22. One of the most impressive collections of nineteenth-century European paintings in the United States can be found to the Philadelphia Museum of Art.

23. Three of every four migrating water birds in North America visits the Gulf of Mexico's winter wetlands.

24. Charleston, West Virginia, was named for Charles Clendenin, who son George acquired land at the junction of the Elk and Kanawha rivers in 1787.

25. Financier Andrew Mellon donated most of his magnificent art collection to the National Gallery of Art, where it is now locating.

26. Soil temperatures in Death Valley, California, near the Nevada border, have been known to reach 90 of degrees Celsius.

27. When the Sun, Moon, and Earth are alignment and the Moon crosses the Earth's orbital plane, a solar eclipse occurs.

28. Mary Cassatt's paintings of mothers and children are known for its fine linear rhythm, simple modelings, and harmonies of clear color.

29. Plants synthesize carbohydrates from water and carbon dioxide with the aid of energy is derived from sunlight.

30. The best American popular music balances a powerful emotions of youth with tenderness, grace, and wit.

31. In the nineteenth century, women used quilts to inscribe their responses to social, economic, and politics issues.

32. Fossils in 500-million-year-old rocks demonstrate that life forms in the Cambrian period were mostly marine animals capability of secreting calcium to form shells.

33. Rainbows in the shape of complete circles are sometimes seen from airplanes because they are not cutting off by the horizon.

34. Hot at the equator causes the air to expand, rise, and flow toward the poles.

35. Although research has been ongoing since 1930, the existence of ESP- perception and communication without the use of sight, hear, taste, touch, or smell - is still disputed.

36. As many as 50 percent of the income from motion pictures produced in the United States comes from marketing the films abroad.

37. Sleep is controlled by the brain and associated by characteristic breathing rhythms.

38. The walls around the city of Quebec, which was originally a fort military, still stand, making Quebec the only walled city in North America.

39. The manufacture of automobile was extremely expensive until assembly-line techniques made them cheaper to produce.

40. The ballad is characterized by informal diction, by a narrative largely dependent on action and dialogue, by thematic intense, and by stress on repetition.

Question 1-7

Hotels were among the earliest facilities that bound the United States together. They were both creatures and creators of communities, as well as symptoms of the frenetic quest for community. Even in the first part of the nineteenth century, Americans were private, business and pleasure purposes. Conventions were the new occasions, and hotels were distinctively American facilities making conventions possible. The first national convention of a major party to choose a candidate for President (that of the National Republican party, which met on December 12, 1831, and nominated Henry Clay for President) was held in Baltimore, at a hotel that was then reputed to be the best in the country. The presence in Baltimore of Barnum's City Hotel, a six-story building with two hundred apartments helps explain why many other early national political conventions were held there.

(14)  In the longer run, too. American hotels made other national conventions not only possible but pleasant and convivial. The growing custom of regularly assembling from afar the representatives of all kinds of groups - not only for political conventions, but also for commercial, professional, learned, and vocational ones - in turn supported the multiplying hotels. By mid-twentieth century, conventions accounted for over third of the yearly room occupancy of all hotels in the nation, about eighteen thousand different conventions were held annually with a total attendance of about ten million persons.

(23)  Nineteenth-century American hotelkeepers, who were no longer the genial, deferential "hosts" of the eighteenth-century European inn, became leading citizens. Holding a large stake in the community, they exercised power to make it prosper. As owners or managers of the local "palace of the public", they were makers and shapers of a principal community attraction. Travelers from abroad were mildly shocked by this high social position.

1. The word "bound" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) led

(B) protected

(C) tied

(D) strengthened

2. The National Republican party is mentioned in line 8 as an example of a group

(A) from Baltimore

(B) of learned people

(C) owning a hotel

(D) holding a convention

3. The word "assembling" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) announcing

(B) motivating

(C) gathering

(D) contracting

4. The word "ones" in line 18 refers to

(A) hotels

(B) conventions

(C) kinds

(D) representatives

5. The word "it" in line 26 refers to

(A) European inn

(B) host

(C) community

(D) public

6. It can be inferred from the passage that early hotelkeepers in the United States were

(A) active politicians

(B) European immigrants

(C) Professional builders

(D) Influential citizens

7. Which of the following statements about early American hotels is NOT mentioned in the passage?

(A) Travelers from abroad did not enjoy staying in them.

(B) Conventions were held in them

(C) People used them for both business and pleasure.

(D) They were important to the community.

Question 8-17

Beads were probably the first durable ornaments humans possessed, and the intimate relationship they had with their owners is reflected in the fact that beads are among the most common items found in ancient archaeological sites. In the past, as today, men, women, and children adorned themselves with beads. In some cultures still, certain beads are often worn from birth until death, and then are buried with their owners for the afterlife. Abrasion due to daily wear alters the surface features of beads, and if they are buried for long, the effects of corrosion can further change their appearance. Thus, interest is imparted to the bead both by use and the effects of time.

(11)  Besides their wearability, either as jewelry or incorporated into articles of attire, beads possess the desirable characteristics of every collectible, they are durable, portable, available in infinite variety, and often valuable in their original cultural context as well as in today's market. Pleasing to look at and touch, beads come in shapes, colors, and materials that almost compel one to handle them and to sort them.

(17)  Beads are miniature bundles of secrets waiting to be revealed: their history, manufacture, cultural context, economic role, and ornamental use are all points of information one hopes to unravel. Even the most mundane beads may have traveled great distances and been exposed to many human experiences. The bead researcher must gather information from many diverse fields. In addition to having to be a generalist while specializing in what may seem to be a narrow field, the researcher is faced with the problem of primary materials that have little or no documentation. Many ancient beads that are of ethnographic interest have often been separated from their original cultural context.

(27)  The special attractions of beads contribute to the uniqueness of bead research. While often regarded as the "small change of civilizations", beads are a part of every culture, and they can often be used to date archaeological sites and to designate the degree of mercantile, technological, and cultural sophistication.

8. What is the main subject of the passage?

(A) Materials used in making beads.

(B) How beads are made

(C) The reasons for studying beads

(D) Different types of beads

9. The word "adorned" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) protected

(B) decorated

(C) purchased

(D) enjoyed

10. The word "attire" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) ritual

(B) importance

(C) clothing

(D) history

11. All of the following are given as characteristics of collectible objects EXCEPT

(A) durability

(B) portability

(C) value

(D) scarcity.

12. According to the passage, all of the following are factors that make people want to touch beads EXCEPT the

(A) shape

(B) color

(C) material

(D) odor

13. The word "unravel" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) communicate

(B) transport

(C) improve

(D) discover

14. The word "mundane" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) carved

(B) beautiful

(C) ordinary

(D) heavy

15. It is difficult to trace the history of certain ancient beads because they

(A) are small in size

(B) have been buried underground

(C) have been moved from their original locations

(D) are frequently lost

16. Knowledge of the history of some beads may be useful in the studies done by which of the following?

(A) Anthropologists

(B) Agricultural experts

(C) Medical researchers

(D) Economists

17. Where in the passage does the author describe why the appearance of beads may change?

(A) Lines 4-5

(B) Lines 7-9

(C) Lines 15-16

(D) Lines 24-26.

Question 18-31

In the world of birds, bill design is a prime example of evolutionary fine-tuning. Shorebirds such as oystercatchers use their bills to pry open the tightly sealed shells of their prey, hummingbirds have stiletto-like bills to probe the deepest nectar-bearing flowers, and kiwis smell out earthworms thanks to nostrils located at the tip of their beaks. But few birds are more intimately tied to their source of sustenance than are crossbills. Two species of these finches, named for the way the upper and lower parts of their bills cross, rather than meet in the middle, reside in the evergreen forests of North America and feed on the seeds held within the cones of coniferous trees.

(11)  The efficiency of the bill is evident when a crossbill locates a cone. Using a lateral motion of its lower mandible, the bird separates two overlapping scales on the cone and exposes the seed. The crossed mandibles enable the bird to exert a powerful biting force at the bill tips, which is critical for maneuvering them between the scales and spreading the scales apart. Next, the crossbill snakes its long tongue into the gap and draws out the seed. Using the combined action of the bill and tongue, the bird cracks open and discards the woody seed covering action and swallows the nutritious inner kernel. This whole process takes but a few seconds and is repeated hundreds of times a day.

(21)  The bills of different crossbill species and subspecies vary - some are stout and deep, others more slander and shallow. As a rule, large-billed crossbills are better at securing seeds from large cones, while small-billed crossbills are more deft at removing the seeds from small, thin-scaled cones. Moreover, the degree to which cones are naturally slightly open or tightly closed helps determine which bill design is the best.

(27)  One anomaly is the subspecies of red crossbill known as the Newfoundland crossbill. This bird has a large, robust bill, yet most of Newfoundland's conifers have small cones, the same kind of cones that the slender-billed white-wings rely on.

18.    What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The importance of conifers in evergreen forests

(B) The efficiency of the bill of the crossbill

(C) The variety of food available in a forest

(D) The different techniques birds use to obtain food

19.      Which of the following statements best represents the type of "evolutionary fine - turning" mentioned in line1?

(A) Different shapes of bills have evolved depending on the available food supply

(B) White-wing crossbills have evolved from red crossbills

(C) Newfoundland's conifers have evolved small cones

(D) Several subspecies of crossbills have evolved from two species

20. Why does the author mention oystercatchers, hummingbirds, and kiwis in lines 2-4?

(A) They are examples of birds that live in the forest

(B) Their beaks are similar to the beak of the crossbill

(C) They illustrate the relationship between bill design and food supply

(D) They are closely related to the crossbill

21. Crossbills are a type of

(A) shorebird

(B) hummingbird

(C) kiwi

(D) finch

22. Which of the following most closely resembles the bird described in lines 7-10?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

23. The word "which" in line 15 refers to

(A) seed

(B) bird

(C) force

(D) bill

24. The word "gap" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) opening

(B) flower

(C) mouth

(D) tree

25. The word "discards" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) eats

(B) breaks

(C) finds out

(D) gets rid of

26. The word "others" in line 22 refers to

(A) bills

(B) species

(C) seeds

(D) cones

27. The word "deft" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) hungry

(B) skilled

(C) tired

(D) pleasant

28. The word "robust" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) strong

(B) colorful

(C) unusual

(D) sharp

29. In what way is the Newfoundland crossbill an anomaly?

(A) It is larger than the other crossbill species

(B) It uses a different technique to obtain food

(C) The size of its bill does not fit the size of its food source

(D) It does not live in evergreen forests.

30.    The final paragraph of the passage will probably continue with a discussion of

(A) other species of forest birds

(B) the fragile ecosystem of Newfoundland

(C) what mammals live in the forests of North America

(D)    how the Newfoundland crossbill survives with a large bill

31. Where in the passage does the author describe how a crossbill removes a seed from its cone?

(A) The first paragraph

(B) The second paragraph

(C) The third paragraph

(D) The forth paragraph

Question 32-38

If you look closely at some of the early copies of the Declaration of Independence, beyond the flourished signature of John Hancock and the other 55 men who signed it, you will also find the name of one woman, Mary Katherine Goddard. It was she, a Baltimore printer, who published the first official copies of the Declaration, the first copies that included the names of its signers and therefore heralded the support of all thirteen colonies.

(8)     Mary Goddard first got into printing at the age of twenty-four when her brother opened a printing shop in Providence, Rhode Island, in 1762. When he proceeded to get into trouble with his partners and creditors, it was Mary Goddard and her mother who were left to run the shop. In 1765 they began publishing the Providence Gazette, a weekly newspaper. Similar problems seemed to follow her brother as he opened businesses in Philadelphia and again in Baltimore. Each time Ms. Goddard was brought in to run the newspapers. After starting Baltimore's first newspaper, The Maryland Journal, in 1773, her brother went broke trying to organize a colonial postal service. While he was in debtor's prison. Mary Katherine Goddard's name appeared on the newspaper's masthead for the first time.

(20)  When the Continental Congress fled there from Philadelphia in 1776, it commissioned Ms. Goddard to print the first official version of the Declaration of Independence in January 1777. After printing the documents, she herself paid the post riders to deliver the Declaration throughout the colonies.

(25)  During the American Revolution, Mary Goddard continued to publish Baltimore's only newspaper, which one historian claimed was "second to none among the colonies". She was also the city's postmaster from 1775 to 1789 - appointed by Benjamin Franklin - and is considered to be the first woman to hold a federal position.

32. With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned?

(A) The accomplishments of a female publisher

(B) The weakness of the newspaper industry

(C) The rights of a female publisher

(D) The publishing system in colonial America

33. Mary Goddard's name appears on the Declaration of Independence because

(A) she helped write the original document

(B) she published the document

(C) she paid to have the document printed

(D) her brother was in prison

34. The word "heralded" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) influenced

(B) announced

(C) rejected

(D) ignored

35. According to the passage, Mary Goddard first became involved in publishing when she

(A) was appointed by Benjamin Franklin

(B) signed the Declaration of Independence.

(C)  took over her brother's printing shop

(D) moved to Baltimore

36. The word "there" in line 19 refers to

(A) the colonies

(B) the print shop

(C) Baltimore

(D) Providence

37. It can be inferred from the passage that Mary Goddard was

(A) an accomplished businesswoman

(B) extremely wealthy

(C) a member of the Continental Congress

(D) a famous writer

38. The word "position" in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) job

(B) election

(C) document

(D) location

Question 39-50

Galaxies are the major building blocks of the universe. A galaxy is giant family of many millions of stars, and it is held together by its own gravitational field. Most of the material universe is organized into galaxies of stars together with gas and dust.

(5)     There are three main types of galaxy: spiral, elliptical, and irregular. The Milky Way is a spiral galaxy, a flattish disc of stars with two spiral arms emerging from its central nucleus. About one-quarter of all galaxies have this shape. Spiral galaxies are well supplied with the interstellar gas in which new stars form: as the rotating spiral pattern sweeps around the galaxy it compresses gas and dust, triggering the formation of bright young stars and in its arms. The elliptical galaxies have a symmetrical elliptical or spherical shape with no obvious structure. Most of their member stars are very old and since ellipticals are devoid of interstellar gas, no new stars are forming in them. The biggest and brightest galaxies in the universe are ellipticals with masses of about 1013 times that of the Sun, these giants may frequently be sources of strong radio emission, in which case they are called radio galaxies. About two-thirds of all galaxies are elliptical. Irregular galaxies comprise about one-tenth of all galaxies and they come in many subclasses.

(20)  Measurement in space is quite different from measurement on Earth. Some terrestrial distances can be expressed as intervals of time, the time to fly from one continent to another or the time it takes to drive to work, for example. By comparison with these familiar yardsticks, the distances to the galaxies are incomprehensibly large, but they too are made more manageable by using a time calibration, in this case the distance that light travels in one year. On such a scale the nearest giant spiral galaxy, the Andromeda galaxy, is two million light years away. The most distant luminous objects seen by telescopes are probably ten thousand million light years away. Their light was already halfway here before the Earth even formed. The light from the nearby Virgo galaxy set out when reptiles still dominated the animal world.

39. The word "major" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A)    intense

(B)    principal

(C)    huge

(D)    unique

40. What does the second paragraph mainly discuss?

(A)    The Milky Way

(B)    Major categories of galaxies

(C)      How elliptical galaxies are formed

(D)    Differences between irregular  and spiral galaxies

41. The word "which" in line 9 refers to

(A)    dust

(B)    gas

(C)    pattern

(D)    galaxy

42. According to the passage, new stars are formed in spiral galaxies due to

(A)    an explosion of gas

(B)      the compression of gas and dust

(C)    the combining of old stars

(D)    strong radio emissions

43. The word "symmetrical" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A)    proportionally balanced

(B)    commonly seen

(C)    typically large

(D)    steadily growing

44. The word "obvious" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A)    discovered

(B)    apparent

(C)    understood

(D)    simplistic

45. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true of elliptical galaxies?

(A)    They are the largest galaxies.

(B)    They mostly contain old stars.

(C)    They contain a high amount of interstellar gas.

(D)    They have a spherical shape.

46. Which of the following characteristics of radio galaxies is mentioned in the passage?

(A)      They are a type of elliptical galaxy.

(B)    They are usually too small to be seen with a telescope.

(C)    They are closely related to irregular galaxies.

(D)    They are not as bright as spiral galaxies.

47. What percentage of galaxies are irregular?

(A)    10%

(B)    25%

(C)    50%

(D)    75%

48. The word "they" in line 24 refers to

(A)    intervals

(B)    yardsticks

(C)    distances

(D)    galaxies

49.      Why does the author mention the Virgo galaxy and the Andromeda galaxy in the third paragraph?

(A)    To describe the effect that distance has no visibility.

(B)    To compare the ages of two relatively young galaxies.

(C) To emphasize the vast distances of the galaxies from Earth.

(D) To explain why certain galaxies cannot be seen by a telescope.

50.    The word "dominated" in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) threatened

(B) replaced

(C) were developing in

(D) were prevalent in

1998年1月TOFEL托福听力试题

B

1. Between 1870 and 1 890 the total population of tile United States---

(A) that doubled

(B) doubled

(C) It doubled

(D) when doubled

2. Intended to display the work of twentieth-century artists, in 1929.

(A) the opening of the Museum of Modern Art

(B) so the Museum of Modern Art opened

(C) why tile Museum of Modern Art opened

(D) the Museum of Modern Art opened

3. The Earth has a tremendous amount of water, but--- in the ocean..

(A) almost all of it is

(B) it is almost all of

(C) is of it almost all

(D) all is of it almost

4. --- have sense organs in a canal known as the lateral line, which allows them to respond to changes in water pressure caused by nearby motion.

(A) That tile fish

(B) Fish

(C) When fish

(D) If tile fish

5.        Direct information on the chemical composition of the Moon became available in 1969 --- of the first Apollo mission to land on the Moon.

(A) with tile return

(B) returning

(C) when returned

(D) and the return

6. --- completely harmless to the environment is very difficult and usually economically unsound.

(A) Cleaning products that

(B) Cleaning products are

(C) Cleaning products are made

(D) Making a cleaning product

7. One of Ulysses S. Grant's first acts as President of the United States was to name tile Seneca chief Donehogawa --- of Indian Affairs.

(A) as was Commissioner

(B) Commissioner

(C) was Commissioner

(D) him Commissioner

8. One of the most ancient arts,--- in different parts of the world.

(A) for weaving to develop independently

(B) the independent development of weaving

(C) weaving, to develop independently

(D) weaving developed independently

9. --- classified as a carnivore, the North American grizzly bear cats berries and even grass.

(A) Just as

(B) Because of

(C) Although

(D) Either

10. Not only --- much bigger than any planet, but unlike the planets, it consists completely of gaseous material.

(A) the Sun is

(B) the Sun, which is

(C) is the Sun

(D) that the Sun

11. Colloquialisms,---of informal spoken language, are often considered inappropriate for more formal written language.

(A) expression which are characteristic

(B) which characteristic expressions

(C) are expressions characteristic

(D) expressions can be characteristic

12. Her work in genetics won United States scientist Barbara McClintock ------- in 1983.

(A) was the Nobel Prize

(B) the Nobel Prize was

(C) the Nobel Prize

(D) for the Nobel Prize

13. --- usually thought to end in northern New Mexico, the Rocky Mountains really extend southward to the frontier of Mexico.

(A) Despite

(B) To be

(C) While

(D) However

14. The novelist Edith Wharton considered the Writer Henry James

(A) that a strong influence on her work

(B) as strong influence on her work

(C) a strong influence on her work

(D) was a strong influence on her work

15. Ironically, the poet Henry Wadsworth Longfellow claimed he never liked teaching, although a professor at Harvard University and taught for many years.

(A) becoming

(B) he became

(C) had lie become

(D) for him to become

16. The hind leg of the gerbil are particularly well adapted to leaping across its desert habitat.

17.  Educator Helen Magill White was. the first American woman to have earn the Ph.D. degree.

18. The changes that occur in the life cycle of a butterfly or moth are probable the most striking examples of metamorphosis.

19. In the nineteenth century, North American locomotives ran on hardwood fuel, which was inexpensive and plentiful in the time.

20. Much theories have been developed concerning how people learn about cultures from the myths and legends passed down from one generation to another.

21. Several comet are discovered each year, but very few of them are bright enough to be seen without the aid or magnification.

22. Charles Monroe Schulz's comic strip "Peanuts" is translated into 26 languages also has appeared in over 2,300 daily newspapers.

23. In human beings the liver is the biggest glandular organ of his digestive system.

24. Many scientists contributed to the development of television, whether no one person can be said to have invented it.

25. Northern Canada contains vast areas treeless of low vegetation known as tundra.

26. Gordon Parks composed wrote, and directed Martin, the classical ballet who Examines the meaning of the life of Martin Luther King. Jr.

27. In 1965 Rodolfo Gonzales has estab1ished an organization called the Crusade for Justice in Denver, Colorado.

28. Large, heavy draft horses were commonly used for labor farm in the United States before the introduction of tractors.

29. Herads of migrating caribou, members of the deer family arc an important economically resource to Inuits and other Native Americans.

30. Some nineteenth-century advocates for the emancipation of women in the United States were also activity in the Underground Railroad, helping slaves to escape.

31. Feathers not only protect birds from injury and conserve body heat but also function in flight. courtship, camouflage, and sensory perceptive.

32. The radio telescope, invented in 1932, has capabilities beyond far those of optical telescopes in tracking signals from galaxies.

33. Rafting was an essential mean of transportation from prehistoric times to the nineteenth century.

34.    Many fortification rank among the most functional and beautiful works of architecture constructed in North America before the twentieth century.

35. Because her work was popular with European royally, Harriet Goodhue Hosmer became financial successful as a sculptor in the mid-eighteen hundreds.

36. The actor James Earl Jones gained Broadway stardom in "The Great White hope" for his powerful portrayal of prizefighter.

37. Despite fats and oils arc nutritionally important as energy sources, medical research indicates that saturated fats may contribute to hardening of the arteries.

38. Large multicolored insects with four wings, dragonflies play a very important role in the ecosystem of humid area by controlling the population of mosquitoes.

39. During early nineteenth-century Boston. the architect Charles Bulfinch, eager to make the city beautiful, sometimes provided free plans for people building homes.

40.    In 1889 Jane Addams, a social worker in Chicago, founded hull house, an institution devoted to the improvement of community life in poor neighborhood.

C

Question 1-9

Although social changes in the United States were being wrought throughout most of the nineteenth-century, public awareness of the changes increased to new levels in the 1890's. The acute, growing public awareness of the social changes that had been taking place for some time (5) was tied to tremendous growth in popular journalism in the late nineteenth century, including growth in quantity and circulation of both magazines and newspapers. These developments, in addition to the continued growth of cities, were significant factors in the transformation of society from one characterized by relatively isolated self-contained (10)communities into an urban, industrial nation. The decade of the 1870's, for example, was a period in which the sheer number of newspapers doubled, and by 1880 the New York Graphic had published the first photographic reproduction in a newspaper, portending a dramatic rise in newspaper readership. Between 1882 and 1886 alone, the price of daily (15)newspapers dropped from four cents a copy to one cent, made possible in part by a great increase in demand. Further more, the introduction in 1890 of the first successful linotype machine promised even further growth. In 1872 only two daily newspapers could claim a circulation of over 100,000,but by 1892 seven more newspapers exceeded that figure. A world beyond the immediate community was rapidly becoming visible.

(21)  But it was not newspapers alone that were bringing the new awareness to people In the United States in the late nineteenth century. Magazines as they are known today began publication around 1882, and, in fact, the circulation of weekly magazines exceeded that of newspapers in the period which followed. By 1892, for example, the circulation of the Ladies' Home Journal had reached an astounding 700,000. An increase in book readership also played a significant part in this general trend. For example, Edward Bellamy's utopian novel, Looking Backward, sold over a million copies in 1888, giving rise to the growth of organizations dedicated to the realization of Bellamy's vision of the future. The printed word, unquestionably. was intruding on the insulation that had characterized United Slates society in an earlier period.

1. The word "acute" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) useful

(B) intense

(C) genuine

(D) controversial

2. According to the passage, the expansion of popular journalism was linked to

(A) changes in the distribution system

(B) a larger supply of paper

(C) an increase in people's awareness of social changes

( D) greater numbers of journalists

3. According to the passage, the New York Graphic's inclusion of photographs contributed to

(A) the closing of newspapers that did not use photographs

(B) newspapers becoming more expensive

(C) an increase in the number of people reading newspapers

(D) a reduction in the cost of advertising

4. Why was there a drop in the price of daily newspapers between 1882 and 1886 ?

(A) There was a rise in demand.

(B) Newspapers had fewer pages.

(C) Newspapers contained photographic reproductions.

(D) Magazines began to compete with newspapers.

5. The word "exceeded" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) controlled

(B) surpassed

(C) affected

(D) equaled

6. What does the author mean by the statement "A world beyond the immediate community was rapidly becoming visible" in lilies 19-20 ?

(A) Photographs made newspapers more interesting.

(B) The United Slates exported newspapers to other countries.

(C) People were becoming increasingly aware of national and international issues.

(D) Communities remained isolated despite the growth of popular journalism

7. The  word " that" in line 24 refers to

(A) century

(B) publication

(C) circulation

(D) period

8. The word  "astounding" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) surprising

(B) estimated

(C) encouraging

(D) sudden

9. Why does the author mention  Edward Bellamy's novel Looking Backward?

(A) To illustrate how advanced the technology of printing had become

(B)  To emphasize the influence of the printed word on a society undergoing rapid change

(C) To document its prediction about the popularity of newspapers

(D) To demonstrate that hooks had replaced newspapers and magazines as the leading source of information

Question 10-19

Glass is a remarkable substance made from the simplest raw materials. It can be colored or colorless, monochrome or polychrome, transparent, translucent, or opaque. It is lightweight impermeable to liquids, readily cleaned and reused , durable yet fragile, and often very beautiful Glass can be decorated in multiple ways and its optical properties are exceptional. In all its myriad forms – as table ware, containers, in architecture and design – glass represents a major achievement in the history of technological developments.

(9)     Since the Bronze Age about 3,000 B.C., glass lias been used for making various kinds of objects. It was first made from a mixture of silica, line and an alkali such as soda or potash, and these remained the basic ingredients of glass until the development of lead glass in the seventeenth century. When heated , the mixture becomes soft and malleable and can be formed by various techniques into a vast array of shapes and sizes. The homogeneous mass thus formed by melting then cools to create glass, but in contrast to most materials  formed in this way (metals, for instance), glass lacks the crystalline structure normally associated with solids, and instead retains the random molecular structure of a liquid. In effect, as molten glass cools, it progressively stiffens until rigid, but does so without setting up a network of interlocking crystals customarily associated with that process. This is why glass shatters so easily when dealt a blow. Why glass deteriorates over time, especially when exposed to moisture, and why glassware must be slowly reheated and uniformly cooled after manufacture to release internal stresses Induced by uneven cooling.

(25)  Another unusual feature of glass is the manner in which its viscosity changes as it turns from a cold substance into a hot, ductile liquid. Unlike metals that flow or "freeze" at specific temperatures glass progressively softens as the temperature rises, going through varying stages of malleability until it flows like a thick syrup. Each stage of malleability allows the glass to be manipulated into various forms, by different techniques, and if suddenly cooled the object retains the shape achieved at that point. Glass is thus amenable to a greater number of heat-forming techniques than most other materials.

10. Why does the author list the characteristics of glass in lines 1-5?

(A) To demonstrate how glass evolved

(B) To show the versatility of glass

(C) To explain glassmaking technology

(D) To explain the purpose of each component of glass

11. The word "durable"' in hue 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) lasting

(B) delicate

(C) heavy

(D) Plain

12. What does the author imply about the raw materials used to make glass?

(A) They were the same for centuries.

(B) They arc liquid

(C) They are transparent

(D) They are very heavy.

13. According to the passage, how is glass that has cooled and become rigid different from most other rigid substances?

(A) It has an interlocking crystal network.

(B) It has an unusually low melting temperature.

(C) It has varying physical properties.

(D) It has a random molecular structure.

14. The word "customarily" in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) naturally

(B) necessarily

(C) usually

(D) certainly

15. The words "exposed to" in line 22 are closest in meaning to

(A) hardened by

(B) chilled with

(C) subjected to

(D) deprived of

16. What must be done to release the internal stresses that build up in glass products during manufacture?

(A) the glass must be reheated and evenly cooled.

(B) the glass must be cooled quickly.

(C) The glass must be kept moist until cooled.

(D) The glass must be shaped to its desired form immediately

17. The word "induced" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) joined

(B) missed

(C) caused

(D) lost

18. The word "it" in line 26 refers to

(A) feature

(B) glass

(C) manner

(D) viscosity

19. According to the passage. why can glass be more easily shaped into specific forms than can metals

(A) It resists breaking when heated

(B) It has better optical properties.

(C) It retains heat while its viscosity changes.

(D) It gradually becomes softer as its temperature rises.

Question 20-30

A great deal can be learned from the actual traces of ancient human locomotion: the footprints of early hominids. The best-known specimens are the remarkable tracks discovered at Lactoli, Tanzania, by Mary Leaky. These were left by small hominids around 3.6 to 3.75 million years ago, according to potassium – argon dates of the volcanic rocks above and below this level. These hominids walked across a stretch of moist volcanic ash, which was subsequently turned to mud by rain, and which then set like concrete.

(8)     Examination of he shape of the prints revealed to Mary Leakey that the feet had a raised arch, a rounded heel, a pronounced ball, and a big toe that pointed forward. These features, together with the weight-bearing pressure patterns, resembled the prints of upright-walking modern humans. The pressures exerted along the foot, together with the length of stride, which averaged 87 centimeters, indicated that the hominids had been walking slowly. In short, all the detectable morphological features implied that the feet that left the footprints were very little different from those of contemporary humans.

(17)  A detailed study has been made of the prints using photogrammetry, a technique for obtaining measurements through photographs, which created a drawing showing all the curves and contours of the prints. The result emphasized that there were at least seven points of similarity with modern bipedal prints, such as the depth of the heel impression, and the deep imprint of the big toe. M Day and E. Wickens also took stereophotographs of the Lactoli prints and compared them with modern prints make by men and women in similar soil conditions. Once again, the results furnished possible evidence of bipedalism. Footprints thus provide us not merely with rare impressions of the soft tissue of early hominids, but also with evidence of upright waling that in many ways is clearer than can be obtained from the analysis of bones.

(29)  The study of fossil footprints is not restricted to examples from such remote periods. Hundreds of prints are known, for example, in French caves dating from the end of the last ices age, approximately 10,000 years ago. Research by Leon Pales, using detailed silicon resin molds of footprints mostly made by bare feet, has provided information about this period.

20. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The analysis of footprint fossils

(B) Accurate dating of hominid remains

(C) the career of Mary Leakey

(D) Behavioral patterns of early humans

21. The word "remarkable" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) extraordinary

(B) enormous

(C) various

(D) orderly

22. The age of the Laetoli footprints was estimated by

(A) testing the fossilized bones of the hominids

(B) studying the shape of the footprints

(C) analyzing nearly rock layers

(D) comparison with footprints from other locations

23. It can be inferred that the footprints in volcanic ash at Laetoli were well preserved because

(A) they were buried by a second volcanic eruption

(B) the ash contained potassium anti argon

(C) the ash was still warm from the volcanic cruptions

(D) suitable conditions caused the ash 10 harden

24. Which or the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the feet in Mary Leakey's fossil find?

(A) The shape or the heel

(B) The number of toes

(C) A raised arch

(D) A pronounced ball

25. The word "exerted" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) influenced

(B) applied

(C) returned

(D) lessened

26. The figure of 87 centimeters mentioned in line 13 refers to the size of the

(A) objects carried by the hominids

(B) steps taken by the hominids

(C) hominids bodies

(D) hominids feet

27. Why does the author mention the "heel impression" in line 21?

(A) To emphasize the size of the hominids foot

(B) To speculate on a possible injury the hominid had suffered

(C) To give an example of similarity to modern human footprints

(D) To indicate the weight of early hominids

28. The word "restricted" in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) limited

(B) improved

(C) continued

(D) succeeded

29. What can be inferred about the footprints found in French caves mentioned in the last paragraph?

(A) They show more detail than the Laetoli prints.

(B) They are of more recent origin than the Laetoli prints.

(C) They are not as informative as the Laetoli prints.

(D) They are more difficult to study than the Laetoli prints

30. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A) "hominids" (line 4)

(B) "arch" (line 9)

(C) "photogrammetry" (line 17)

(D) "silicon resin molds" (line 32)

Questions 31- 40

The livelihood of each species in the vast and intricate assemblage of living things depends on the existences of other organisms. This interdependence is sometimes subtle, sometimes obvious. Perhaps the most straight forward dependence of one species on another occurs with parasites, organisms that live on or in other living things and derive nutrients directly from them. The parasitic way of life is widespread. A multitude of microorganisms (including viruses and bacteria) and an army of invertebrates – or creatures lacking a spinal column (including crustaceans, insects, and many different types of worms) – make their livings directly at the expense of other creatures. In the face of this onslaught, living things have evolved a variety of defense mechanisms for protecting their bodies from invasion by other organisms.

(13)  Certain fungi and even some kinds of bacteria secrete substances known as antibiotics into their external environment. These substances are capable of killing or inhibiting the growth of various kinds of bacteria that also occupy the area, thereby eliminating or reducing the competition for nutrients. The same principle is used in defense against invaders in other groups of organisms. For example, when attacked by disease-causing fungi or bacteria, many kinds of plants produce chemicals that help to ward off the invaders.

(21)  Members of the animal kingdom have developed a variety of defense mechanisms    for dealing with parasites. Although these mechanisms vary considerably, all major groups of animals are capable of detecting and reacting to the presence of "foreign" cells. In fact, throughout the animal kingdom, from sponges to certain types of worms, shellfish, and all vertebrates (creatures possessing a spinal column), there is evidence that transplants of cells or fragments of tissues into an animal are accepted only if they come from genetically compatible or closely related individuals.

(29)  The ability to distinguish between "self" and "nonself", while present in all animals, is most efficient among vertebrates, which have developed an immune system as their defense mechanism. The immune system recognizes and takes action against foreign invaders and transplanted tissues that are treated as foreign cells.

31. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) how parasites reproduce

(B) how organisms react to invaders

(C) how antibiotics work to cure disease

(D) how the immune systems of vertebrates developed

32. The word "intricate" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) difficult

(B) widespread

(C) critical

(D) complex

33. The expression "an army" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) an illness

(B) an attack

(C) a large number

(D) a distinct type

34. According to the passage, some organisms produce antibiotics in order to

(A) prevent disease in humans

(B) aid digestion

(C) fight off other organisms

(D) create new types of nutrients

35. According to the passage, some organisms produce antibiotics in order to

(A) prevent disease in humans

(B) aid digestion

(C) fight off other organisms

(D) create new types of nutrients

35. The word "vary" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) differ

(B) endure

(C) balance

(D) contribute

36. The word "they" in line 28 refers to

(A) sponges, worms and shellfish

(B) vertebrates

(C) individuals

(D) transplants

37. According to the passage, a transplant of tissue between genetically incompatible organisms will result in the transplanted tissue

(A) becoming a parasite

(B) being treated as an invader

(C) altering its genetic makeup

(D) developing a new immune system

38. According to the passage, the ability to distinguish between "self" and "nonself" enables vertebrates to

(A) accept transplanted cells

(B) detect and react to invasion

(C) weaken their immune system

(D) get rid of antibiotics

39. All of the following ate defined in the passage EXCEPT

(A) parasites (line 5)

(B) invertebrates (line 8)

(C) nutrients (line 17)

(D) vertebrates (line 26)

40. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses

(A) how the immune system in vertebrates fights off foreign cells

(B) different types of bacteria and lung

(C) how vertebrates and invertebrates differ

(D) examples of different groups of organisms

Question 41-50

The development of jazz can be seen as part of the larger continuum of American popular music, especially dance music. In the twenties, jazz became the hottest new thing in dance music, much as ragtime had at the turn of the century, and as would rhythm and blues in the fifties, rock in the fifties, and disco in the seventies.

(6)     But two characteristics distinguish jazz from other dance music. The first is improvisation, the changing of a musical phrase according to the player's inspiration. Like all artists, jazz musicians strive for an individual style, and the improvise or paraphrased is a jazz musician's main opportunity to display his or her individuality. In early jazz, musicians often improvised melodies collectively, thus creating a kind of polyphony. There was little soloing as such, although some New Orleans players, particularly cornet player Buddy Bolden, achieved local fame for their ability to improvise a solo. Later the idea of the chorus-long or multichorus solo took hold. Louis Armstrong's instrumental brilliance, demonstrated through extended solos, was a major influence in this development.

(18)  Even in the early twenties, however, some jazz bands had featured soloists. Similarly, show orchestras and carnival bands often included one or two such "get-off" musicians. Unimproved, completely structured jazz does exist, but the ability of the best jazz musicians to create music of great cohesion and beauty during performance has been a hallmark of the music and its major source of inspiration and change.

(24)  The second distinguishing characteristic of jazz is a rhythmic drive that was initially called "hot" and later "swing". In playing hot , a musician consciously departs from strict meter to create a relaxed sense of phrasing that also emphasizes the underlying rhythms.("Rough" tone and use of moderate vibrato also contributed to a hot sound .) Not all jazz is hot, however, many early bands played unadorned published arrangements of popular songs. Still, the proclivity to play hot distinguished the jazz musician from other instrumentalists.

41. The passage answers which of the following questions?

(A) which early jazz musicians most Influenced rhythm and blues music?

(B) What are the differences between jazz and other forms of music?

(C) Why Is dancing closely related to popular music in the United States?

(D) What Instruments comprised a typical jazz band of the 1920's?

42.Which of the following preceded jazz as a popular music for dancing?

(A) Disco

(B) Rock

(C) Rhythm and blues

(D) Ragtime

43. According to the passage, jazz musicians are able to demonstrate their individual artistry mainly by?

(A) creating musical variations while performing

(B) preparing musical arrangements

(C) reading music with great skill

(D) being able to play all types of popular music

44. Which of the following was the function of "get-off" musicians (line 20)?

(A) Assist the other band members in packing up after a performance

(B) Teach dance routines created for new music

(C) Lead the band

(D) Provide solo performances in a band or orchestra

45. The word "cohesion" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) sorrow

(B) fame

(C) unity

(D) vibration

46. The word "initially" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) at first

(B) shortly

(C) alphabetically

(D) in fact

47. The word "consciously" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) carelessly

(B) easily

(C) periodically

(D) purposely

48. The word "unadorned" in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) lovely

(B) plain

(C) disorganized

(D) inexpensive

49. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A) "improvisation" (line 7)

(B) "polyphony" (line 11)

(C) "cornet player" (line 13)

(D) "multichorus" (line 15)

50. The topic of the passage is developed primarily by means of

(A) dividing the discussion into two major areas

(B) presenting contrasting points of view

(C) providing biographies of famous musician

(D) describing historical events in sequence

1998年5月托福语法试题

B

1.     --- a major role in future planetary exploration.

(A) Robots will surely play

(B) Robots, which will surely play

(C) Because robots will surely be playing

(D) Surely robots, which will be playing

2. Unlike the owl, bats cannot see very well, but they do have---.

(A) it hears very well

(B) very good to hear

(C) tearing very well

(D) very good hearing

3. Comparatively few clues in the United Slates have competing newspapers today, a major change from 1900--- more than two newspapers.

(A) because then most large cities having

(B) when did most large cities have

(C) then most large cities that had

(D) when most large cities had

4. Witch hazel extract, --- distilled from the bark and twigs of the witch hazel shrub, has been utilized in medicine.

(A) is

(B) when to be

(C) which is

(D) has been

5. --- touching in O. Henry's stories is the gallantry with which ordinary people struggle to maintain their dignity.

(A) Most is

(B) It mostly is

(C) Is it most

(D) What is most

6.     The face of the Moon is changed by collisions with meteoroids, --- new craters to appear.

(A) cause

(B) causing

(C) caused

(D) have cause

7. Social scientists believe that --- from sounds such as grunts and barks made by early ancestors of human beings.

(A) the very slow development of language

(B) language developed very slowly

(C) language which,, was very slow to develop

(D) language, very slowly developing

8.     --- substances include various forms of silica, pumice, and emery.

(A) Natural abrasives occur

(B) Abrasion occurs in natural

(C) Naturally occurring abrasive

(D) A natural occurrence of abrasion

9.      --- in the upper part of their long1 thin legs all9w deer to run swiftly and jump far.

(A) Muscles are powerful

(B) There are powerful muscles

(C) The powerful muscles that

(D) Powerful muscles

10.    Geophysicists have collaborated with archaeologists and anthropologists to study the magnetic properties of pottery and fireplaces at sites ----- by early humans.

(A) occupied

(B) occupying

(C) which occupy

(D) were occupied

11. --- technically proficient; it also explores psychological questions.

(A) Not only is Barbara Astman's artwork

(B) Not only Barbara Asiman's artwork

(C) Barbara Astman1s artwork,, which is not only

(D) Barbara Astman's artwork not only

12.    Although Canada's Parliament can neither administer or enforce laws initiate policy, it does have the power to make laws and vote on the allocation of funds.

(A) not

(B) nor

(C) and

(D) either

13.    Willa Cather considered her novel of life in nineteenth-century Nebraska, My Antonia,---

(A) was her best work

(B) her best work

(C) her best work it was

(D) being her best work

14. First designated in 1970, Earth Day has become an annual international event     concerns about environmental issues such as pollution.

(A) dedicated to raising

(B) dedicated raising

(C) dedicates to raise

(D) that dedicates to raising

15. In 1992 Albert Gore, Jr., the son of a former United States senator, became Vice President of the United States.

(A) who was the forty-fifth

(B) and the forty-fifth

(C) the forty-fifth

(D) he was the forty-fifth

16. Although Christopher Columbus failed in his original goal, the discoveries he did make were as Important than the route to Asia he expected to find.

17. Martha Graham, a leading figure in modern dance, made she debut in 1920 with the Denishawn School.

18. In the United States, the federal government is responsible to regulating the working conditions in factories.

18.    Jupiter is a gaseous planet with an atmosphere composed most of hydrogen and helium.

20. Throughout her career Georgia O'Keeffe paid meticulous attention to her craft; her brushes were always clean, her colors fresh and brightness.

21. Hydrogen  the nine most abundant element in the Earth's crust, is an odorless, colorless, and tasteless gas.

22. Salamanders are frequently to be find in moist, wooded areas.

23. Steam engines have been replaced in most cases by more economical and efficiency devices, such as the electric motor.

24. Traditionally, the Fourth of July is celebrated in the United States with political speeches, picnics, and most important of all, a displayed of fireworks at night.

25. The style of used in cartoon animation range from relatively realistic representations of everyday life to the most romantic and impossible fantasy.

26. Ordinary beaver dams vary in length from a few feet to a hundred feel or more than.

27. In the United State, presidential elections are held once every four year.

28.  Except of the freehand toe, the feet of the gull are fully webbed.

29. Teaching machines are devices that can store instructionally information, present displays, receive responses from a learner, and act on those responses.

30. Challotte Perkins Gilman Is known primarily as an author of short stories, but she also wrote an influential book argued for equal economic opportunities for women.

31.   In some areas of the United States, unfavorable climate or soil make farming an impossible task.

32. Naturalists have identified at least four hundred of species of mammals and six hundred types of birds in the state of California.

33. Instead of tooth, the blue whale has a row of bony plates in its mouth that functions as a food-collecting device.

34. Murres are black-and-white driving birds that mate every five or six years and lay only a single egg at time.

35. A bar code consists a pattern of lines and bars that a computer can translate into information.

36. Hummingbirds are the only birds that can fly to backwards.

37. Fluorine, a greenish-yellow gas that is slightly heavy than air  is poisonous and corrosive and has a penetrating and disagreeable odor.

38. The Everglades, a large swamp area is an unique wilderness extending over much of southern Florida.

39. Each year millions of tons of fertile topsoil that could produce good crops washed away by rains.

40. Since the 1950's, folk' music has had a significant influence on many popular vocal and instrumental music.

C

Questions 1-11

Before the 1500's, the western plains of North America were dominated by farmers. One group, the Mandans, lived in the upper Missouri River country, primarily in present-day North Dakota. They had large villages of houses built close together. The tight arrangement enabled the Mandans to protect themselves more easily from the        attacks of others who might seek to obtain some of the food these highly capable farmers stored from one year to the next.

(8)   The women had primary responsibility for the fields. They had to exercise considerable skill to produce the desired results, for their northern location meant fleeting  growing seasons. Winter often lingered; autumn could be ushered in by severe frost. For good measure, during the spring and summer, drought, heat, hail, grasshoppers, and other frustrations might await the wary grower.

(14) Under such conditions, Mandan women had to grow maize capable of weathering adversity. They began as early as it appeared feasible to do so in the spring. clearing the land, using fire to clear stubble from the fields and then planting. From this point until the first green corn could be harvested, the crop required labor and vigilance.

(19)   Harvesting proceeded in two stages. In August the Mandans picked a smaller amount of the crop before it had matured fully. This green corn was boiled, dried, and shelled, with some of the maize slated for immediate consumption and the rest stored in animal-skin bags. Later in the fall, the people picked corn. They saved the best of the harvest for seeds or for trade, with the remainder eaten right away or stored for later use in underground reserves. With appropriate banking of the extra food, the Mandans protected themselves against the disaster of crop failure and accompanying hunger.

(28)  The women planted another staple, squash, about the first of June, and harvested it near the time of the green corn harvest. After they picked it, they sliced it, dried it, and strung the slices before they stored them. Once again, they saved the seed from the best of the year's crop. The Mandans also grew sunflowers and tobacco; the latter was the particular task of the old men.

1. The Mandans built their houses close together in order to

(A) guard their supplies of food

(B) protect themselves against the weather

(C) allow more room for growing corn

(D) share farming implements

2. The word "enabled" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) covered

(B) reminded

(C) helped

(D) isolated

3.The word "considerable" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) planning

(B) much

(C) physical

(D) flew

4.Why does the author believe that the Mandans were skilled farmers?

(A) They developed effective fertilizers.

(B) They developed new varieties of corn.

(C) They could grow crops in most types of soil.

(D) They could grow crops despite adverse weather.

5. Tile word "consumption" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) decay

(B) planting

(C) eating

(D) conversion

6. Which of the following processes does the author imply was done by both men and women?

(A) Clearing fields

(B) Planting corn

(C) Harvesting corn

(D) harvesting squash.

7. The word "disaster" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) control

(B) catastrophe

(C) avoidance

(D) history

8. According to the passage, the Mandans preserved their food by

(A) smoking

(B) drying

(C) freezing.

(D) salting

9. The word "it" in line 29 refers to

(A) June

(B) corn

(C) time

(D) squash

10. Which of the following crops was cultivated primarily by men

(A) Corn

(B) Squash

(C) Sunflower

(D) Tobacco

11. Throughout the passage, the author implies that the Mandans

(A) planned for the future

(B) valued individuality

(C) were open to strangers

(D) were very adventurous

Questions 12-20

The elements other than hydrogen and helium exist In such small quantities that it is accurate to say that the universe somewhat more than 25 percent helium by weight and somewhat less than 25 percent hydrogen.

(4)     Astronomers have measured the abundance of helium throughout our galaxy and in other galaxies as well. Helium has been found In old stars, in relatively young ones, in interstellar gas, and in the distant objects known as quasars. Helium nuclei have also been found to be constituents of cosmic rays that fall on the earth (cosmic "rays" are not really a form of radiation; they consist of rapidly moving particles of numerous different kinds). It doesn't seem to make very much difference where the helium is found. Its relative abundance never seems to vary much. In some places, there may be slightly more of it; In others, slightly less, but the ratio of helium to hydrogen nuclei always remains about the same.

(14)  Helium is created in stars. In fact, nuclear reactions that convert hydrogen to helium are responsible for most of the energy that stars produce. However, the amount of helium that could have been produced in this manner can be calculated, and it turns out to be no more than a few percent. The universe has not existed long enough for this figure to he significantly greater. Consequently, if the universe is somewhat more than 25 percent helium now, then it must have been about 25 percent helium at a time near the beginning..

(22)  However, when the universe was less than one minute old, no helium could have existed.

Calculations indicate that before this time temperatures were too high and particles of matter were moving around much too rapidly. It was only after the one-minute point that helium could exist. By this time, the universe had cooled sufficiently that neutrons and protons could stick together. But the nuclear reactions that led to the formation of helium went on for only a relatively short time. By the time the universe was a few minutes old, helium production had effectively ceased.

12. What does the passage mainly explain?

(A) How stars produce energy

(B) The difference between helium and hydrogen

(C) When most of the helium in the universe was formed

(D) Why hydrogen is abundant

13. According to the passage, helium is

(A) the second-most abundant element in the universe

(B) difficult to detect

(C) the oldest element in the universe

(D) the most prevalent element in quasars

14. The word "constituents" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) relatives

(B) causes

(C) components

(D) targets

15. Why does the author mention "cosmic rays” in line 8?

(A) As part of a list of things containing helium

(B) As an example of an unsolved astronomical puzzle

(C) To explain how the universe began

(D) To explain the abundance of hydrogen in the universe

16. The word "vary" in line 11 is closest ill meaning to

(A) mean

(B) stretch

(C) change

(D) include

17. The creation of helium within stars

(A) cannot be measured

(B) produces energy

(C) produces hydrogen as a by-product

(D) causes helium to be much more abundant In old stars than In young star:

18. The word "calculated" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) ignored

(B) converted

(C) increased

(D) determined

19. Most of the helium in the universe was formed

(A) in interstellar space

(B) in a very short time

(C) during the first minute of the universe's existence

(D) before most of the hydrogen

20. The word "ceased" in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) extended

(B) performed

(C) taken hold

(D) stopped

Questions 21-30

In colonial America, people generally covered their beds with decorative quilts resembling those of the lands from which the quitters had come. Wealthy and socially prominent settlers made quilts of the English type, cut from large lengths of cloth of the same color and texture rather than stitched together from smaller pieces. They mad these until the advent of the Revolutionary War in 1775, when everything English came to be frowned upon.

(8)    Among the whole-cloth quilts made by these wealthy settlers during the early period are those now called linsey-woolseys. This term was usually applied to a fabric of wool and linen used In heavy clothing and quilted petticoats worn in the wintertime. Despite the name, linsey-woolsey bedcovers did not often contain linen. Rather, they were made of a lop layer of woolen or glazed worsted wool fabric, consisting of smooth, compact yarn from long wool fiber dyed dark blue, green, or brown with a bottom layer of a coarser woolen material, either natural or a shade of yellow. The filling was a soft layer of wool which had been cleaned and separated and the three layers were held together with decorative stitching done with homespun linen thread. Later, cotton thread WM used for this purpose. The design of the stitching was often a simple one composed of interlocking circles or crossed diagonal lines giving a diamond pattern.

(21)  This type of heavy, warm, quilted bedcover was so large that it hung to the floor. The corners are cut out at the foot of the cover so that the quilt fit snugly around the tall four-poster, beds of the 1700's, which differed from those of today in that they were shorter and wider; they were short because people slept in a semi-sitting position with many bolsters or pillows, and wide, because each bed often slept three or more. The linsey-woolsey covering was found in the colder regions of the country because of the warmth it afforded. There was no central heating and most bedrooms did not have fireplaces.

21. What does this passage mainly discuss?

(A)  The processing of wool

(B)  Linsey-woolsey bedcovers

(C)  Sleeping habits of colonial Americans

(D)  Quilts made in England

22. The word "prominent" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A)  isolated

(B)  concerned

(C)  generous

(D)  distinguished

23. The author mention the Revolutionary War as a time period when

(A)      quills were supplied to the army

(B)    more immigrants arrived from England

(C)    quills imported from England became harder to find

(D)    people's attitudes toward England changed.

24. The phrase "applied to" in line 10 is closest in meaning 10

(A) sewn onto

(B) compared to

(C) used for

(D) written down on

25. The term "linsey-woolsey" originally meant fabric used primarily in

(A) quilts

(B) sheets

(C) clothing

(D) pillows

26. The word "coarser" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) older

(B) less heavy

(C) more attractive

(D) rougher

27. The quilts described in the second and third paragraphs were made primarily of

(A) wool

(B) linen

(C) cotton

(D) a mixture of fabrics

28. It can be inferred from the third paragraph that the sleeping habits

of most Americans have changed since the 1700's in all the following ways EXCEPT

(A) the position in which people sleep

(B) the numbers of bolsters or pillows people sleep on

(C) the length of time people sleep

(D) the number of people who sleep in one bed

29. The word "afforded" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) provided

(B) spent

(C) avoided

(D) absorbed

30. Which of the following was most likely to be found in a bedroom in the colder areas of the American colonies?

(A) A linsey-woolsey

(B) A vent from a central healing system

(C) A fireplace

(D) A wood stove

Questions 31-40

Growing tightly packed together and collectively weaving a dense canopy of branches, a stand of red alder trees can totally dominate a site to the exclusion of almost everything else. Certain species such as salmonberry and sword ferns have adapted to the limited sunlight dappling through the canopy, but few evergreen trees (S) will survive there; still fewer can compete with the early prodigious growth of alders. A Douglas fir tree reaches its maximum rate of growth ten years later than an alder, and if the two of them begin life at the same time, the alder quickly outgrows and dominates the Douglas fir. After an alder canopy has closed, the Douglas fir suffers a marked decrease in growth, often dying within seven years. Even more shade-tolerant species of trees such as hemlock may remain badly suppressed beneath aggressive young alders.

(13)  Companies engaged in intensive timber cropping naturally take a dim view of alders suppressing more valuable evergreen trees. But times are changing; a new generation of foresters seems better prepared to Include in their management plans consideration       of the vital ecological role alders, play.

(17)  Among the alder's valuable ecological contributions is its capacity to fix nitrogen in nitrogen-deficient soils. Alder roots contain clusters of nitrogen-fixing nodules like those found on legumes such as beans. in addition, newly developing soils exposed by recent glacier retreat and planted with alders show that these trees are applying the equivalent of ten bags of high-nitrogen fertilizer to each hectare per year. Other chemical changes to soil in which they are growing Include a lowering of the base content and rise In soil acidity, as well as a substantial addition of carbon and calcium to the soil,

(26)  Another important role many alders play in the wild, particularly in mountainous areas, is to check the rush of water during spring melt. In Japan and elsewhere, the trees are planted to stabilize soil on steep mountain slopes. Similarly, alders have been planted to stabilize and rehabilitate waste material left over from old mines, flood deposits, and landslide areas in both Europe and Asia.

31.    What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Differences between alder trees and Douglas fir trees

(B) Alder trees as a source of timber

(C) Management plans for using alder trees to improve soil

(D) The relation of alder trees to their forest environments

32.   The word "dense" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) dark

(B) tall

(C) thick

(D) broad

33.   Alder trees can suppress the growth of nearby trees by depriving them of

(A) nitrogen

(B) sunlight

(C) soil nutrients

(D) water

34.   The passage suggests that Douglas fir trees are

(A) a type of alder

(B) a type of evergreen

(C) similar to sword ferns

(D) fast-growing trees

35.   It can be inferred from paragraph I that hemlock trees

(A) are similar in size to alder trees.

(B) interfere with the growth of Douglas fir trees

(C) reduce the number of alder trees In the forest

(D) need less sunlight than do Douglas fir trees

36.   It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that previous generations of foresters

(A) did not study the effects of alders on forests

(B) did not want alders In forests

(C) harvested alders for lumber

(D) used alders to control the growth of evergreens

37.   The word "they" in line 23 refers to

(A) newly developing soils

(B) alders

(C) bags

(D) chemical changes

38. According to the passage that alders are used in mountainous areas to

(A) nitrogen

(B) calcium

(C) carbon

(D) oxygen

39.   It can be Inferred from the passage that alders are used in mountainous areas to

(A) prevent water from carrying away soil

(B) hold the snow

(C) protect mines

(D) provide material for housing

40.   What is the author's main purpose in the passage?

(A) To argue that alder trees are useful in forest management

(B) To explain the life cycle of alder trees

(C) To criticize the way alders take over and eliminate forests

(D) To illustrate how alder trees control soil erosion

Questions 41-50

In taking ups new life across the Atlantic, the early European settlers of the United States did not abandon the diversions with which their ancestors had traditionally relieved the tedium of life. Neither the harshness of existence on the new continent nor the scattered population nor the disapproval of the clergy discouraged the majority from the pursuit of pleasure.

(7) City and country dwellers, of course, conducted this pursuit in different ways. Farm dwellers in their isolation not only found it harder to locate companions in play but also thanks to the unending demands and pressures of their work, felt it necessary to combine fun with purpose. No other set of colonists too so seriously one expression of the period. "Leisure Is time for doing something useful." in the countryside farmers therefore relieved the burden of the daily routine with such double-purpose relaxation as hunting, fishing, and trapping. When a neighbor needed help, families rallied from miles around to assist In building a house or barn, husking corn, shearing sheep, or chopping wood. Food, drink, and celebration after the group work provided relaxation and soothed weary muscles.

(18)  The most eagerly anticipated social events were the rural fairs, Hundreds of men, women, and children attended from far and near. The men bought or traded farm animals and acquired needed merchandise while the women displayed food prepared in their kitchens, and everyone, Including the youngsters, watched or participated in a variety of competitive sports, with prizes awarded to the winners. These events typically included horse races, wrestling matches, and foot races, as well as some nonathletic events such as whistling competitions. No other occasions did so much to relieve the isolation of farm existence.

(27)  With the open countryside everywhere at hand, city dwellers naturally shared in some of the rural diversions. Favored recreations included fishing, hunting1 skating, and swimming. But city dwellers also developed other pleasures. which only compact communities made possible.

41.     What is the passage mainly about?

(A) Methods of farming used by early settlers of the United States

(B) Hardships faced by the early settlers of the United States

(C) Methods of buying, selling, and trading used by early settlers of the United States

(D) Ways in which early settlers of the United States relaxed

42. What can be inferred about the diversions of the early settlers of the United States?

(A) They followed a pattern begun in Europe.

(B) They were enjoyed more frequently than in Europe.

(C) The clergy organized them.

(D) Only the wealthy participated in them.

43.    Which of 'he following can be said about the country dwellers' attitude toward "the pursuit of pleasure"?

(A) They felt that it should help keep their minds on their work.

(B) They felt that it was not necessary.

(C) They felt that it should be. productive.

(D) They felt that it should not involve eating and drinking.

44.    The phrase "thanks to" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) grateful for

(B) help with

(C) because of

(D) machines for

45.    The word "their" in line B refers to

(A) ways

(B) farm dwellers

(C) demands

(D) pressures

46.    What is meant by the phrase "double-purpose" in line 13 ?

(A) Very frequent

(B) Useful and enjoyable

(C) Extremely necessary

(D) Positive and negative

47.    The phrase "eagerly anticipated" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) well organized

(B) old-fashioned

(C) strongly opposed

(D) looked forward to

48.     Which of the following can be said about the rural diversions mentioned in the last paragraph in which city dwellers also participated?

(A) They were useful to the rural community.

(B) They involved the purchase items useful in the home.

(C) They were activities that could be done equally easily in the towns

(D) They were all outdoor activities.

49.    What will the author probably discuss in the paragraph following this passage?

(A) The rural diversions enjoyed by both urban and rural people

(B) Leisure activities of city dwellers

(C) Building methods of the early settlers in rural areas

(D) Changes in the lifestyles of settlers' as they moved to the cities

50.     Where in the passage does the author mention factors that might prevent people from enjoying themselves?

(A) Lines 3-6

(B) Lines 14-16

(C) Lines 20-24

(D) Lines 29-30

1998年8月托福语法试题

B

1. Because air is highly compressible, --- to define a clear upper boundary of the atmosphere.

(A) it is impossible

(B) impossible is

(C) so the impossibility

(D) is the impossibility

2. BASIC, the acronym for Beginner's All-purpose Symbolic Instruction Code, is a high–level Instruction Code, is a high–level computer programming language--.

(A) learning relatively simple

(B) related it simply to learning

(C) simple and relative to learn

(D) that is relatively simple to learn

3. ---Frances Perkins held the post of labor secretary for twelve years.

(A) The first woman appointed by a United States President to a cabinet position was

(B) The first woman appointed by a United States President to a cabinet position

(C) Appointed by a United States President to a cabinet position was the first woman who

(D) The first woman was appointed by a United States President to a cabinet position who

4. --- at the turn of the century, the Minnesota State Capitol building is made of white granite and marble.

(A) Erected

(B) Was erected

(C) To erect it

(D) Erecting it

5. A stream of volcanic lava flows differently, -- on the sort of ground it flows over.

(A) to depend

(B) depending

(C) that dependent

(D) when it depended

6. --- large amounts of vitamin E found in green leaves, such as lettuce, and in cereals, especially in wheat germ.

(A) The

(B) They have

(C) There are

(D) Because of

7. A popular belief --- radio and television have homogenized the language of the United States.

(A) states that

(B) that is stated

(C) that states

(D) stating that

8. The astronomical unit is the average distance of the Earth from the Sun --- is the standard of distances in the Solar System.

(A) and

(B) also

(C) in addition

(D) because

9. In 1952 Ernest Hemingway published The Old Man and the Sea----

(A) won him the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1954

(B) and the Nobel Prize for Literature won in 1954

(C) in 1954 won the Nobel Prize for Literature for this work.

(D) a work that won him the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1954

10. Many birds have feathers----with their surroundings.

(A) colors blend

(B) that colors to blend

(C) whose colors blend

(D) of which the colors that blend

11. Mosaic is the art of closely setting small, colored pieces, such as stone or glass, into a surface --.

(A) and create a decorative design

(B) and a decorative design creates

(C) to create a decorative design

(D) that a decorative design is created

12.--- that distinguish human beings from mother primates are related to the ability of people to stand upright and walk on two legs.

(A) Many of the physical characteristics

(B) Of the many physical characteristics

(C) The physical characteristics

(D) There are many physical characteristics

13. The letters of Abigail Adams to her husband and future President, John, --- during the American Revolution, conveyed a vivid picture of the times

(A) were written

(B) which written

(C) written

(D) written when

14. The lenses in an optical microscope bend the light passing through a specimen to form an image of that specimen that is much larger --- actually viewed.

(A) Than it

(B) Than the one

(C) One than

(D) Than one which

15. Not only --- as a cooked dish the world over, but it is also used as the base of many other foods, condiments, and even beverages.

(A) eating rice

(B) rice is eaten

(C) people eat rice

(D) is rice eaten

16. According to modern astronomers, the space between the planets and stars is not empty; rather he is filled with something called dark matter;

17. In the late nineteenth century, journalist and publisher William Randolph Hearst established a vast publishing empire that included Eighteen newspapers in twelve city.

18. Because the diamond is the hardest naturally substance, it is used in industry for to cut, grinding, and boring other hard materials.

19. An electromagnet will remain magnetized only as longer as electricity flows through it

20. Being chemical compounds, minerals have characteristic shapes and colors, whereas do rocks not.

21. Some of the first aerial photographs were taken from a balloon while the Civil War in the United States.

22. Beyond their importance as a source of food for both people and animals, corn is also used to produce alcohol-based fuels.

23. The Bollingen Prize in poetry established of the Bollingen Foundation, is a $1,000 award for the year's highest achievement in poetry in the United States.

24. For more eighty years, scientists have argued over whether life exists on the planet Mars.

25. Ludmilla Turkevich, known as a translator and scholar in the field of Russian literature, she became a member of the faculty of Princeton University during the Second World War.

26. The Architectural History Foundation was established in 1977 to support  the publication of important book on architecture.

27. Wildlife photographers are involved of a new government project to  docum the 50 most endangered species in the United States.

28. Most bats roost in crevices, caves, or building by day and are active at night or  twilight.

29. Changes within the chemist structure of single genes may be induced by exposure to radiation and extreme temperatures.

30. A landmark famous, the Brooklyn Bridge in New Yolk was one of the first woven wire cable suspension bridges ever constructed.

31. Industry's need for more and minerals is a constant challenge to the mining industry to make new discoveries.

32. The waters of Hanauma Bay in Oahu, Hawaii, are known for the color, diversity and abundant of their tropical fish.

33. The United States government program Head Start prepares children for school encourages the involvement of local communities  in the children's Development.

34. Brown rice has great nutritional value than white rice because the nutrient-rice outer layers of the rice kernel are not removed from brown rice.

35. After 1845, pestilence spread in Boston, but before then, Boston was a city in which the life span of its citizens was long and disease was rarely.

36. Entomologists, scientists who study insects, are often concerned with the fungus, poisonous, or virus carried by a particular insect.

37. The eight stripes of red, white, and blue on state flag of Hawaii represent Hawaii's eight major islands.

38. Cool temperatures, shade, moist, and the presence of dead organic material provide the ideal living conditions for mushrooms.

39. Metalworkers use the term "machine tool" to refer to a piece of an equipment used for shaping metal.

40. In pools, goldfish are not just ornamental: since they feed on mosquito larva they are also benefit.

C

Questions: 1-10

A seventeenth-century theory of burning proposed that anything that burns must contain material that the theorists called "phlogiston." Burning was explained as the release of phlogiston from the combustible material to the air. Air was thought essential, since it had to provide a home for the released phlogiston. There would be a limit to the phlogiston transfer, since a given volume of air could absorb only so much phlogiston. When the air had become saturated, no additional amounts of phlogiston could leave the combustible substance, and the burning would stop. Burning would also stop when the combustible substance was emptied of all its phlogiston.

(10)  Although the phlogiston theory was self-consistent, it was awkward because it required that imaginative, even mysterious, properties be ascribed to phlogiston. Phlogiston was elusive. No one had ever isolated it and experimentally determined its properties. At times it seemed to show a negative weight: the residue left after burning weighed more than the material before burning. This was true, for example, when magnesium burned. Sometimes phlogiston seemed to show a positive weight, when, for example, wood burned, the ash weighed less than the starting material. And since so little residue was left when alcohol, kerosene, or high-grade coal burned, these obviously different materials were thought to be pure or nearly pure phlogiston.

(21)  In the eighteenth century, Antoine Lavoisier, on the basis of careful experimentation, was led to propose a different theory of burning, one that required a constituent of air- later shown to be oxygen- for combustion. Since the weight of the oxygen is always added, the weight of the products of combustion, including the evolved gases, would always be greater than the weight of the starting material.

(27)  Lavoisier's interpretation was more reasonable and straightforward than that of the phlogiston theorists. The phlogiston theory, always clumsy, became suspect, eventually fell into scientific disrepute, and was replaced by new ideas.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The chemical composition of phlogiston.

(B) Attempts to explain what happens when materials burn.

(C) Limitations of seventeenth-century scientific theories.

(D) The characteristics of the residue left after fires.

2. The word "it" in line 4 refers to

(A) burning

(B) phlogiston

(C) combustible material

(D) air

3. The "phlogiston transfer" mentioned in line 5 is a term used to describe the

(A) natural limits on the total volume of phlogiston

(B) absence of phlogiston in combustible material

(C) ability of phlogiston to slow combustion

(D) release of phlogiston into the air from burning material

4. The word "properties" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) interpretations

(B) locations

(C) characteristics

(D) virtues

5. The phrase "ascribed to" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) analyzed and isolated in

(B) returned to their original condition in

(C) assumed to be true of

(D) diagrammed with

6. The author mentions magnesium in line 15 as an example of a substance that

(A) seemed to have phlogiston with a negative weight

(B) leaves no residue after burning

(C) was thought to be made of nearly pure phlogiston

(D) was thought to contain no phlogiston

7. The "different materials" mentioned in line 19 were considered different because they

(A) required more heat to burn than other substances did

(B) burned without leaving much residue

(C) were more mysterious than phlogiston

(D) contained limited amounts of phlogiston

8. The word "constituent" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) component

(B) opposite

(C) principle

(D) temperature

9. The word "Since" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) later

(B) because

(C) during

(D) although

10. Which of the following is true of both the phlogiston theory of burning and Lavoisier's theory of burning?

(A) Both theories propose that total weight always increases during burning.

(B) Both theories are considered to be reasonable and straightforward.

(C) Both theories have difficulty explaining why residue remains after burning.

(D) Both theories recognize that air is important to combustion.

Questions 11-22

Iron production was revolutionized in the early eighteenth century when coke was first used instead of charcoal for refining iron ore. Previously the poor quality of the iron had restricted its use in architecture to items such as chains and tie bars for supporting arches, vaults, and walls. With the improvement in refining ore, it was now possible to make cast-iron beams, columns, and girders. During the nineteenth century further advances were made, notably Bessemer's process for converting iron into steel, which made the material more commercially viable.

(9)     Iron was rapidly adopted for the construction of bridges, because its strength was far greater than that of stone or timber, but its use in the architecture of buildings developed more slowly. By 1800 a complete internal iron skeleton for buildings had been developed in industrial architecture replacing traditional timber beams, but it generally remained concealed. Apart from its low cost, the appeal of iron as a building material lay in its strength, its resistance to fire, and its potential to span vast areas. As a result, iron became increasingly popular as a structural material for more traditional styles of architecture during the nineteenth century, but it was invariably concealed.

(19)  Significantly, the use of exposed iron occurred mainly in the new building types spawned by the Industrial Revolution: in factories, warehouses, commercial offices, exhibition halls, and railroad stations, where its practical advantages far outweighed its lack of status. Designers of the railroad stations of the new age explored the potential of iron, covering huge areas with spans that surpassed the great vauits of medieval churches and cathedrals. Paxton's Crystal Palace, designed to house the Great Exhibition of 1851, covered an area of 1848 feet by 408 feet in prefabricated units of glass set in iron frames. The Paris Exhibition of 1889 included both the widest span and the greatest height achieved so far with the Halle does Machines, spanning 362 feet, and the Eiffel Tower 1,000 feet high. However, these achievements were mocked by the artistic elite of Paris as expensive and ugly follies. Iron, despite its structural advantages, had little aesthetic status. The use of an exposed iron structure in the more traditional styles of architecture was slower to develop.

11. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Advances in iron processing in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries

(B) The effects of the Industrial Revolution on traditional architectural styles

(C) Advantages of stone and timber over steel as a building material

(D) The evolution of the use of iron in architecture during the 1800's

12. The word "revolutionized" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) quickly started

(B) gradually opened

(C) dramatically changed

(D) carefully examined

13. According to the passage, iron was NOT used for beams, columns, and girders prior to the early eighteenth century because

(A) all available iron was needed for other purposes

(B) limited mining capability made iron too expensive

(C) iron was considered too valuable for use in public buildings

(D) the use of charcoal for refining are produced poor quality iron

14. Iron replaced stone and timber in the building of bridges because iron was considered

(A) more beautiful

(B) new and modern

(C) much stronger

(D) easier to transport

15. The word "it" in line 13 refers to

(A) industrial architecture

(B) internal iron skeleton

(C) stone

(D) strength

16. The word "appeal" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) adjustment

(B) assignment

(C) attraction

(D) attempt

17. The word "spawned" in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) Created

(B) maintained

(C) rejected

(D) exposed

18. The word "surpassed" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) imitated

(B) exceeded

(C) approached

(D) included

19. According to paragraph 3, the architectural significance of the Halle des Machines was its

(A) wide span

(B) great height

(C) unequaled beauty

(D) prefabricated units of glass

20.    How did the artistic elite mentioned in the passage react to the buildings at the Paris Exhibition?

(A) They tried to copy them.

(B) They ridiculed them.

(C) They praised them.

(D) They refused to pay to see them.

21.   It can be inferred that the delayed use of exposed iron structures in traditional styles of architecture is best explained by the

(A) impracticality of using iron for small, noncommercial buildings

(B)   association of iron architecture with the problems of the Industrial Revolution

(C)  general belief that iron offered less resistance to fire and harsh weather than traditional materials

(D)   general perception that iron structures were not aesthetically pleasing

22.   The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses

(A) the gradual inclusion of exposed iron in traditional styles of architecture

(B)  further improvements in iron processing methods

(C)  the return to traditional building materials for use in commercial structures

(D) the decreased use of stone and timber as a building material

Questions 23~32

The most easily recognizable meteorites are the iron variety, although they only represent about 5 percent of all meteorite falls. They are composed of iron and nickel along with sulfur, carbon, and traces of other elements. Their composition is thought to he similar to that of Earth's iron core, and indeed they might have once made up the core of a large planetoid that disintegrated long ago. Due to their dense structure, iron meteorites have the best chance of surviving an impact, and most are found by farmers plowing their fields.

(9)   One of the best hunting grounds for meteorites is on the glaciers of Antarctica1 where the dark stones stand out in stark contrast to the white snow and ice. When meteorites fall on the continent, they are embedded in the moving ice sheets. At places where the glaciers move upward against mountain ranges, meteorites are left exposed on the surface. Some of the meteorites that have landed in Antarctica are believed to have conic from the Moon and even as far away as Mars, when large impacts blasted out chunks of material and hurled them toward Earth.

(17)  Perhaps the world's largest source of meteorites is the Nullarbor Plain, an area of limestone that stretches for 400 miles along the southern coast of Western and South Australia. The pale, smooth desert plain provides a perfect backdrop for spotting meteorites, which are usually dark brown of black. Since very little erosion takes place, the meteorites are well preserved and are found just where they landed. Over 1,000 fragments from 150 meteorites that fell during the last 20,000 years have been recovered. One large iron meteorite, called the Mundrabilla meteorite, weighed more than 11 tons.

(26)  Stony meteorites, called chordates, are the most common type and make up more than 90 percent of all falls . But because they are similar to Earth materials and therefore erode easily, they are often difficult to find. Among the most ancient bodies in the solar system are the carbonaceous chondrites that also contain carbon compounds that might have been the precursors of life on Earth.

23. What is the passage mainly about?

(A) Finding meteorites on Earth's surface

(B) How the composition of meteorites is similar to that of Earth

(C) Why most meteorites do not survive impact with Earth

(D)  The origins of meteorites

24. The word "core" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A)  center

(B)  surface

(C)  mineral

(D)  field

25. The author mentions "dark stones" and "white snow" in line 10 to illustrate that.

(A) meteorites are found most often in Antarctica

(B) glaciers stop meteorites from mixing with soil

(C) meteorites are easier to find in glacial areas

(D) most of Antarctica is covered with meteorites

26. The word "embedded" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A)  isolated

(B)  encased

(C)  enhanced

(D)  enlarged

27. The word "spotting" in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A)  removing

(B)  identifying

(C)  cooling

(D)  falling

28. The passage suggests that which of the following is most commonly responsible for the poor preservation of meteorites that fall to Earth?

(A)  The size of the fragments

(B)  Ice sheets

(C)  Erosion

(D)  Desert heat

29. Where was the Mundrabilla meteorite discovered?

(A)  On the Nullarbor Plain

(B)  In a field

(C)  On a mountain

(D)  In Antarctica

30. The word "they" in line 28 refers to

(A)  stony meteorites

(B)  falls

(C)  Earth materials

(D)  ancient bodies

31. Why does the author mention carbonaceous chondrites (line 29)?

(A) They are the largest meteorites found on Earth

(B) They are most likely to be found whole.

(C) They come from outside the solar system.

(D) They may be related to the origins of life on Earth.

32. According to the passage, stony meteorites are

(A) composed of fragmented materials

(B) less likely to be discovered than iron meteorites

(C) mostly lost in space

(D) found only on the Nullarbor Plain

Questions 33-41

A pioneering set of experiments has been important in the revolution in our understanding of animal behavior-a revolution that eroded the behaviorist dogma that only humans have minds. These experiments were designed to detect consciousness-that is, signs of self-awareness or self-recognition-in animals other than humans.

(6)   The scientific investigation of an experience as private as consciousness is frustratingly beyond the usual tools of the experimental psychologist. This may be one reason that many researchers have shied away from the notion of mind and consciousness in nonhuman animals. In the late 1960's, however, psychologist Gordon Gallup devised a test of the sense of self: the mirror test. if an animal were able to recognize its reflection in a mirror as "self," then it could be said to possess an awareness of self, or consciousness. It is known that a cat or a dog reacts to its own image in mirror, but often it treats it as that of another individual whose behavior very soon becomes puzzling and boring.

(16)  The experiment called for fanuliarizing the animal with the mirror and then marking the animal's forehead with a red spot. If the animal saw the reflection as just another individual, it might wonder about the curious red spot and might even touch the mirror. But if the animal realized that the reflection was of itself, it would probably touch the spot on its own body. The first time Gallup tried the experiment with a chimpanzee, the animal acted as if it knew that the reflection was its own, it touched the red spot on its forehead. Gallup' report of the experiment, published in a. 1970 article, was a milestone in our understanding of animal minds and psychologists wondered how widespread self-recognition would prove to be.

28. The word "dogma" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A)  evaluation

(B)  proof

(C)  intention

(D)  belief

34.    The word "detect" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A)  imitate the behavior of

(B)  provide a reason for

(C)  discover the presence of

(D)  report a need for

35. Which of the following statements best describes the behaviorist position with regard to consciousness in nonhuman animals?

(A)    Most nonhuman animals show signs of self-consciousness.

(B)    Most monhuman animals can be taught self-consciousness.

(C)    Chimpanzees are the only nonhuman animals that have a human level of self-consciousness.

(D)    Nonhuman animals do not possess self-consciousness

36. The author suggests that researchers before 1960 probably avoided studying nonhuman animal consciousness because they

(A) did not wish to experiment with live animal subjects

(B) were discouraged by earlier unsuccessful experiments that studied human consciousness

(C) had not yet devised adequate research methods for animal consciousness experiments

(D) lacked the necessary laboratory equipment

37. The phrase "shied away from" in line 8-9 is closest in meaning to

(A)  approached

(B)  avoided

(C)  respected

(D)  allowed

38. What does the author mean when stating in line 16 that "The experiment called for familiarizing the animal with the mirror"?

(A)  The experiment required the use of a chimpanzee that had not participated in previous mirror tests.

(B)      Gallup had to allow the chimpanzee to become accustomed to the mirror before he began the experiment.

(C)    Gallup had to teach the chimpanzee to recognize its reflection in the mirror.

(D)     The chimpanzee had to first watch the experiment being conducted with another chimpanzee.

39. The word "it" in line 18 refers to

(A)  red spot

(B)  animal

(C)  reflection

(D)  another individual

40.    The chimpanzee in Gallup's first experiment responded to the mirror test by touching

(A)  its own forehead

(B)  the researcher's forehead

(C)  the red spot on the mirror

(D) the red spot on another chimpanzee

41. The word "milestone" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A)  significant development

(B)  initial step

(C)  universal concept

(D)  obstruction to progress

Questions 42-50

Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of Earth's ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In most situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other types of activities, such as disposal and run off of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have unraveled cons of evolution and irrevocably redirected its course.

(16) Certainly, there have been periods in Earth's history when mass extinctions have occurred. The extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There have also been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance that determined which species survived and which died out.

(23)  However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to biological devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to survive in new environments.

42. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A)    The causes of the extinction of the discuss?

(B)    The variety of species found in tropical rain forests.

(C)    The impact of human activities on Earth's ecosystems

(D)    The time required for species to adapt to new environments

43.    The word "critical" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A)  negative

(B)  essential

(C)  interesting

(D)  complicated

44.    The word  "jolting" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A)  predicted

(B)    shocking

(C)  unknown

(D)  illuminating

45.      The author mentions the reduction of the variety of species on Earth in lines 13 - 15 to suggest that

(A) new habitats can be created for species

(B)    humans are often made ill by polluted water

(C)    some species have been made extinct by human activity

(D)      an understanding of evolution can prevent certain species from disappearing

46.    The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans oil the world's ecosystems EXCEPT

(A)   destruction of the tropical rain forests

(B)  habitat destruction in wetlands

(C)  damage to marine ecosystems

(D)    the introduction of new varieties  of plant species

47. The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in the second paragraph to emphasize that

(A)    the cause of the dinosaurs extinction is unknown

(B)      Earth's climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs' extinction,

(C)    not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity

(D)    actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species' extinction

48. The word "magnitude" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A)  concern

(B)  determination

(C)  carelessness

(D)  extent

49.      According to the passage, natural evolutionary change is different from changes caused by humans in that changes caused by humans

(A) are occurring at a much faster rate

(B) are less devastating to most species

(C) affect fewer ecosystems

(D) are reversible

50. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?

(A)    human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy.

(B)      The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress.

(C)    Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems.

(D)    humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems

1998年10月托福语法试题

B

1. The socialization process explains ______ of societies through successive generations but also the ability of a society’s members to have meaningful interactions.

(A) that continuity, only not

(B) continuity, only not that

(C) the only continuity not

(D) not only the continuity

2. Heat transfer takes place when ___ with a warmer substance.

(A) is there a colder substance

(B) a colder substance comes into contact

(C) does the colder substance contact

(D) contacts a colder substance

3. Formerly called natural philosophy, physics has retained __ of understanding the structure of the natural world and explaining natural phenomena.

(A) its original aim

(B) it aimed originally

(C) its original aim was

(D) aiming originally

4. Some bird species have a song that is totally uninfluenced__ environment during their development, whereas other species learn from other birds while young.

(A) the

(B) yet the

(C) since the

(D) by the

5. Prior to the eighteenth century,______ storms formed and died out at the same location.

(A) a common belief that

(B) that a common belief

(C) it was commonly believed that

(D) because it was commonly believed

6. Grown widely in Iowa and Illinois, the soybean provides one of the world’s_____ sources of protein.

(A) useful and cheaper mostly

(B) cheapest and most useful

(C) cheapest and useful mostly

(D) most cheaply and usefully

7. Copper______ used by humans and is second only to iron in its utility through the ages.

(A) the first metal

(B) was the first metal

(C) the first metal that

(D) being the first metal

8.______ are inert outside living cells, but within the appropriate cells they can replicate, causing viral diseases in the host organism.

(A) Viruses

(B) That viruses

(C) Viruses, which

(D) Despite viruses

9. The United States Constitution provides for a count of the population __ a census, every ten years.

(A) that it is called

(B) when called

(C) called

(D) as called

10. Digital recording has made ______ a significantly wider dynamic range, in recorded music.

(A) for the possibility

(B) the possibility is

(C) it is possible

(D) possible

11. Not only______ people to send words, music, and codes to any part of the world, it can also be used to communicate far into space.

(A) enabled by radio

(B) radio enables

(C) does radio enable

(D) radio has enabled

12. Allegory is a literary device___ another level of meaning is concealed within what is usually a story.

(A) which

(B) by which

(C) which is

(D) which it is

13. The fact that______ was discovered in 1923 by the astronomer Edwin Hubble.

(A) the expansion of the universe

(B) the universe is expanding

(C) the universe, which is expanding

(D) when he universe expands.

14. Today______ little fossil ivory remains comes from Alaska.

(A) what

(B) which

(C) there is

(D) where

15. Although most famous for her paintings of the Southwest desert,______ as well.

(A) Georgia O’keeffe painted many urban scenes

(B) the painting of many urban scenes by Georgia O’Keeffe

(C) were many urban scenes painted by Georgia O’Keeffe

(D) Georgia O’Keeffe’s paintings of many urban scenes

16. It was in the 1920's that the arched-top guitar was first developed commercially in the United States and use in dance bands.

17. The intensity of political struggles in the United States after 1824 led to the revival of the two-party system, which had been inactive when 1817.

18. Fluids exert equal pressure in all directions, have identical properties throughout their volume, and theoretically offering no resistance to flow in any direction.

19. Reading has come to be regarded as an integrated part of language study than rather an isolated skill to be practiced out of context.

20. It has been estimated that during every second of our life, 10,000,000 red blood cells died and are replaced by new ones.

21. Periodic fires commonly spread across grasslands and plays an important role in the maintenance and character of these ecosystems.

22. The plots of William Gaddis's novels allow ample opportunity for philosophical, theological, and society digression.

23. In additionally to being Mississippi's capital and largest city, Jackson is also the state's financial and medical center.

24. Feasts and festivals among many Native American tribes in the United States celebration agricultural and lunar events.

25. Neuropsychologist Marilyn Albert is looking beyond brain functions for answers the question "How do emotions and attitudes affect the process of aging?"

26. Incorporated in 1828, Louisville, Kentucky, was named from King Louis XVI of France in recognition of his help during the Revolutionary War.

27. Rainbows are formed by the refraction of sunlight through falling raindrop.

28. Alaska, the largest state of the United states in area, is more than twice the size than Texas.

29. Meridians of longitude and parallels of latitude form grid that can be used to locate the position of any point on the Earth's surface.

30. Mercury and Venus are the only planets in the solar system where do not have moons.

31. Carbohydrates, which include cellulose, sugary, and starches, are the most abundant class of organic substances found in nature.

32. During the pre-Revolutionary period, the press in Britain's North American colonies was subject to licensing laws similar to them of Great Britain itself.

33. In its pure state aluminum is a weak metal, but when combined with elements such as copper or magnesium, it is formed alloys of great strength.

34. Specially bred varieties of lettuce can be grown in water containing dissolved nutritious rather than in soil.

35. Throughout the 1930's United States government patronage the arts was concentrated in the section of the Works Progress Administration known as Federal One.

36. Essential a nineteenth-century instrument, the calliope was usually played outdoors and was a part of fairs, holiday gatherings, and other such activities.

37. Winter broccoli has large, white heads similar to those of cauliflower, whereas sprouting broccoli produces numerous small purplish, green, or white clump.

38. Greenpeace, an international organization of environmental activists founded by Canadians, uses nonviolent means to protest and block activities it considers environmentally harm.

39. Beverly Sills was a child radio star who became one of the world's most dramatically gifted opera singer, making her debut at seventeen.

40. In the practice of Gestalt therapy, many attention is given to nonverbal aspects of behavior.

Questions 1-9

The geology of the Earth's surface is dominated by the particular properties of water. Present on Earth in solid, liquid, and gaseous states, water is exceptionally reactive. It dissolves, transports, and precipitates many chemical compounds and is constantly modifying the face of the Earth.

(5)     Evaporated from the oceans, water vapor forms clouds, some of which are transported by wind over the continents. Condensation from the clouds provides the essential agent of continental erosion: rain. Precipitated onto the ground, the water trickles down to form brooks, streams, and rivers, constituting what is called the hydrographic network. This immense polarized network channels the water toward a single receptacle: an ocean. Gravity dominates this entire step in the cycle because water tends to minimize its potential energy by running from high altitudes toward the reference point that is sea level.

(14)  The rate at which a molecule of water passes though the cycle is not random but is a measure of the relative size of the various reservoirs. If we define residence time as the average time for a water molecule to pass through one of the three reservoirs-atmosphere, continent, and ocean-we see that the times are very different. A water molecule stays, on average, eleven days in the atmosphere, one hundred years on a continent and forty thousand years in the ocean. This last figure shows the importance of the ocean as the principal reservoir of the hydrosphere but also the rapidity of water transport on the continents.

(23)  A vast chemical separation process takes places during the flow of water over the continents. Soluble ions such as calcium, sodium, potassium, and some magnesium are dissolved and transported. Insoluble ions such as aluminum, iron, and silicon stay where they are and form the thin, fertile skin of soil on which vegetation can grow. Sometimes soils are destroyed and transported mechanically during flooding. The erosion of the continents thus results from two closely linked and interdependent processes, chemical erosion and mechanical erosion. Their respective interactions and efficiency depend on different factors.

1. The word "modifying" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) changing

(B) traveling

(C) describing

(D) destroying

2. The word "which" in line 6 refers to

(A) clouds

(B) oceans

(C) continents

(D) compounds

3. According to the passage, clouds are primarily formed by water

(A) precipitating onto the ground

(B) changing from a solid to a liquid state

(C) evaporating from the oceans

(D) being carried by wind

4. The passage suggests that the purpose of the "hydrographic network" (line 19) is to

(A) determine the size of molecules of water

(B) prevent soil erosion caused by flooding

(C) move water from the Earth's surface to the oceans

(D) regulate the rate of water flow from streams and rivers

5. What determines the rate at which a molecule of water moves through the cycle, as discussed in the third paragraph?

(A) The potential energy contained in water

(B) The effects of atmospheric pressure on chemical compounds

(C) The amounts of rainfall that fall on the continents

(D) The relative size of the water storage areas

6. The word "rapidity" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) significance

(B) method

(C) swiftness

(D) reliability

7. The word "they" in line 26 refers to

(A) insoluble ions

(B) soluble ions

(C) soils

(D) continents

8. All of the following are example of soluble ions EXCEPT

(A) magnesium

(B) iron

(C) potassium

(D) calcium

9. The word "efficiency" in line 31 is closest in meaning to

(A) relationship

(B) growth

(C) influence

(D) effectiveness

Questions 10-19

Among the species of seabirds that use the windswept cliffs of the Atlantic coast of Canada in the summer to mate, lay eggs, and rear their young are common murres, Atlantic puffins, black-legged kittiwakes, and northern gannets. Of all the birds on these cliffs, the black-legged kittiwake gull is the best suited for nesting on narrow ledges. Although its nesting habits are similar to those of gulls that nest on flat ground, there are a number of important differences related to the cliff-nesting habit.

(8)     The advantage of nesting on cliffs is the immunity it gives from foxes, which cannot scale the sheer rocks, and from ravens and other species of gulls, which have difficulty in landing on narrow ledges to steal eggs. This immunity has been followed by a relaxation of the defenses, and kittiwakes do not react to predators nearly as fiercely as do ground-nesting gulls. A colony of Bonaparte's gulls responds to the appearance of a predatory herring gull by flying up as a group with a clamor of alarm calls, followed by concerted mobbing, but kittiwakes dimply ignore herring gulls, since they pose little threat to nests on cliffs. Neither do kittiwakes attempt to conceal their nest. Most gulls keep the nest area clear of droppings, and remove empty eggshells after the chicks have hatched, so that the location of the nest is not given away. Kittiwakes defeacate over the edge of the nest, which keeps it clean, but this practice, as well as their tendency to leave the nest littered with eggshells, makes its location very conspicuous.

(23)  On the other hand, nesting on a narrow ledge has its own peculiar problems, and kittiwake behavior has become adapted to overcome them. The female kittiwake sits when mating, whereas other gulls stand, so the pair will not overbalance and fall off the ledge. The nest is a deep cup, made of mud or seaweed, to hold the eggs safely, compared with the shallow scrape of other gulls, and the chicks are remarkably immobile until fully grown. They do not run from their nests when approached, and if they should come near to the cliff edge, they instinctively turn back.

10. What aspect of the kittiwake gull does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Its defensive behavior

(B)  It interactions with other gull species

(C) Its nesting habits

(D) Its physical difference from other gull species

11. The word "rear" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) visit

(B) watch

(C) reverse

(D) raise

12. The word "scale" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) climb

(B) avoid

(C) approach

(D) measure

13. The word "immunity" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) distance

(B) transition

(C) protection

(D) reminder

14. Why is it difficult for ravens to steal the kittiwakes' eggs?

(A) The kittiwakes can see the ravens approaching the nest.

(B) The ravens cannot land on the narrow ledges where kittiwakes nest.

(C) The kittiwakes' eggs are too big for the ravens to carry.

(D) The female kittiwakes rarely leave the nest.

15. The author mentions that eggshells little the nests of kittiwakes in order to

(A) demonstrate that kittiwakes are not concerned about predators

(B) prove how busy kittiwakes are in caring for their offspring

(C) show a similarity to other types of gulls

(D) illustrate kittiwakes' lack of concern for their chicks

16. According to the passage, it can be inferred that which of the following birds conceal their nest?

(A) Bonaparte's gulls

(B) Atlantic puffins

(C) Kittiwake gulls

(D) Northern gannets

17. The word "it" in line 20 refers to

(A) location

(B) edge

(C) nest

(D) practice

18. The word "conspicuous" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) disordered

(B) suspicious

(C) noticeable

(D) appealing

19. The phrase "On the other hand" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) therefore

(B) however

(C) for example

(D) by no means

Questions 20-29

Throughout the nineteenth century and into the twentieth, citizens of the United States maintained a bias against big cities. Most lived on farms and in small towns and believed cities to be centers of corruption, crime, poverty, and moral degradation. Their distrust was caused, in part, by a national ideology that proclaimed farming the greatest occupation and rural living superior to urban living. This attitude prevailed even as the number of urban dwellers increased and cities became an essential feature of the national landscape. Gradually, economic reality overcame ideology. Thousands abandoned the precarious life on the farm for more secure and better paying jobs in the city. But when these people migrated from the countryside, they carried their fears and suspicious with them. These new urbanities, already convinced that cities were overwhelmed with great problems, eagerly embraced the progressive reforms that promised to bring order out of the chaos of the city.

(15)  One of many reforms came in the area of public utilities. Water and sewerage systems were usually operated by municipal governments, but the gas and electric networks were privately owned. Reformers fared that the privately owned utility companies would charge exorbitant rates for these essential services and deliver them only to people who could afford them. Some city and state governments responded by regulating the utility companies, but a number of cities began to supply these services themselves. Proponents of these reforms argued that public ownership and regulation would insure widespread access to these utilities and guarantee a fair price.

(25)  While some reforms focused on government and public behavior, others looked at the cities as a whole. Civic leaders, convinced that physical environment influenced human behavior, argued that cities should develop master plans to guide their future growth and development. City planning was nothing new, but the rapid industrialization and urban growth of the late nineteenth century took place without any consideration for order. Urban renewal in the twentieth century followed several courses. Some cities introduced plans to completely rebuild the city core. Most other cities contented themselves with zoning plans for regulating future growth. Certain parts of town were restricted to residential use, while others were set aside for industrial or commercial development.

20. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) A comparison of urban and rural life in the early twentieth century

(B) The role of government in twentieth century urban renewal

(C) Efforts to improve urban life in the early twentieth century

(D) Methods of controlling urban growth in the twentieth century

21. The word "bias" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) diagonal

(B) slope

(C) distortion

(D) prejudice

22. The first paragraph suggests that most people who lived in rural areas

(A) were suspicious of their neighbors

(B) were very proud of their lifestyle

(C) believed city government had too much power

(D) wanted to move to the cities

23. In the early twentieth century, many rural dwellers migrated to the city in order to

(A) participate in the urban reform movement

(B) seek financial security

(C) comply with a government ordinance

(D) avoid crime and corruption

24. The word "embraced" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) suggested

(B) overestimated

(C) demanded

(D) welcomed

25. What concern did reformers have about privately owned utility companies?

(A) They feared the services would not be made available to all city dwellers.

(B) They believed private ownership would slow economic growth

(C) They did not trust the companies to obey the government regulations.

(D) They wanted to ensure that the services would be provided to rural areas.

26. The word "exorbitant" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) additional

(B) expensive

(C) various

(D) modified

27. All of the following were the direct result of public utility reforms EXCEPT

(A) local governments determined the rates charged by private utility companies

(B) some utility companies were owned and operated by local governments

(C) the availability of services was regulated by local government

(D) private utility companies were required to pay a fee to local governments

28. The word "Proponents" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) Experts

(B) Pioneers

(C) Reviewers

(D) Supporters

29. Why does the author mention "industrialization" (line 29)?

(A) To explain how fast urban growth led to poorly designed cities

(B) To emphasize the economic importance of urban areas

(C) To suggest that labor disputes had become an urban problem

(D) To illustrate the need for construction of new factories

Questions 30-39

By 1776 the fine art of painting as it had developed in western Europe up to this time had been introduced into the American colonies though books and prints, European visitors and immigrants, and traveling colonists who brought back copies (and a few original) of old master paintings and acquaintance with European art institutions.

(6)     By the outbreak of the Revolution against British rule in 1776, the status of the artists had already undergone change. In the mid-eighteenth century, painters had been willing to assume such artisan-related tasks as varnishing, gilding teaching, keeping shops, and painting wheel carriages, houses, and signs. The terminology by which artists were described at the time suggests their status: "limner" was usually applied to the anonymous portrait painter up to the 1760's: "painter" characterized anyone who could paint a flat surface. By the second half of the century, colonial artists who were trained in England or educated in the classics rejected the status of laborer and thought of themselves as artists. Some colonial urban portraitists, such as John Singleton Copley, Benjamin West, and Charles Wilson Peale, consorted with affluent patrons. Although subject to fluctuations in their economic status, all three enjoyed sufficient patronage to allow them to maintain an image of themselves as professional artists, an image indicated by their custom of signing their paintings. A few art collectors James Bowdoin III of Boston, William Byrd of Virginian, and the Aliens and Hamiltons of Philadelphia introduced European art traditions to those colonists privileged to visit their galleries, especially aspiring artists, and established in their respective communities the idea of the value of art and the need for institutions devoted to its encouragement.

(26)  Although the colonists tended to favor portraits, they also accepted landscapes, historical works, and political engravings as appropriate artistic subjects. With the coming of independence from the British Crown, a sufficient number of artists and their works were available to serve nationalistic purposes. The achievements of the colonial artists, particularly those of Copley, West, and Peale, lent credence to the boast that the new nation was capable of encouraging genius and that political liberty was congenial to the development of taste-a necessary step before art could assume an important role in the new republic.

30. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) European influence on colonial American painting

(B) The importance of patronage to artist

(C) The changing status of artists in the American colonies in the eighteenth century

(D) Subjects preferred by artists in the American colonies in the eighteenth century.

31. The word "outbreak" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) cause

(B) beginning

(C) position

(D) explanation

32. The word "undergone" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) led to

(B) transformed

(C) preferred

(D) experienced

33. According to the passage, before the American Revolution the main task of limners was to

(A) paint wheel carriages

(B) paint portraits

(C) varnish furniture

(D) paint flat surfaces

34. It can be inferred from the passage that artists who were trained in England

(A) considered artists to be superior to painters

(B) barely painted portraitists

(C) were often very wealthy

(D) imitated English painters because it

35. The word "consorted" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) made decisions

(B) studies

(C) agreed

(D) associated

36. The word "sufficient" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) adequate

(B) temporary

(C) friendly

(D) expensive

37. According to the passage, artists such as Copley, West and Peal signed their paintings

(A) increased the monetary value of the paintings

(B) made it more difficult for other artists to copy the paintings

(C) supported the artists' image of professionalism

(D) distinguished colonial American artists from European artists

38. The author mentions James Bowdoin III and William Byrd in line 20 as examples of which of the following?

(A) Art gallery owners who displayed only European art

(B) Art collectors who had a profound influence on American attitudes toward art

(C) Artists who gave financial support to other artists

(D) Patrons whose helped to encourage artisans to become artists

39. With which of the following would the author be most likely to agree?

(A) Countries that have not had a political revolution are unlikely to develop great art.

(B) The most successful art collectors are usually artists themselves.

(C) The value of colonial American paintings decreased after the Revolution.

(D) Colonial artists made an important contribution to the evolving culture of the new nation.

Questions 40-50

Railroads reshaped the North American environment and reoriented North American behavior. "In a quarter of a century", claimed the Omaha Daily Republican in 1883, "they have made the people of the United States homogeneous, breaking through the peculiarities and provincialisms which marked separate and unmingling sections."

(6)     The railroad simultaneously stripped the landscape of the natural resources, made velocity of transport and economy of scale necessary parts of industrial production, and carried consumer goods to households; it dispatched immigrants to unsettled places, drew emigrants away from farms and villages to cities, and sent men and guns to battle. It standardized time and travel, seeking to annihilate distance and space by allowing movement at any time and in any season or type of weather. In its grand and impressive terminals and stations, architects recreated historic Roman temples and public baths, French chateaus and Italian bell towers-edifices that people used as stages for many of everyday life's high emotions: meeting and parting, waiting and worrying, planning new starts or coming home.

(18)  Passenger terminals, like the luxury express trains that hurled people over spots, spotlight the romance of railroading. (The twentieth-Century Limited sped between Chicago and New York in twenty hours by 1915). Equally important to everyday life were the slow freight trans chugging through industrial zones, the morning and evening commuter locals shuttling back ions and urban terminals, and the incessant comings and goings that occurred in the classifications, or switching, yards. Moreover, in addition to its being a transportation pathway equipped with a mammoth physical plant of tracks signals, crossings, bridges, and junctions, plus telegraph and telephone lines the railroad nurtured factory complexes, coat piles, warehouses, and generating stations, forming along its right-of-way what has aptly been called "the metropolitan corridor" of the American landscape.

40.What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The influence of ancient architecture on the design of railroad terminals

(B) The importance of natural resources in the development of railroads

(C) The railroad's impact on daily life in the United States in the nineteenth century

(D) Technological improvements in the area of communication in the nineteenth century

41. It can be inferred from the quote from the Omaha Daily Republican (line 2-5) that railroads

(A) made all sections of the nation much

(B) brought more unity to what had been a fragmented nation

(C) reduced dependence on natural resources

(D) had no effect on the environment of the United States

42. The word "it" in line 8 refers to

(A) transport

(B) scale

(C) production

(D) railroad

43. The word "drew" in line 9 is closest

(A) obliged

(B) designed

(C) helped

(D) attracted

44. The word "annihilate" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) conquer

(B) utilize

(C) separate

(D) mechanize

45. The word "Moreover" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) consequently

(B) furthermore

(C) although

(D) because

46. All of the following were true of impressive passenger terminals EXCEPT:

(A) Their architecture was influenced by the architecture of Europe.

(B) Luxury express trains traveled between them.

(C) They were usually located in small towns.

(D) They were important to many commuters.

47. According to the passage, which type of development lined the area along the metropolitan corridor?

(A) Stores and shopping areas

(B) Recreational areas wealthier

(C) Industrial

(D) Agricultural

48. The word "aptly" in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) appropriately

(B) virtually

(C) consistently

(D) incessantly

49. The author mentions the Twentieth-Century Limited as an example of

(A) a freight train

(B) a commuter train

(C) a luxury train

(D) an underground train

50.The author gives a synonym for which of the following words?

(A) Homogeneous (line 4)

(B) Standardized (line 11)

(C) Temples (line 14)

(D) Classification (line 24)

1999年1月TOFEL语法

B

1. Among the first plants to grow on the land regions of the Earth _____, which in prehistoric times grew to immense size

(A) were horsetail rushes

(B) horsetail rushes

(C) horsetail rushes were

(D) and horsetail rushes

2. Unlike fossil fuels, which can be used only once, wind and solar power _____of energy.

(A) for renewable sources

(B) the sources are renewable

(C) are renewable sources

(D) renewable sources

3. __that the first cheese was probably made more than 4,000 years ago by nomadic tribes in Asia.

(A) The belief

(B) Although they believe

(C) It is believed

(D) Believing

4. Today _____ of the Earth live on a very small percentage of the Earth's land surface.

(A) about two-thirds populated

(B) the population is about two-thirds

(C) about two-thirds of the population

(D) of about two-thirds the population is

5. It was in the year 1792 _____

(A) that the New York Stock Exchange was founded

(B) founding the New York Stock Exchange

(C) which year the New York Stock Exchange was founded

(D) the New York Stock Exchange founded

6. Many small birds use new sites for each nesting,_____ large birds often reuse the same nest.

(A) by

(B) how

(C) within

(D) whereas

7. Plateaus are often referred to as tablelands _____ essentially flat-topped and stand conspicuously above an adjacent land area.

(A) because are

(B) because they are

(C) because of their

(D) which because they are

8. Although many contemporary craft objects are not __, they generally have their roots in function.

(A) function

(B) functionally

(C) as function

(D) functional

9. _____ hearing aid was a tube called the ear trumpet, a flared tube held up to the ear.

(A) First

(B) When the first

(C) It was the first

(D) The first

10. Most leaves are coated with a waterproof _____, or cuticle.

(A) that the covering

(B) and is covering

(C) covering

(D) by covering

11. The first glass factory _ the North American continent was started in Jamestown, Virginia, in 1607.

(A) established on

(B) being established

(C) was established on

(D) that established it

12. __in the desert is mainly due to the limited supply of desert water.

(A) Plants are widely spaced

(B) The spacing of plants is wide

(C) Plants to be spaced widely

(D) The wide spacing of plants

13. In addition to painting highly acclaimed portraits, Mary Cassatt was__ to several major art collectors.

(A) to advise

(B) an adviser

(C) advised

(D) advising

14. Spring water is ___ clean, since it has been filtered through permeable rocks, but all spring water contains some dissolved minerals.

(A) generally fair

(B) generally fairly

(C) in general fair

(D) general and fair

15. All eels spawn in the sea, the eggs hatching into transparent, ribbonlike larvae ____, feeding until they metamorphose into small eels.

(A) that drift about

(B) drift about

(C) about drifting

(D) drift about them

16. Citrus fruits thrive in quite very tropical climates.

17. Carson McCullers was fame for her novels about  life in the small towns of the southern United States.

18. Because the atmosphere of Mars is so thin. Wind velocities of several hundred kilometers per hour are required to raised dust particles during dust storms.

19.  Lumbering. The remove of timber from the forest, is a major industry in the Northwest region of North America.

20. The asphalt deposits of La Brea Tar Pit in California have yielded fossils of numerous animal of the Pleistocene epoch, including the giant ground sloth.

21. Located in the center of the continental United States and known for its endless wheat fields, Kansas is one of the nation's leading agriculturally states.

22. An intrinsic part of the sound structure of poet, the repetition of a consonant sound or sounds, may also be exhibited in prose.

23. People feel uncomfortable when the humidity rises over 60 percent because perspiration cannot evaporate quickly enough for the body to rid themselves of excess heat.

24. While infancy, the period from birth until the age of two. A child grows to approximately half of his or her adult height.

25. The Pulitzer Prizes ate annual awards for excellence in United States journalism, literature, and musical.

26. Judgments made in a criminal cases can usually be appealed to a higher count which can either overturn or uphold a lower court ruling.

27. Science fiction is any fiction dealing with the future or with so imaginative subjects as interstellar travel, life on other planets, or time travel.

28. The wingspread of various species of bats range from over five feet to less than two inches.

29. The harmonica's tones are made by the vibrations of the feeds created by the blowing and suction to the player.

30. The constitution of 1897, under which Delaware is now governed, is fourth constitution in the history of the state.

31. Because most photographic filters work by subtract portions of visible light from the subject, they decrease the intensity of light that reaches the film.

32. In a vacuum discharge tube at ordinary voltages and currents, neon glows reddish-orange and is the mostly intense of all the rare gases.

33. Although E.E. Cummings studied art in Paris, but his writings attracted much more interest than his paintings.

34. Because material organic decays slowly in peat, the remains of prehistoric animals are often found in the depths of peat hogs.

35. Usually an atom having one, two, or three electrons in its valence band readily contributes electrons to and receive electrons from neighboring atoms.

36. A symbol of freedom, the Statue of Liberty represents a woman has just escaped from the chains of slavery, which lie at her feet.

37. The southwestern portion of the United States is a land of little rain, and parts of it are too dry that they are called deserts.

38.    Seneca chief Corn-planter helped arrange treaties between many United States settler and Native American tribes in western Pennsylvania after the American Revolutionary War.

39. Mercury is so much close to the Sun that it is usually invisible in the glare of the Sun's rays.

40. Pollen can be transferred by the wind or by birds that comes into contact with flowers.

C

Question1-12

The Native Americans of northern California were highly skilled at basketry, using the reeds, grasses, bards, and roots they found around them to fashion articles of all sorts and sizes - not only trays, containers, and cooking pots, but hats, boats, fish traps, baby carriers, and ceremonial objects.

(6)     Of all these experts, none excelled the Pomo - a group who lived on or near the coast during the 1800's, and whose descendants continue to live in parts of the same region to the same region to this day. They made baskets three feet in diameter and others no bigger than a thimble. The Pomo people were masters of decoration. Some of their baskets were completely covered with shell pendants; others with feathers that made the baskets' surfaces as soft as the breasts of birds. Moreover, the Pomo people made use of more weaving techniques than did their neighbors. Most groups made all their basketwork by twining - the twisting of a flexible horizontal material, called a weft, around stiffer vertical strands of material, the warp. Others depended primarily on coiling - a process in which a continuous coil of stiff material is held in the desired shape with tight wrapping of flexible strands. Only the Pomo people used both processes with equal case and frequency. In addition, they made use of four distinct variations on the basic twining process, often employing more than one of them in a single article.

(22)  Although a wide variety of materials was available, the Pomo people used only a few. The warp was always made of willow, and the most commonly used welt was sedge root, a woody fiber that could easily be separated into strands no thicker than a thread. For color, the Pomo people used the bark of redbud for their twined work and dyed bullrush root for black in coiled work. Though other materials were sometimes used, these four were the staples in their finest basketry.

If the basketry materials used by the Pomo people were limited, the designs were amazingly varied. Every Pomo basketmaker knew how to produce from fifteen to twenty distinct patterns that could be combined in a number of different ways.

1. What best distinguished Pomo baskets from baskets of other groups?

(A) The range of sizes, shapes, and designs

(B) The unusual geometric

(C) The absence of decoration

(D) The rare materials used

2. The word "fashion" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) maintain

(B) organize

(C) trade

(D) create

3. The Pomo people used each of the following materials to decorate baskets EXCEPT

(A) shells

(B) feathers

(C) leaves

(D) bark

4. What is the author's main point in the second paragraph?

(A) The neighbors of the Pomo people tried to improve on the Pomo basket weaving techniques.

(B) The Pomo people were the most skilled basket weavers in their region.

(C) The Pomo people learned their basket weaving techniques from other Native Americans.

(D) The Pomo baskets have been handed down for generations.

5. The word "others" in line 11 refers to

(A) masters

(B) baskets

(C) pendants

(D) surfaces

6. According to the passage is a

(A) tool for separating sedge root

(B) process used for coloring baskets

(C) pliable maternal woven around the warp

(D) pattern used to decorate baskets

7. According to the passage, what did the Pomo people use as the warp in their baskets?

(A) Bulrush

(B) willow

(C) Sedge

(D) Redbud

8. The word "article" in line 21 is close in meaning to

(A) decoration

(B) shape

(C) design

(D) object

9. According to the passage. The relationship between redbud and twining is most similar to the relationship between

(A) bulrush and coiling

(B) weft and warp

(C) willow and feathers

(D) sedge and weaving

10. The word "staples" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) combinations

(B) limitations

(C) accessories

(D) basic elements

11.    The word "distinct" in lime 31 is closest in meaning to

(A) systematic

(B) beautiful

(C) different

(D) compatible

12. Which of the following statements about Pomo baskets can be best inferred from the passage?

(A) Baskets produced by other Native Americans were less varied in design than those of the Pomo people.

(B) Baskets produced by Pomo weavers were primarily for ceremonial purposes.

(C) There was a very limited number of basketmaking materials available to the Pomo people.

(D) The basketmaking production of the Pomo people has increased over the years.

Questions 13-20

Any rock that has cooled and solidified from a molten state is an igneous rock. Therefore, if the Earth began as a superheated sphere in space, all the rocks making up its crust may well have been igneous and thus the ancestors of all other rocks. Even today, approximately 95 percent (5) of the entire crust is igneous. Periodically, molten material wells out of the Earth's interior to invade the surface layers or to flow onto the surface itself. This material cools into a wide variety of igneous rocks. In the molten state, it is called magma as it pushes into the crust and lava when it runs out onto the surface.

(10)  All magma consists basically of a variety of silicate minerals (high in silicon-oxygen compounds), but the chemical composition of any given flow may differ radically from that of any other. The resulting igneous rocks will reflect these differences. Igneous rocks also vary in texture as well as chemistry. Granite, for instance, is a coarse-grained igneous rock (15) whose individual mineral crystals have formed to a size easily seen by the naked eye. A slow rate of cooling has allowed the crystals to reach this size. Normally, slow cooling occurs when the crust is invaded by magma that remains buried well below the surface. Granite may be found on the surface of the contemporary landscape, but from its coarse texture we know that it must have formed through slow cooling at a great depth and later been laid bare by erosion. Igneous rocks with this coarse-grained texture that formed at depth are called plutonic.

(23)  On the other hand, if the same magma flows onto the surface and is quickly cooled by the atmosphere, the resulting rock will be fine-grained and appear quite different from granite, although the chemical composition will be identical. This kind of rock is called rhyolite. The most finely grained igneous rock is volcanic glass or obsidian, which has no crystals. Some researchers believe this is because of rapid cooling; others believe it is because of a lack of water vapor and other gases in the lava. The black obsidian cliffs of Yellowstone National Park are the result of a lava flow of basalt running head on into a glacier. Some of the glacier melted on contact, but suddenly there also appeared a huge black mass of glassy stone.

13. In the first paragraph, the author mentions that

(A) the Earth began as a molten mass

(B) a thin layer of magma flows beneath the Earth's crust

(C) the minerals found in igneous rock are very common

(D) igneous rock is continually being formed

14. The word "invade" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) move into

(B) neutralize

(C) cover

(D) deposit

15. The word "contemporary" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) vast

(B) natural

(C) existing

(D) uneven

16. The word "it" in line 20 refers to

(A) granite

(B) surface

(C) landscape

(D) texture

17. Granite that has been found above ground has been

(A) pushed up from below the crust by magma

(B) produced during a volcanic explosion

(C) gradually exposed due to erosion

(D) pushed up by the natural shifting of the Earth

18. Which of the following is produced when magma cools rapidly?

(A) Granite

(B) Plutonic rock

(C) Rhyolite

(D) Mineral crystals

19. The word "finely" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) minutely

(B) loosely

(C) sensitively

(D) purely

20. Which of the following is another name for volcanic glass?

(A) Plutonic rock

(B) Crystal

(C) Lava

(D) Obsidian

Questions 21-33

Although only 1 person in 20 in the Colonial period lived in a city, the cities had a disproportionate influence on the development of North America. They were at the cutting edge of social change. It was in the cities that the elements that can be associated with modern capitalism first (5) appeared - the use of money and commercial paper in place of barter, open competition in place of social deference and hierarchy, with an attendant rise in social disorder, and the appearance of factories using coat or water power in place of independent craftspeople working with hand tools. "The cities predicted the future," wrote historian Gary.B.Nash , "even though they were but overgrown villages compared to the great urban centers of Europe, the Middle East and China."

(12)  Except for Boston, whose population stabilized at about 16,000 in 1760, cities grew by exponential leaps through the eighteenth century. In the fifteen years prior to the outbreak of the War for independence in 1775, more than 200,000 immigrants arrived on North American shores This meant that a population the size of Boston was arriving every year, and most of it flowed into the port cities in the Northeast. Philadelphia's population nearly doubted in those years, reaching about 30,000 in 1774, New York grew at almost the same rate, reaching about 25,000 by 1775.

(20)  The quality of the hinterland dictated the pace of growth of the cities. The land surrounding Boston had always been poor farm country, and by the mid-eighteenth century it was virtually stripped of its timber. The available farmland was occupied, there was little in the region beyond the city to attract immigrants. New York and Philadelphia, by contrast, served (25) a rich and fertile hinterland laced with navigable watercourses. Scots, Irish, and Germans landed in these cities and followed the rivers inland. The regions around the cities of New York and Philadelphia became the breadbaskets of North America, sending grain not only to other colonies but also to England and southern Europe, where crippling droughts in the late 1760's created a whole new market.

21.    Which of the following aspects of North America in the eighteenth century does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The effects of war on the growth of cities

(B) The growth and influence of cities

(C) The decline of farming in areas surrounding cities

(D) The causes of immigration to cities

22.    Why does the author say that "the cities had a disproportionate influence on the development of North America "lines1-2"?

(A) The influence of the cities was mostly negative

(B) The populations of the cities were small, but their influence was great.

(C) The cities were growing at a great rate.

(D) Most people pretended to live in cities

23.    The phrase "in place of " in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) connected to

(B) in addition to

(C) because of

(D) instead of

24.  The word "attendant" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) avoidable

(B) accompanying

(C) unwelcome

(D) unexpected

25. Which of the following is mentioned as an element of modern capitalism?

(A) Open competition

(B) Social deference

(C) Social hierarchy

(D) Independent craftspeople

26. It can be inferred that in comparison with North American cities, cities in Europe, the Middle East, and China had

(A) large populations

(B) little independence

(C) frequent social disorder

(D) few power sources

27. The phrase "exponential leaps" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) long wars

(B) new laws

(C) rapid increases

(D) exciting changes

28. The word "it" in line 17 refers to

(A) population

(B) size

(C) Boston

(D) Year

29.    How many immigrants arrived in North America between 1760 and 1775?

(A) About 16,000

(B) About 25,000

(C) About 30,000

(D) More than 200,000

30.    The word "dictated" in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) spoiled

(B) reduced

(C) determined

(D) divided

31.    The word "virtually" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) usually

(B) hardly

(C) very quickly

(D) almost completely

32. The region surrounding New York and Philadelphia is contrasted with the region surrounding Boston in terms of

(A) quality of farmland

(B) origin of immigrants

(C) opportunities for fishing

(D) type of grain grown

33.      Why does the author describe the regions around the cities of New York and Philadelphia as "breadbaskets"?

(A) They produced grain especially for making bread.

(B) They stored large quantities of grain during periods of drought

(C) They supplied grain to other parts of North America and other countries.

(D) They consumed more grain than all the other regions of North America.

Questions 34-44

Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best ways to make an important decision, such as choosing a university to attend or a business to invest in, involves the utilization of a decision worksheet. Psychologists who study optimization compare the actual (5)decisions made by people to theoretical ideal decisions to see how similar they are. Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield optimal, that is , the best decisions. Although there are several variations on the exact format that worksheets can take, they are all similar in their essential aspects. Worksheets require defining the problem in a (10) clear and concise way and then listing all possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that will be affected by each decision are listed, and the relative importance of each consideration or consequence is determined. Each consideration is assigned a numerical value to reflect its relative importance. A decision is mathematically calculated by adding these values together. The alternative with the highest number of points emerges as the best decision.

(17)  Since most important problems are multifaceted, there are several alternatives to choose from, each with unique advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a pencil and paper decision-making procedure is that it permits people to deal with more variables than their minds can generally comprehend and remember. On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once. A worksheet can be especially useful when the decision involves a large number of variables with complex relationships. A realistic example for many college students is the question "What sill I do after graduation?" A graduate might seek a position that offers specialized training, pursue an advanced degree, or travel abroad for a year.

(28)  A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the problem that will also help to narrow it. It is important to be clear about the distinction between long-range and immediate goals because long-range goals often involve a different decision than short-range ones. Focusing on long-range goals, a graduating student might revise the question above to "What will I do after graduation that will lead to successful career?"

34. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) A tool to assist in making complex decisions.

(B) A comparison of actual decisions and ideal decisions

(C) Research on how people make decisions

(D) Differences between long-range and short-range decision making

35. The word "essential" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) introductory

(B) changeable

(C) beneficial

(D) fundamental

36. The word "pertinent" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) relevant

(B) preceding

(C) insightful

(D) responsive

37. Of the following steps, which occurs before the others in making a decision worksheet?

(A) Listing the consequences of each solution

(B) Calculating a numerical summary of each solution

(C) Deciding which consequences are most important

(D) Writing down all possible solutions

38. According to decision-worksheet theory, an optimal decision is defined as one that

(A) has the fewest variables to consider

(B) uses the most decision worksheets

(C) has the most points assigned to it

(D) is agreed to by the greatest number of people

39. The author develops the discussion in paragraph I by means of

(A) describing a process

(B) classifying types of worksheets

(C) providing historical background

(D) explaining a theory

40. The author states that "On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once (lines 21-22) to explain that

(A) most decisions involve seven steps

(B) human mental capacity has limitations

(C) some people have difficulty making minor as well as major decisions

(D) people can learn to keep more than seven ideas in their minds with practice

41. The word "succinct" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) creative

(B) satisfactory

(C) personal

(D) concise

42. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A) Proponents (line 6)

(B) Optimal (line 7)

(C) Variables (line 23)

(D) Long-range goals (line 30)

43. The word "it" in line 29 refers to

(A) worksheet

(B) problem

(C) distinction

(D) decision

44. The word "revise" in line 31 is closest in meaning to

(A) ask

(B) explain

(C) change

(D) predict

Questions 45-50

Elizabeth Hazen and Rachel Brown copatented one of the most widely acclaimed wonder drugs of the post-Second World War years. Hazen and Brown's work was stimulated by the wartime need to find a cure for the fungus infections that afflicted many military personnel. Scientists had (5)been feverishly searching for an antibiotic toxic enough to kill the fungi but safe enough for human use, since, unfortunately, the new "wonder drugs" such as penicillin and streptomycin killed the very bacteria in the body that controlled the fungi. It was to discover a fungicide without that double effect that Brown, of New York State's Department of Health (10)Laboratories at Albany, and Hazen, senior microbiologist at the Department of Health in New York, began their long-distance collaboration. Based upon Hazen's previous research at Columbia University, where she had built an impressive collection of fungus cultures, both were convinced that an antifungal organism already existed in certain soils.

(16)  They divided the work. Hazen methodically screened and cultured scores of soil samples, which she then sent to her partner, who prepared extracts, isolated and purified active agents, and shipped them back to New York, where Hazen could study their biological properties. On a 1948 (20) vacation, Hazen fortuitously collected a clump of soil from the edge of W.B. Nourse's cow pasture, Hazen fortuitously collected a clump of soil from the edge of W.B. Nourse's cow pasture in Fauquier County, Virginia, that, when tested, revealed the presence of the microorganisms. In farm owner Nourse's honor. Hazen named it Streptomyces noursei, and within a (25) year the two scientists knew that the properties of their substance distinguished it from previously described antibiotics. After further research they eventually reduced their substance to a fine, yellow powder, which they first named "fungiciden." Then renamed "nystatin" (to honor the New York State laboratory) when they learned the previous name was (30) already in use. Of their major discovery, Brown said lightly that it simply illustrated "how unpredictable consequences can come from rather modest beginnings."

45.    What is the main topic of the passage?

(A) The lives of Hazen and Brown.

(B) The development of a safe fungicide.

(C) The New York State Department of Health.

(D) The development of penicillin.

46.    What can be inferred from the passage about penicillin?

(A) It effectively treats fungus infections.

(B) It was developed before nystatin.

(C) It was developed before the Second World War.

(D) One of its by-products is nystatin.

47.      Why does the author mention Columbia University in lines 12 and 13?

(A) Hazen and Brown developed nystatin there.

(B) Brown was educated there.

(C) Hazen did research there.

(D) It awarded a prize to Hazen and Brown.

48. The word "both" in line 14 refers to

(A) Hazen and Brown

(B) penicillin and streptomycin

(C) the Department of Health laboratories at Albany and New York

(D) double effect

49. What substance did Brown and Hazen analyze?

(A) Dirt

(B) Streptomycin

(C) Bacteria

50. Who was W. B. Nourse?

(A) A microbiologist

(B) A teacher of Hazen's

(C) A collector of fungi

(D) A farmer

1999年5月TOFEL语法

B

1. Classical logic is characterized by a concern for the structure and elements of argument __ that thought, language, and reality are interrelated.

(A) based on the belief

(B) on the belief based

(C) belief based on the

(D) the based belief on

2. Adult fleas__only blood and are external parasites of mammals and birds.

(A) eat

(B) having eaten

(C) that eat

(D) to eat

3. Heat energy may be absorbed or released when_______ while work is done on or by the system.

(A) changes in the internal energy of a system

(B) by changing the internal energy of a system

(C) the internal energy of a system that changes

(D) the internal energy of a system changes

4. Methods of measuring mass, time, and distance are__ of human culture.

(A) among the oldest skills

(B) they are among the oldest skills

(C) what among the oldest skills

(D) the skills that among the oldest

5._____they sometimes swim alone, dolphins usually congregate in large groups, often numbering in the hundreds.

(A) Why

(B) Although

(C) Even

(D) Nevertheless

6._______ plays an important part in commercial art, illustrating advertisements, textbooks, brochures, and articles in magazines and periodicals.

(A) Drawing and

(B) Because drawing

(C) Drawing, which

(D) Drawing

7. Goldfinches build compact _____ nests, which they line with soft vegetable down.

(A) shaped like a cup

(B) cup-shaped

(C) cup shapes

(D) shape of a cup

8. Louisa May Alcott published her first book, Flower Fables ___ of fairy tales, in 1854.

(A) which a collection

(B) a collection was

(C) a collection

(D) in which a collection

9.__ understanding of weather and its variability, it has been difficult to prove that weather can be controlled.

(A) Since incomplete

(B) Because of incomplete

(C) Incomplete

(D) Why is incomplete

10. Franklin Roosevelt’s New Deal program included______ designed to provide relief and counteract the effects of the economic depression that had begun in 1929.

(A) measures were temporary

(B) in temporary measures

(C) temporary and measures

(D) temporary measures

11. Current health guidelines recommend that people restrict their consumption____

(A) foods of high in fat

(B) of foods in fat high

(C) of foods high in fat

(D) in foods high of fat

12. Walt Whitman originated a distinctive form of free verse that sets his work apart from __ of all other poets.

(A) what

(B) that

(C) how

(D) it

13._______ economic change by investigating the fluctuations in the relationship between workers’ wages and their buying power.

(A) Economists gauging

(B) Economists gauge how

(C) Economists gauge

(D) Whenever economists gauge

14. Although the many hours of summer sunshine in Canada’s Klondike region produce good vegetable crops, the long winters rarely permit_______ .

(A) grain crops ripen

(B) grain crops are ripe

(C) the ripening of grain crops

(D) to ripen grain crops

15. Tools, a workshop, and some storage space were_______ for early experiments in aviation.

(A) required all that

(B) all that was required

(C) all the requirements that

(D) such that all the requirements

16. A major railroad junction in Illinois, Decatur has became an important commercial hub for the region’s farm products and livestock.

17. People use muscles to make various movements, such as walk, jumping, or throwing.

18. Emily Dickinson unmistakably fixed her own highly individually and revolutionary personality in her elliptical and provocative poems.

19. The human skeleton is made up of 206 bones of difference sizes and shapes.

20. One of the earliest strike in United States history occurred in 1740 when bakers refused to work until their wages were increased.

21. Count Basie’s distinctive piano style and band arrangements of the late 1930’s earned his an important place in jazz history.

22. The wide range of elevations in the southern Appalachian Mountains allows for the great diverse of plant life found there.

23. Four huge shield volcanoes have been observed on Mars, as well as a great number of smaller ones like found those on the Earth.

24. The 1897 discover of gold in the Klondike hastened the commercial development of Washington State, as did the increasing trade with Pacific Islands.

25. The Saint Lawrence River is young relatively by geological standards, as it was formed during the last ice age.

26. With the ability produce and control fire, early humans could make heat and light and could cook foods that were difficult to eat raw.

27. Only the female and the worker wasps are equipped with a sting, which they use it to attack their prey or to protect themselves against enemies.

28. Compared with another breeds, quarter horses can start more quickly, turn more sharply, and run faster over short courses.

29. Stars emit radio waves, which they may be detected and studied using radio telescopes.

30. A glider is a type of aircraft resembling an airplane but often having not means of propulsion at all.

31. A matrilineal extended family consists of core group of males, their wives, and their unmarried daughters.

32. Herons inhabit marshy areas or the shores along fresh or salt water, which they find fishes, frogs, crustaceans, and other aquatic animals to eat.

33. A computer program that communicates with the user solely by choices providing from interlined menus is said to be menu-driven.

34. In the 1930’s few major orchestras in the United States hired woman, so many chose to perform in amateur musical groups as an alternative.

35. Complex spacecraft are characterized by a various of supporting systems, including communications, guidance and  navigation, altitude control, and, in some cases, life-support systems.

36. When a piano keyboard is substituted for buttons on right side of an accordion, the instrument is known as a piano accordion.

37. Today’s lunar and solar eclipses can be predicted to within seconds of its occurrence, and interest in them is scientific as well as aesthetic.

38. The windowless inner rooms of the Pueblo Bonito in New Mexico served for the storage of supplies, while the brighter outer rooms were using for living quarters.

39. Ultrasonic is concerned with sound vibrates or waves of a frequency above 20,000 cycles per second, the upper range audible to the human ear.

40. Freesia plants reach a height of two and one-half feet and thrive best at temperature of 50 degrees to 60 degrees Fahrenheit.

C

Questions 1-9

The term "Hudson River school" was applied to the foremost representatives of nineteenth-century North American landscape painting. Apparently unknown during the golden days of the American landscape movement, which began around 1850 and lasted until the late 1860's, the Hudson River school seems to have emerged in the 1870's as a direct result of the struggle between the old and the new generations of artists, each to assert its own style as the representative American art. The older painters, most of whom were born before 1835, practiced in a mode often self-taught and monopolized by landscape subject matter and were securely established in and fostered by the reigning American art organization, the National Academy of Design.

(12)  The younger painters returning home from training in Europe worked more with figural subject matter and in a bold and impressionistic technique; their prospects for patronage in their own country were uncertain, and they sought to attract it by attaining academic recognition in New York. One of the results of the conflict between the two factions was that what in previous years had been referred to as the "American",  "native", or, occasionally, "New York" school-the most representative school of American art in any genre-had by 1890 become firmly established in the minds of critics and public alike as the Hudson River school.

(22)  The sobriquet was first applied around 1879. While it was not intended as flattering, it was hardly inappropriate. The Academicians at whom it was aimed had worked and socialized in New York, the Hudson's port city, and had painted the river and its shores with varying frequency. Most important, perhaps, was that they had all maintained with a certain fidelity a manner of technique and composition consistent with those of America's first popular landscape artist, Thomas Cole, who built a career painting the Catskill Mountain scenery bordering the Hudson River. A possible implication in the term applied to the group of landscapists was that many of them had, like Cole, lived on or near the banks of the Hudson. Further, the river had long served as the principal route to other sketching grounds favored by the Academicians, particularly the Adirondacks and the mountains of Vermont and New Hampshire.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The National Academy of Design

(B) Paintings that featured the Hudson River

(C) North American landscape paintings

(D) The training of American artists in European academies

2. Before 1870, what was considered the most representative kind of American painting?

(A) Figural painting

(B) Landscape painting

(C) Impressionistic painting

(D) Historical painting

3. The word "struggle" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) connection

(B) distance

(C) communication

(D) competition

4. The word "monopolized" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) alarmed

(B) dominated

(C) repelled

(D) pursued

5. According to the passage, what was the function of the National Academy of Design for the painters born before 1835?

(A) It mediated conflicts between artists.

(B) It supervised the incorporation of new artistic techniques.

(C) It determined which subjects were appropriate.

(D) It supported their growth and development.

6. The word "it" in line 15 refers to

(A) matter

(B) technique

(C) patronage

(D) country

7. The word "factions" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) sides

(B) people

(C) cities

(D) images

8. The word "flattering" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) expressive

(B) serious

(C) complimentary

(D) flashy

9. Where did the younger generation of painters receive its artistic training?

(A) In Europe

(B) In the Adirondacks

(C) In Vermont

(D) In New Hampshire

Questions 10-22

Television has transformed politics in the United States by changing the way in which information is disseminated, by altering political campaigns, and by changing citizen's patterns of response to politics. By giving citizens independent access to the candidates, television diminished the role of the political party in the selection of the major party candidates. By centering politics on the person of the candidate, television accelerated the citizen's focus on character rather than issues.

(8)     Television has altered the forms of political communication as well. The messages on which most of us rely are briefer than they once were. The stump speech, a political speech given by traveling politicians and lasting 3/2 to 2 hours, which characterized nineteenth-century political discourse, has given way to the 30-second advertisement and the 10 second "sound bite" in broadcast news. Increasingly the audience for speeches is not that standing in front of the politician but rather the viewing audience who will hear and see a snippet of the speech on the news.

(17)  In these abbreviated forms, much of what constituted the traditional political discourse of earlier ages has been lost. In 15 or 30 seconds, a speaker cannot establish the historical context that shaped the issue in question, cannot detail the probable causes of the problem, and cannot examine alternative proposals to argue that one is preferable to others. In snippets, politicians assert but do not argue.

(23)  Because television is an intimate medium, speaking through it require a changed political style that was more conversational, personal, and visual than that of the old-style stump speech. Reliance on television means that increasingly our political world contains memorable pictures rather than memorable words. Schools teach us to analyze words and print. However, in a word in which politics is increasingly visual, informed citizenship requires a new set of skills.

(30)  Recognizing the power of television's pictures, politicians craft televisual, staged events, called pseudo-event, designed to attract media coverage. Much of the political activity we see on television news has been crafted by politicians, their speechwriters, and their public relations advisers for televised consumption. Sound bites in news and answers to questions in debates increasingly sound like advertisements.

10. What is the main point of the passage?

(A) Citizens in the United States are now more informed about political issues because of television coverage.

(B) Citizens in the United States prefer to see politicians on television instead of in person.

(C) Politics in the United States has become substantially more controversial since the introduction of television.

(D) Politics in the United States has been significantly changed by television.

11. The word "disseminated" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) analyzed

(B) discussed

(C) spread

(D) stored

12. It can be inferred that before the introduction of television, political parties

(A) had more influence over the selection of political candidates

(B) spent more money to promote their political candidates

(C) attracted more members

(D) received more money

13. The word "accelerated" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) allowed

(B) increased

(C) required

(D) started

14. The author mentions the "stump speech" in line 10 as an example of

(A) an event created by politicians to attract media attention

(B) an interactive discussion between two politicians

(C) a kind of political presentation typical of the nineteenth century

(D) a style of speech common to televised political events

15. The phrase "given way to" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) added interest to

(B) modified

(C) imitated

(D) been replaced by

16. The word "that" in line 14 refers to

(A) audience

(B) broadcast news

(C) politician

(D) advertisement

17. According to the passage, as compared with televised speeches, traditional political discourse was more successful at

(A) allowing news coverage of political candidates

(B) placing political issues within a historical context

(C) making politics seem more intimate to citizens

(D) providing detailed information about a candidates private behavior

18. The author states that "politicians assert but do not argue" (line 22) in order to suggest that politicians

(A) make claims without providing reasons for the claims

(B) take stronger positions on issues than in the past

(C) enjoy explaining the issue to broadcasters

(D) dislike having to explain their own positions on issues to citizens

19. The word "Reliance" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) abundance

(B) clarification

(C) dependence

(D) information

20. The purpose of paragraph 4 is to suggest that

(A) politicians will need to learn to become more personal when meeting citizens

(B) politicians who are considered very attractive are favored by citizens over politicians who are less attractive

(C) citizens tend to favor a politician who analyzed the issue over one who does not

(D) citizens will need to learn how to evaluate visual political images in order to become better informed

21. According to paragraph 5, staged political events are created so that politicians can

(A) create more time to discuss political issues

(B) obtain more television coverage for themselves

(C) spend more time talking to citizens in person

(D) engages in debates with their opponents

22. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

(A) Political presentations today are more like advertisements than in the past.

(B) Politicians today tend to be more familiar with the views of citizens than in the past.

(C) Citizens today are less informed about a politician's character than in the past.

(D) Political speeches today focus more on details about issues than in the past.

Questions 23-33

The spectacular aurora light displays that appear in Earth's atmosphere around the north and south magnetic poles were once mysterious phenomena. Now, scientists have data from satellites and ground-based observations from which we know that the aurora brilliance is an immense electrical discharge similar to that occurring in a neon sign.

(6)     To understand the cause of auroras, first picture the Earth enclosed by its magnetosphere, a huge region created by the Earth's magnetic field. Outside the magnetosphere, blasting toward the earth is the solar wind, a swiftly moving plasma of ionized gases with its own magnetic filed. Charged particles in this solar wind speed earthward along the solar wind's magnetic lines of force with a spiraling motion. The Earth's magnetosphere is a barrier to the solar winds, and forces the charged particles of the solar wind to flow around the magnetosphere itself. But in the polar regions, the magnetic lines of force of the Earth and of the solar wind bunch together. Here many of the solar wind's charged particles break through the magnetosphere and enter Earth's magnetic field. They then spiral back and forth between the Earth's magnetic poles very rapidly. In the polar regions, electrons from the solar wind ionize and excite the atoms and molecules of the upper atmosphere, causing them to emit aurora radiations of visible light.

(21)  The colors of an aurora depend on the atoms emitting them. The dominant greenish white light comes from low energy excitation of oxygen atoms. During huge magnetic storms oxygen atoms also undergo high energy excitation and emit a crimson light. Excited nitrogen atoms contribute bands of color varying from blue to violet.

(26)  Viewed from outer space, auroras can be seen as dimly glowing belts wrapped around each of the Earth's magnetic poles. Each aurora hangs like a curtain of light stretching over the polar regions and into the higher latitudes. When the solar flares that result in magnetic storms and aurora activity are very intense, aurora displays may extend as far as the southern regions of the United States.

(32)  Studies of auroras have given physicists new information about the behavior of plasmas, which has helped to explain the nature of outer space and is being applied in attempts to harness energy from the fusion of atoms.

23. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The methods used to observe auroras from outer space

(B) The formation and appearance of auroras around the Earth's poles

(C) The factors that cause the variety of colors in auroras

(D) The periodic variation in the display of auroras

24. The word "phenomena" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) ideas

(B) stars

(C) events

(D) colors

25. The word "picture" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) frame

(B) imagine

(C) describe

(D) explain

26. The passage describes the magnetosphere as a barrier (line 13) because

(A) its position makes it difficult to be observed from Earth

(B) it prevents particles from the solar wind from easily entering Earth's atmosphere

(C) it increases the speed of particles from the solar wind

(D) it is strongest in the polar regions

27. The word "them" in line 19 refers to

(A) polar regions

(B) electrons

(C) atoms and molecules

(D) aurora radiations

28. According to the passage, which color appears most frequently in an aurora display?

(A) Greenish-white

(B) Crimson

(C) Blue

(D) Violet

29. The word "emit" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) change from

(B) connect with

(C) add to

(D) give off

30. The word "glowing" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) shining

(B) moving

(C) charging

(D) hanging

31. Auroras may be seen in the southern regions of the United Sates when

(A) magnetic storms do not affect Earth

(B) solar flares are very intense

(C) the speed of the solar wind is reduced

(D) the excitation of atoms is low

32. The passage supports which of the following statements about scientists' understanding of auroras?

(A) Before advances in technology, including satellites, scientists knew little about auroras.

(B) New knowledge about the fusion of atoms allowed scientists to learn more about auroras.

(C) Scientists cannot explain the cause of the different colors in auroras.

(D) Until scientists learn more about plasma physics, little knowledge about auroras will be available.

33. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A) "magnetosphere" (line 8)

(B) "electrons" (line 18)

(C) "ionize" (line 18)

(D) "fusion" (line 34)

Questions 34-44

Matching the influx of foreign immigrants into the larger cities of the United States during the late nineteenth century was a domestic migration, from town and farm to city, within the United States. The country had been overwhelmingly rural at the beginning of the century, with less than 5 percent of Americans living in large towns or cities. The proportion of urban population began to grow remarkably after 1840, increasing from 11 percent that year to 28 percent by 1880 and to 46 percent by 1900. A country with only 6 cities boasting a population of more than 8,000 in 1800 had become one with 545 such cities in 1900. Of these, 26 had a population of more than 100,000 including 3 that held more than a million people. Much of the migration producing an urban society came from smaller towns within the United States, but the combination of new immigrants and old American "settlers" on America's "urbanfrontier" in the late nineteenth century proved extraordinary.

(15)  The growth of cities and the process of industrialization fed on each other. The agricultural revolution stimulated many in the countryside to seek a new life in the city and made it possible for fewer farmers to feed the large concentrations of people needed to provide a workforce for growing numbers of factories. Cities also provided ready and convenient markets for the products of industry, and huge contracts in transportation and construction-as well as the expanded market in consumer goods-allowed continued growth of the urban sector of the overall economy of the Untied States.

(24)  Technological developments further stimulated the process of urbanization. One example is the Bessemer converter (an industrial process for manufacturing steel), which provided steel girders for the construction of skyscrapers. The refining of crude oil into kerosene, and later the development of electric lighting as well as of the telephone, brought additional comforts to urban areas that were unavailable to rural Americans and helped attract many of them from the farms into the cities. In every era the lure of the city included a major psychological element for country people; the bustle and social interaction of urban life seemed particularly intriguing to those raised in rural isolation.

34. What aspects of the United States in the nineteenth century does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Technological developments

(B) The impact of foreign immigrants on cities

(C) Standards of living

(D) The relationship between industrialization and urbanization

35. The word "influx" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) working

(B) processing

(C) arrival

(D) attraction

36. The paragraph preceding the passage most probably discuss

(A) foreign immigration

(B) rural life

(C) the agricultural revolution

(D) famous cities of the twentieth century

37. What proportion of population of the United States was urban in 1900?

(A) Five percent

(B) Eleven percent

(C) Twenty-eight percent

(D) Forty-six percent

38. The word "extraordinary" in line 14 is closet in meaning to

(A) expensive

(B) exceptional

(C) supreme

(D) necessary

39. The phrase "each other" in line 15 refers to

(A) foreign immigrants and domestic migrants

(B) farms and small towns

(C) growth of cities and industrialization

(D) industry and transportation

40. The word "stimulated" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) forced

(B) prepared

(C) limited

(D) motivated

41. Why does the author mention "electric lighting" and "the telephone" in lines 28-30?

(A) They contributed to the agricultural revolution

(B) They are examples of the conveniences of city life

(C) They were developed by the same individual.

(D) They were products of the Bessemer converter.

42. The word "them" in line 30 refers to

(A) urban areas

(B) rural Americans

(C) farms

(D) cities

43. The word "era" in line 31 is closest in meaning to

(A) period of time

(B) location

(C) action

(D) unique situation

44. The word "intriguing" in line 33 is closest in meaning to

(A) profitable

(B) attractive

(C) comfortable

(D) challenging

Questions 45-50

The nervous system of vertebrates is characterized by a hollow, dorsal nerve cord that ends in the head region as an enlargement, the brain. Even in its most primitive form this cord and its attached nerves are the result of evolutionary specialization, and their further evolution from lower to higher vertebrate classes is a process that is far from fully understood. Nevertheless, the basic arrangements are similar in all vertebrates, and the study of lower animals gives insight into the form and structure of the nervous system of higher animals. Moreover, for any species, the study of the embryological development of the nervous system is indispensable for an understanding of adult morphology.

(11)  In any vertebrate two chief parts of the nervous system may be distinguished. These are the central nervous system (the nerve cord mentions above), consisting of the brain and spinal cord, and the peripheral nervous system, consisting of the cranial, spinal, and peripheral nerves, together with their motor and sensory endings. The term "autonomic nervous system" refers to the parts of the central and peripheral systems that supply and regulate the activity of cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and many glands.

(19)  The nervous system is composed of many millions of nerve and glial cells, together with blood vessels and a small amount of connective tissue. The nerve cells, or "neurons", are characterized by many processes and are specialized in that they exhibit to a great degree the phenomena of irritability and conductivity. The glial cells of the central nervous system are supporting cells collectively termed "neuroglia". They are characterized by short processes that have special relationships to neurons, blood vessels, and connective tissue. The comparable cells in the peripheral nervous system are termed "neurilemmal" cells.

45. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The parts of a neuron

(B) The structure of animals' nerve

(C) The nervous system of vertebrates

(D) The development of the brain

46. According to the passage, the nerve cord of vertebrates is

(A) large

(B) hollow

(C) primitive

(D) embryological

47. The author implies that a careful investigation of a biological structure in an embryo may

(A) Improved research of the same structure in other species

(B) A better understanding of the fully developed structure

(C) Discovering ways in which poor development can be corrected

(D) A method by which scientists can document the various stages of development

48. The two main parts of the central nervous system are the brain and the

(A) sensory endings

(B) cranial nerve

(C) spinal cord

(D) peripheral nerves

49. All of the following are described as being controlled by the autonomic nervous system EXCEPT

(A) connective tissue

(B) cardiac muscle

(C) glandular activity

(D) smooth muscle

50. In what lines does the author identify certain characteristic of nerve cells?

(A) 1-2

(B) 11-15

(C) 15-19

(D) 21-24

1999年08月语法题

1. In 1864 Nevada enter the United States as _______ thirty-sixth state.

(A) in the

(B) to be the

(C) was the

(D) the

答案：D

分析：as是介词，后面应该是名词性结构。

参考译文：1864年内华达进入合众国，成为第三十六个州。

2. Bob Stephenson, a biologist in Alaska who studies the Canadian lynx, a type of wildcat, has learned __ from studying their tracks in the snow.

(A) how lynx hunt

(B) lynx hunt how

(C) how hunt lynx

(D) lynx how hunt

答案：A

分析：缺宾语，每一个选项中都有how, 说明需要how引导的宾语从句，排除B, D, 语

序不对；名词性从句应该用陈述语气，所以选A.

参考译文：Bob Stephenson是阿拉斯加一个生物学家，研究加拿大山猫，一种野生的

猫科动物，他从其在雪地上留下的足迹获悉了山猫是如何捕猎的。

3. ______ lay eggs, but some give birth to live young.

(A) Although most insects

(B) Most insects

(C) Despite most insects

(D) Most insects that

答案：B

分析：从句完整，从主句的谓语来看主句缺复数主语，所以选B。A中的Although和

but不能同时出现在一个句子里面; B despite后面不能跟句子；D that使得逗号前面无

法成为主谓句。

参考译文：大部分昆虫都生卵，但是有些生产活体的幼虫。

4. Author Sraah Jewett established her literary reputation with Deephaven, a collection of sketches ______.

(A) with rural Maine life

(B) that life in rural Maine

(C) about life in rural Maine

(D) life in rural Maine

答案：C

分析：B, D 比较好排除，B that后从句无谓语；D sketches与life无法连接；根据题

义，是讲这个文集的内容，所以about更贴近题义。

参考译文：作家Sraah Jewett由Deephaven（深深天堂）奠定了其文学声誉，那是

一部勾画Maine的乡村生活的文集。

5. By means of various types of wind tunnels, ____ simulate most of the flight conditions to which an airplane is subjected.

(A) which aeronautical engineers can

(B) aeronautical engineers can

(C) the ability of aeronautical engineers to

(D) aeronautical engineers, being able to

答案：B

分析：空格后面是动词原型，第一印象是主句中缺主语，A 是从句，排除；C, D都使

得主句无谓语；只有B主语加情态动词后面跟动词原型，并且主句主谓齐全。

参考译文：利用各种不同类型的风洞，航空工程师能够模拟出大多数飞机的适航条件。

6. ______ planes in flight between airports, air traffic controllers rely on radar.

(A) Tracked

(B) Track of

(C) To track

(D) Of tracking

答案：C

分析：to do做目的状语

参考译文：为了跟踪各机场之间的在航飞机，空中交通控制台要依靠雷达。

7. The operating principles of the telephone are ______ they were in the nineteenth century.

(A) the same as today

(B) the same today

(C) the same today as

(D) today what the same.

答案：C

分析：B, D the same as形式都不完整，先排除；A today与后面的过去时态不符。

参考译文：当今的电话操作原理和它们在19世纪的时候是相同的。

8. Steel magnate Andrew Carnegie used part of his wealth _______ more than 2,500 public libraries in English-speaking countries between 1881 and 1919.

(A) helped in building

(B) helped him to building

(C) to help build

(D) his help in building

答案：C

分析：use sth to do …与cause sth(sb) to do…是toefl语法中经常考的。

参考译文：钢铁大亨Andrew Carnegie用他的部分财产于1881－1919年间在英语国家

帮助修建了2500多个公共图书馆。

9. Not until 1949 _______ Canada’s tenth province.

(A) became Newfoundland

(B) did Newfoundland become

(C) Newfoundland did become

(D) Newfoundland became

答案：B

分析：not until放在句首，谓语部分倒装，这时候只要找到以助动词打头的选项就

可以了。

参考译文：直到1949年，纽芬兰才成为加拿大的第十个省。

10. Paul Samuelson revolutionized _____ by presenting his students with the most advanced economic thinking at an introductory level.

(A) to teach economics

(B) the teaching of economics

(C) teaching that economics is

(D) economics is taught

答案：B

分析：句中缺宾语，只要找到能做宾语的成分就可以了。

参考译文：Paul Samuelson 改变了经济学的教学，从一个导论的层次上给他的学生

呈现了最高深的经济学思想。

11. The term bell-letters is used to denote literary forms that contain _____, such as drama, poetry, essays, and novels.

(A) artistic, creative writing

(B) writing that artistic, creative

(C) artistic, creative, and writing

(D) them is artistic, creative writing

答案：A

分析：句中缺宾语，并且一定是一个关于文学的总称，因为后面举了很多例子。

只有A符合要求，其中artistic与creative都是修饰writing的。其他选项的错误

也很明显：B that引导的定语从句缺谓语，C形容词和后面的名词不能并列；

D them后面的成分逻辑错误, 并且is与谓语重叠了。

参考译文：bell-letters这个术语用来指称一些具有艺术性和创造性写作的文学

形式，比如：戏剧，诗歌，散文和小说。

12. Open-pit mining follows the same sequence of operations__ mining: drilling, blasting, and loading and removing waste and ore.

(A) where underground

(B) that underground

(C) underground

(D) as underground

答案：D

分析：the same…as固定搭配

参考译文：户外的挖坑采矿都遵循和地下采矿同样的操作顺序，钻、吹、载、

分离杂质和矿石。

13. ______ in cases where special oxidants are used, fires are the result of a fuel rapidly combining with the oxygen in the air.

(A) There are

(B) Even though

(C) How

(D) Except

答案：D

分析：A , 逗号后面是主句，前面应该是从句或者其他成分，如果选A, 就有两个

主句了，肯定不对；B ,C 后面应该跟从句才对；D介词，也符合题义。

参考译文：除了用了特殊氧化剂的情况下，火是燃料和空气中的氧气快速结合

的结果。

14. Maya Angelou’s widely acclaimed autobiography, I know why the Caged Bird sings, is a moving and ______ of her childhood in segregated Arkansas.

(A) an account that is often humorous

(B) often humorous as an account

(C) often humorous, the account

(D) often humorous account

答案：D

分析：humorous和moving并列，修饰account，名词短语。

参考译文：Maya Angelou广受赞誉的自传--我知道为何笼中之鸟歌唱，是他在种

族隔离的Arkansas生活的童年的感人而富于幽默的写照。

15. ______ to study element 104 because only a few atoms of his substance can be isolated

at one time.

(A) The difficulty

(B) Why it is difficult

(C) It is difficult

(D) Even though difficult

答案：C

分析：浏览全句，缺主句的主谓语，答案很明显。

A主句缺谓语；B，D 使得句子无主句。

参考译文：研究104号元素是很困难的，因为在含有它的物质中只有少数几种原

子能够一次分离出来。

16. Common salt occurs naturally in pure, solidly form as the mineral halite and in widely distributed deposits of rock, or mineral, salts.

答案：B

分析：form是名词，前面应用形容词修饰，并且从前面的pure也可以得到启示。

改正：solidlyàsolid

参考译文：食盐可以作为无机岩盐以纯净的固体形式天然存在，也可以存在于广泛分布的岩盐矿床中。

17. The term “metabolism” refers to the chemical changes which by living things transform food into energy.

答案：B

分析：从句中主语应该是living things, 所以by living things 并不是由by引导的表

方式的短语，并且从句中主谓宾俱全，应该由不做成份的关系副词（或介词+which）

引导，而不应该用关系代词引导。

改正：which by àby which

参考译文：“新陈代谢”这一术语指生物借以将食物转化成能量的化学变化。

18. Materials that of clay are among the most ancient manufactured articles and have played a vital role in human civilization.

答案：A

分析：that与materials重复。退一步说，假设这种表达方法可行，materials与that

的数也不一致。

改正：that of àof

参考译文：粘土用具是最古老的人造物品之一，并且在人类文明中起过至关重要的作用。

19. Yogurt contains a higher percentage of lactic acid than another fermented milks, and it is rich in B-complex vitamins.

答案：C

分析：other后面跟可数名词复数形式，another跟单数，是TOEFL语法中常考的。

改正：anotheràother

参考译文：酸奶所含的乳酸比例高于其它发酵乳，而且富含复合维生素B。

20. Canada is made up of ten provinces and two territories, with governmental powers being divided between the federal government or the provinces.

答案：D

分析：between A and B，固定结构。其实这些结构对于中国学生来说非常简单，

我们所要做的就是多做题，熟悉考点。有时也会把from…to…与between…and…

混淆来考。

改正：oràand

参考译文：加拿大由十个省和两个地方组成，政府的权力下分到联邦政府和各省。

21. Before the formation of labor unions, individual workers had almost not voice in determining their wages, hours, or working conditions.

答案：B

分析：voice是名词，前面应用形容词修饰，而not是副词。

no 形容词；not 副词；none 代词。

改正：notàno

参考译文：在工会成立之前，单个工人在决定自己的工资、工作时间及劳动条件

方面几乎没有发言权。

22. In the United States, the leading butter-producing states which are Wisconsin, California, and Minnesota.

22. In the United States, the leading butter-producing states which are Wisconsin, California，and Minnesota.

答案：C

分析：which使得主句没有谓语。

改正：states which---states

参考译文：在美国，生产黄油的主要的州是Wisconsin, California和Minnesota.

23. Each stanza of a poem has a repeatable pattern of meter and rhyme and is normally division from the following stanza by a blank line.

答案：C

分析：在TOEFL语法题

中，看到by就要警惕，它经常是被动语态的标志

（有时表示方式，也很容易判断）。

改正：divisionàdivided

参考译文：每一诗节都具有可重复的音步和押韵模式，通常被一空行与下一诗节隔开。

24. Depending on many factors, including climate, mineral content of the soil, and the permanency of surface water, wetlands may be mossy, grassy, or covering with shrubs or trees.

答案：D

分析：be covered with是固定短语。

改正：coveringàcovered

参考译文：湿地可能布满藓，可能遍地是草，也可能被灌木和树覆盖，这取决

于许多因素，包括气候、土壤中的矿物质含量，以及是否有永久地表水。

25. In many areas of the world, people need clothing for protection the weather.

答案：D

分析：protection与weather在这里是动宾关系，在介词for后面应该用动名词。

改正：protectionàprotecting from

参考译文：在世界上的许多地区，人们还很需要衣服来遮风挡雨。

26. Hoocer Dam in Nevada is a multipurpose structure that provides flood control, hydroelectric powerful, and drinking and irrigation water.

答案：B

分析：考点：并列结构。与control, water并列，hydroelectric后应为名词。

改正：powerfulàpower

参考译文：内华达州的Hoocer水坝是一个多功能建筑，他用来提供水流控制、水力发电、饮用和灌溉水的。

27. Physiologically, the period of adolescence is marked by active growth, especially in the skeletal and muscular systems and in a certain vascular tissues.

答案：D

分析：被修饰的中心词tissues是复数，关键在于细心。

改正：a certainàcertain

参考译文：从生理上说，青春期的标志是发育迅速，特别是骨骼和肌肉系统，以及某

些血管组织的生长。

28. Free nitrogen is chemically inert and combines with other elements only since very high temperatures or pressures.

答案：C

分析：since是指时间的先后，语句义不符。

改正：sinceàunder

参考译文：游离氮具有化学惰性，只有在高温与高压下才与其它元素结合。

29. Sawfish are shark-like fish have “saws” of cartilage set with two rows of teeth on their snouts.

答案：A

分析：出现了两个谓语。

改正：haveàwhich have/having

参考译文：锯鳐类似鲨鱼，嘴上有两排牙齿组成的软骨“锯条”。

30. The decade of the 1920’s was significant in Georgia’s history because of the rapidity with what agriculture declined in the state.

答案：C

分析：what引导的是名词性句，与定语从句不同，它前面没有先行词，并且要在句中

做成份。而在这里既有先行词，还不在句中充当成份，一定是错的。

改正：what àwhich

参考译文：由于该州当时农业急速衰落，20世纪20年代是佐治亚州历史很重要的10年。

31. Although usually living on or under rocks or on coral reefs, marine snails have been observed in a great various of habitats.

答案：D

分析：a variety of 与various是TOEFL语法中常考的，只要搞清楚它们各自的词形，

解决这类题就易如反掌。variety 名词；various 形容词。

改正：variousàvariety

参考译文：尽管经常生活在岩石上下或珊瑚礁上，海蛇还是能在多种栖息地被看到。

32. In the field of acting theory, controversy arises over the question of whether is acting a behavioral or a mental process.

答案：C

分析：whether引导的从句做介词of 的宾语，名词性从句应该用陈述语气。

改正：is actingàacting is

参考译文：在表演理论的领域里，表演是行为是否是心理过程的问题引起了争论。

33. Short-wave radios that can receive and transmit signals are used by pilots, the police, and amateur operator.

答案：D

分析：operator是可数名词，应加冠词或者用复数形式，可以从前面与其并列的项目

得到提示。

改正：operatoràoperators

参考译文：能够接受和传递信号的短波无线电设备适用于飞行员、警察和业余通讯员。

34. Because silk is the strongest of all natural fibers, ranking in strong with the synthetic fiber nylon, its delicate look and fell are deceptive.

答案：B

分析：介词后面应该跟名词性的成分。

改正：strongàstrength

参考译文：由于丝是天然纤维中最结实的，其强度可与合成纤维尼龙相比，其精美的

外观和舒适的手感具有迷惑性。

35. The Red River, so named because of the red-colored sediment it carries, it is one of the main branches of the Mississippi.

答案：C

分析：主语重复。

改正：It isàis

参考译文：红河由于其所携带的红色沉淀物而得名，它是密西西比河的主要支流之一。

36. Floyd Bennett was a pilot for two of the Arctic expedition of the 1920’s and the first pilot to fly over the north pole.

答案：A

分析：two of后的名词肯定是复数形式。

改正：expeditionàexpeditions

参考译文：FB是20世纪20年代两支北极探险队的飞行员和首次飞越北极的飞行员。

37. To those who favorite free trade, the revival of barter can suggest nothing less than a disaster.

答案：B

分析：favorite n.喜欢的人或物；adj.喜爱的; favor n.喜爱，赞同；v.支持，偏爱

改正：favoriteàfavor

参考译文：对于赞成自由贸易的人来说，易货贸易的复兴只能意味着灾难。

38. In the United States, about 75 percent of the total tomatoes crop is processed into juice, caned tomatoes, sauces, pastes, and ketchup.

答案：C

分析：名词做定语修饰名词，修饰词一定是单数。除了woman ,man。

改正：tomatoesàtomato

参考译文：在美国，全部蕃茄的作物75%被加工成蕃茄汁、罐头、调味汁、酱和调味

蕃茄酱。

39. Today’s nuclear fission fuels are the remnants of which used to be a much more active mixture of radioactive and fissionable materials two billion years ago and earlier.

答案：A

分析：介词+which的形式相当于关系副词，后面的句子应该是完整的。可是后面的从

句缺主语，就说明他已经充当了句子成份，所以of+which在这里是不对的。应该用

what做of的宾语，并在从句中做主语。

改正：whichàwhat

参考译文：现在的核裂变燃料是20亿年和更早之前放射性和可裂变材料所构成的活性

大得多的混合物的残余。

40. Petrography concerns primarily with the detailed description and classification of rocks, whereas petrology deals primarily with rock formation.

Questions 1-10

Perhaps the most obvious way artistic creation reflect how people live is by mirroring the environment-the materials and technologies available to a culture. Stone, wood, tree bark, clay, and sand are generally available aterials. In addition, depending on the locality, other resources may be (5)accessible: shells, horns, gold, copper, and silver. The different uses to which societies put these materials are of interest to anthropologists who may ask, for example, why a people chooses to use clay and not copper when both items are available. Although there are no conclusive answers yet, the way in which a society views its environment is sometimes (10)apparent in its choice and use of artistic materials. The use of certain metals, for example, may be reserved for ceremonial objects of special importance. Or the belief in the supernatural powers of a stone or tree may cause a sculptor to be sensitive to that material.

(14)  What is particularly meaningful to anthropologist is the realization that although the materials available to a society may to some extent limit or influence what it can do artistically, the materials by no means determine what is done. Why does the artist in Japanese society rake sand into patterns; and the artist in Roman society melt sand to form glass? Moreover, even when the same material is used in the same way by (20)members of different societies, the form or style of the work varies normously from culture to culture. A society may simply choose to  epresent objects or phenomena that are important to its population. An examination of the art of the Middle Ages tells us something about the medieval preoccupation with theological doctrine. In addition to revealing the primary concerns of a society, the content of that society's art may also reflect the culture's social stratification.

1. According to the passage, gold, copper, and silver are

(A) more difficult to handle than wood and stone

(B) commonly used by artists in all societies

(C) essential to create ceremonial objects

(D) available only in specific locations

2. The word "conclusive" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) definitive

(B) controversial

(C) concurrent

(D) realistic

3. The word "apparent" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) attractive

(B) logical

(C) evident

(D) distinct

4. Why does the author mention the "supernatural powers of a stone or tree" in line 12?

(A) To show that some sculptors avoid working with specific materials

(B) To emphasize the unusual properties of certain materials

(C) As an example of how art can be influenced by cultural beliefs

(D) As an illustration of the impact of the environment on religious beliefs

5. The word "it" in line 16 refers to

(A) realization

(B) society

(C) extent

(D) influence

6. It can be inferred that the author mentions the Japanese and Roman societies because

(A) they influenced each other

(B) of their stable social conditions

(C) of the unique stylistic features of their art

(D) they used the same artistic material in very different ways

7. According to the passage, all of the following statements about sand are true EXCEPT

(A) It is used to create glass.

(B) Roman artists mix it into their paints.

(C) Its use varies from culture to culture.

(D) Japanese artists use it to create artistic patterns.

8. The word "Moreover" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) similarly

(B) in addition

(C) in contrast

(D) frequently

9. The word "preoccupation" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) involvement

(B) separation

(C) relationship

(D) argument

10. The word "primary" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) discrete

(B) preliminary

(C) ideal

(D) fundamental

Questions 11-22

Fungi, of which there are over 100,000 species, including yeasts and other single-celled organisms as well as the common molds and mushrooms, were formerly classified as members of the plant kingdom. However, in reality they are very different from plants and today they are (5) placed in a separate group altogether. The principal reason for this is that none of them possesses chlorophyll, and since they cannot synthesize their own carbohydrates, they obtain their supplies either from the breakdown of dead organic matter or from other living organisms. Furthermore the walls of fungal cells are not made of cellulose, as those of (10) plants are, but of another complex sugarlike polymer called chitin, the material from which the hard outer skeletons of shrimps, spiders, and insects are made. The difference between the chemical composition of the cell walls of fungi and those of plants is of enormous importance because it enables the tips of the growing hyphae, the threadlike cells of the fungus, (15) to secrete enzymes that break down the walls of plant cells without having any effect on those of the fungus itself. It is these cellulose-destroying enzymes that enable fungi to attack anything made from wood, wood pulp, cotton, flax, or other plant material.

(19)  The destructive power of fungi is impressive. They are a major cause of structural damage to building timbers, a cause of disease in animals and humans, and one of the greatest causes of agricultural losses. Entire crops can be wiped out by fungal attacks both before and after harvesting. Some fungi can grow at + 50^0C, while others can grow at -5^0C, so even food in cold storage may not be completely safe from them. On the other hand, (25) fungi bring about the decomposition of dead organic matter, thus enriching the soil and returning carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. They also enter into a number of mutually beneficial relationships with plants and other organisms. In addition, fungi are the source of many of the most potent antibiotics used in clinical medicine, including enicillin.

11. What does paragraph 1 mainly discuss?

(A) Differences between simply and complex fungi

(B) Functions of chlorophyll in plants

(C) Functions of sugar in the walls of fungal cells

(D) Differences between fungi and plants

12. Which of the following is mentioned as a major change in how scientists approach the study of fungi?

(A) Fungi are no longer classified as plants

(B) Some single-cell organisms are no longer classified as fungi.

(C) New methods of species identification have been introduced

(D) Theories about the chemical composition of fungi have been revised.

13. The word "principal" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) true

(B) main

(C) logical

(D) obvious

14. According to the passage, how do fungi obtain carbohydrates?

(A) The absorb carbohydrates from their own cell walls.

(B) They synthesize chlorophyll to produce carbohydrates.

(C) They produce carbohydrates by breaking down chitin.

(D) They acquire carbohydrates from other organic matter, both living and dead.

15. The passage mentions shrimps, spiders, and insects in line 11 because their skeletons

(A) can be destroyed by fungi

(B) have unusual chemical compositions

(C) contain a material found in the walls of fungal cells

(D) secrete the same enzymes as the walls of fungal cells do

16. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A) "chlorophyll" (line 6)

(B) "polymer" (line 10)

(C) "hyphae" (line 14)

(D) "enzymes" (line 15)

17. The word "those" in line 16 refers to

(A) tips

(B) hyphae

(C) enzymes

(D) walls

18. Fungi have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT

(A) They grow hyphae.

(B) They secrete enzymes.

(C) They synthesize cellulose.

(D) They destroy crops.

19. The word "Entire" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) certain

(B) whole

(C) mature

(D) diseased

20. The passage describes the negative effects of fungi on all the following EXCEPT

(A) buildings

(B) animals

(C) food

(D) soil

21. The phrase "bring about" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) cause

(B) join

(C) take

(D) include

22. The passage mentions "penicillin" in line 29 as an example of

(A) a medicine derived from plants

(B) a beneficial use of fungi

(C) a product of the relationship between plants and fungi

(D) a type of fungi that grows at extreme temperatures.

Questions 23-33

The history of clinical nutrition, or the study of the relationship between health and how the body takes in and utilizes food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first began in the nineteenth century and extended into the early twentieth century when it was recognized for the first time that food contained constituents that were essential for human function and that different foods provided different amounts of these essential agents. Near the end of this era, research studies demonstrated that rapid weight loss was associated with nitrogen imbalance and could only be rectified by providing adequate dietary protein associated with certain foods.

(11)  The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century and might be called "the vitamin period." Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, and deficiency syndromes were described. As vitamins became recognized as essential food constituents necessary for health, it became tempting to suggest that every disease and condition for which there had been no previous effective treatment might be responsive to vitamin therapy. At that point in time, medical schools started to become more interested in having their curricula integrate nutritional concepts into the basic sciences. Much of the focus of this education was on the recognition of vitamin deficiency symptoms. Herein lay the beginning of what ultimately turned from ignorance to denial of the value of nutritional therapies in medicine. Reckless claims were made for effects of vitamins that went far beyond what could actually be achieved from the use of them.

(24)  In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950's to mid-1960's, vitamin therapy began to fall into disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education in medical schools also became less popular. It was just a decade before this that many drug companies had found their vitamin sales skyrocketing and were quick to supply practicing physicians with generous samples of vitamins and literature extolling the virtue of supplementation for a variety of health-related conditions. Expectations as to the success of vitamins in disease control were exaggerated. As is known in retrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies are much less effective when applied to health-crisis conditions than when applied to long-term problems of under nutrition that lead to chronic health problems.

23. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The effects of vitamins on the human body

(B) The history of food preferences from the nineteenth century to the present

(C) The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study

(D) Nutritional practices of the nineteenth century

24. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following discoveries was made during the first era in the history of nutrition?

(A) Protein was recognized as an essential component of diet.

(B) Vitamins were synthesized from foods.

(C) Effective techniques of weight loss were determined.

(D) Certain foods were found to be harmful to good health.

25. The word "tempting" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) necessary

(B) attractive

(C) realistic

(D) correct

26. It can be inferred from the passage that medical schools began to teach concepts of nutrition in order to

(A) convince medical doctors to participate in research studies on nutrition

(B) encourage medical doctors to apply concepts of nutrition in the treatment of disease

(C) convince doctors to conduct experimental vitamin therapies on their patients

(D) support the creation of artificial vitamins

27. The word "Reckless" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) recorded

(B) irresponsible

(C) informative

(D) urgent

28. The word "them" in line 23 refers to

(A) therapies

(B) claims

(C) effects

(D) vitamins

29. Why did vitamin therapy begin losing favor in the 1950's

(A) The public lost interest in vitamins.

(B) Medical schools stopped teaching nutritional concepts.

(C) Nutritional research was of poor quality

(D) Claims for the effectiveness of vitamin therapy were seen to be exaggerated.

30. The phrase "concomitant with" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) in conjunction with

(B) prior to

(C) in dispute with

(D) in regard to

31. The word "skyrocketing" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) internationally popular

(B) increasing rapidly

(C) acceptable

(D) surprising

32. The word "extolling" in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) analyzing

(B) questioning

(C) praising

(D) promising

33. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses

(A) the fourth era of nutrition history

(B) problems associated with undernutrition

(C)how drug companies became successful

(D) why nutrition education lost its appeal

Questions 34-43

The observation of the skies has played a special part in the lives and cultures of peoples since the earliest of times. Evidence obtained from a site known as the Hole in the Rock, in Papago Park in Phoenix, Arizona, indicates that it might have been used as an observatory by a prehistoric people known as the Hohokam. The physical attributes of the site allow its use as a natural calendar/clock. The "hole" at Hole in the Rock is formed by two large overhanging rocks coming together at a point, creating a shelter with an opening large enough for several persons to pass through. The northeast-facing overhang has a smaller opening in its roof. It is this smaller hole that produces the attributes that may have been used as a calendar/clock.

(12)  Because of its location in the shelter's roof, a beam of sunlight can pass through this second hole and cast a spot onto the shelter's wall and floor. This spot of light travels from west to east as the sun moves across the sky. It also moves from north to south and back again as the Earth travels around the Sun. the west-to-east movement could have been used to establish a daily clock, much like a sundial, while the north-to-south movement could have been used to establish a seasonal calendar.

(19)  The spot first appears and starts down the surface of the wall of the shelter at different times of the morning depending on the time of the year. The spot grows in size from its first appearance until its maximum size is achieved roughly at midday. It then continues its downward movement until it reaches a point where it jumps to the floor of the shelter. As the Sun continues to move to the west, the spot continues to move across the shelter floor and down the butte, or hill, toward a group of small boulders. If a person is seated on a certain one of these rocks as the spot reaches it, the Sun can be viewed through the calendar hole. This occurs at different times in the afternoon depending on the time of year.

34. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Observations of the stars by ancient people

(B) Rock formations of Arizona

(C) A site used by ancient people to measure time

(D) The movement of the Earth around the Sun

35. The word "obtained" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) acquired

(B) transported

(C) covered

(D) removed

36. The word "attributes" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) changes

(B) characteristics

(C) locations

(D) dimensions

37. The word "its" in line 12 refers to

(A) roof

(B) beam

(C) hole

(D) spot

38. The word "establish" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) create

(B) locate

(C) consult

(D) choose

39. Which of the following is NOT true of the spot of light?

(A) It is caused by sunlight passing through a hole.

(B) It travels across the roof of the shelter.

(C) Its movement is affected by the position of the Sun.

(D) It movement could have been used to estimate the time of day.

40. From which of the following can be the time of year be determined?

(A) The movement of the spot of light from west to east

(B) The speed with which the spot of light moves

(C) The movement of the spot of light from north to south

(D) The size of the sport of light at midday

41. The word "roughly" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) finally

(B) harshly

(C) uneasily

(D) approximately

42. The passage mentions that the Hole in the Rock was used as all of the following EXCEPT

(A) a calendar

(B) a home

(C) a clock

(D) an observatory

43. Which of the following can be inferred from the fourth paragraph?

(A) The boulders are located below the rock shelter.

(B) The person seated on the rock cannot see the shelter.

(C) After it passes the boulders, the spot of light disappears.

(D) The spot of light is largest when it first appears.

Questions 44-50

By the turn of the century, the middle-class home in North American had been transformed. "The flow of industry has passed and left idle the loom in the attic, the soap kettle in the shed," Ellen Richards wrote in 1908. The urban middle class was now able to buy a wide array of food products and clothing-baked goods, canned goods, suits, shirts, shoes, and dresses. Not only had household production waned, but technological improvements were rapidly changing the rest of domestic work. Middle-class homes had indoor running water and furnaces, run on oil, coal, or gas, that produced hot water. Stoves were fueled by gas, and delivery services provided ice for refrigerators. Electric power was available for lamps, sewing machines, irons, and even vacuum cleaners. No domestic task was unaffected. Commercial laundries, for instance, had been doing the wash for urban families for decades; by the early 1900's the first electric washing machines were on the market.

(15)  On impact of the new household technology was to raw sharp dividing lines between women of different classes and regions. Technological advances always affected the homes of the wealthy first, filtering downward into the urban middle class. But women who lived on farms were not yet affected by household improvements. Throughout the nineteenth century and well into the twentieth, rural homes lacked running water and electric power. Farm women had to haul large quantities of water into the house from wells or pumps for every purpose. Doing the family laundry, in large vats heated over stoves, continued to be a full day's work, just as canning and preserving continued to be seasonal necessities. Heat was provided by wood or coal stoves. In addition, rural women continued to produce most of their families' clothing. The urban poor, similarly, reaped few benefits from household improvements. Urban slums such as Chicago's nineteenth ward often had no sewers, garbage collection, or gas or electric lines; and tenements lacked both running water and central heating. At the turn of the century, variations in the nature of women's domestic work were probably more marked than at any time before.

44. What is the main topic of the passage?

(A) The creation of the urban middle class

(B) Domestic work at the turn of the century

(C) The spread of electrical power in the United States

(D) Overcrowding in American cities.

45. According to the passage, what kind of fuel was used in a stove in a typical middle-class household?

(A) oil

(B) coat

(C) gas

(D) wood

46. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a household convenience in the passage?

(A) the electric fan

(B) the refrigerator

(C) the electric light

(D) the washing machine

47. According to the passage, who were the first beneficiaries of technological advances?

(A) Farm women

(B) The urban poor

(C) The urban middle class

(D) The wealthy

48. The word "reaped" in line 27 is closest in meaning to

(A) gained

(B) affected

(C) wanted

(D) accepted

49. Which of the following best characterizes the passage's organization?

(A) analysis of a quotation

(B) chronological narrative

(C) extended definition

(D) comparison and contrast

50. Where in the passage does the author discuss conditions in poor urban neighborhoods?

(A) lines 4-6

(B) lines 7-9

(C) lines 10-12

(D) lines 27-30

1999年10月语法题

1. Fingerprints form an unchangeable signature, and _____ for identification, despite changes in the individual’s appearance or age.

(A) the use of fingerprint records

(B) with the use of fingerprint records

(C) when fingerprint records are used

(D) fingerprint records can be used

答案：D

分析：A 指纹无法form use，and引导的并列成分是unchangeable signature和use; B,

D找不到并列成分；D and连接两个句子。

参考译文：虽然一个人的外貌和年龄会改变，但是指纹能构成不可更改的签名，而且

指纹记录还可以用作鉴定。

2. Animals obtain their energy from ___.

(A) eat their food

(B) their food to eat

(C) the food they eat

(D) they eat the food

答案：C

分析：空格中应该填上介词from的宾语。A eat是动词原型，肯定不对；B to eat 不

对，这里无法用主动形式表达被动；D是一个完整的句子；C they eat做food的定语，

省略了that, 正确。

参考译文：动物从它们所吃的食物中摄取能量。

3. Liquid water has fewer hydrogen bonds than ice; so more molecules can occupy the same space, making liquid water __ than ice.

(A) more dense

(B) is more dense

(C) more than dense

(D) as more dense

答案：A

分析：这里用到make sb(sth) adj.的形式，并且后面有than前面一定要有比较级，

很容易选出正确答案A。用排除法也很好做：B make 和is谓语重复；C than重复；

D as一般和形容词原型搭配，并且和than 也不构成搭配

参考译文：液态水比冰的水分子的结合力小，所以在同样大小的空间中有更多的分子

占据，使得液态水比冰的密度大。

4. It is difficult for present-day readers ___ Sister Carrie was withdrawn from circulation at the turn of the century.

(A) to understand the novel why

(B) why to understand the novel

(C) the novel to understand why

(D) to understand why the novel

5. Historical linguists study__ over time.

(A) languages evolve

(B) whether languages evolution

(C) how languages evolve

(D) evolution that languages

6. Tennis star Chris Evert, who retired from the game after eighteen years, perhaps __ more than anyone to make women’s professional tennis a widely respected career.

(A) who did

(B) has done

(C) and doing

(D) to do

7. The daytime _____ bright because the Earth’s atmosphere scatters sunlight.

(A) while sky is

(B) has a sky

(C) sky is

(D) for the sky

8. Edward Hopper’s paintings portray the loneliness and isolation of the individuals _____.

(A) is in an urbanized society

(B) in society is urbanized

(C) who in an urbanized society

(D) in an urbanized society

9. Braille, _____ printing reading materials for use by people who are blind, consists of a system of raised points or dots that are read by touch.

(A) is a method of

(B) a method of

(C) which a method of

(D) a method is of

10. The art of landscape architecture is almost as old __ of architecture itself.

(A) as that

(B) than

(C) as

(D) than that

11. The development of synthetic fibers after 1940 led to the production of new types of fabrics _____ more durable and easier to care for.

(A) that they were

(B) that were

(C) were

(D) and were

12. Until the eighteenth century, charcoal was _____ used in blast furnaces, as well as in glassmaking, blacksmithing, and metalworking.

(A) what the chief fuel

(B) the chief fuel that

(C) the chief fuel was

(D) the chief fuel

13. Pure iron cannot be hardened by heating and cooling, as __, because iron lacks the necessary carbon.

(A) steel it can

(B) can steel

(C) with steel can

(D) so can steel

答案：B

分析： A如果as做介词，那么it can多余，如果做连词句子应该倒装，并且无论

如何steel和it都是重复的成分；C with多余，无论as做介词和连词它都无法担任

成分; D so 多余; B 主谓倒装，正确。

参考译文：纯铁无法象钢一样通过加热和冷却来硬化，因为铁缺少必要的炭成分。

14. Rapids and waterfalls, ______ along virtually all Massachusetts waterways, provided power in colonial times for grist and saw mills and later for textile mills.

(A) common

(B) were common

(C) which, being common

(D) being common, were

答案：A

分析：句子前后主谓均完整，中间要末是同位语，要末是从句，要末是其他独立成

份。B, D都使得谓语重复；C从句成分不完整，无谓语；A 省略being，这个部分

做插入语，正确。

参考译文：急流和瀑布在马萨诸塞水路沿线很常见，在殖民时代为碾谷和锯木以及

后来的织造工厂提供了动力。

15. Airsickness is produced by a disturbance of the inner car, ______ psychogenic factors, such as fear, also play a part.

(A) in spite of

(B) neither

(C) nor

(D) although

答案：D

分析：前面主句完整，空格后面也有完整的主谓语，一定是从句，四个选项中只有

D可以引导从句。A in spite of是介词；B, C也都不能引导从句。

参考译文：晕机是因为机舱里面的颠簸造成的，虽然心理遗传因素诸如恐惧等也有

一定原因。

16. A large collections of materials focused on Louisiana’s history and culture is provided by the Williams Reseach Center in New Orleans.

17. Mary Austin’s first book, The Land of little Rain, a description of desert life in the western United States, won she immediate fame in 1903.

18. The most abundant phosphate mineral, apatite, includes several type that vary in their content of fluorine, chlorine, or hydroxyl ions.

19. Having gained a reputation as a daring, intrepid journalist, Nellie Bly became the first female report assigned to the Eastern front during the First World War.

20. In 1862 Abraham Lincoln signed the Homestead Act, allows settlers 160 acres of free land after they had worked it for five years.

21. Alone with the other physical sciences, meteorology has developed in the past three centuries from myth and folklore to rigorous observation, computation, analyze.

22. In 1973 the United States armed forces were placed on an all-volunteer basis for a first time since 1984.

23. Because lions do not have exceptional speedy, they must rely on the element of surprise for the hunt.

24. The position of the earth’s magnetic poles is not constant but shows an appreciable change after year to year.

25. Grassland vegetation reduces competition for water among species by concentrates roots at different levels.

26. Like the giant reptiles, most lineages of organisms have eventually become extinct; still some exist that have changed very little in millions of year.

27. Demonstrations public are an effective means by which advocacy groups can bring inequalities to the attention of local, state and federal officials.

28. Methods used in preparing articles for an encyclopedia differs, depending on the length of the article.

29. Since the advent of rock music in the 1950’s the popular music of the United States has become a significant musical influence around world.

30. Cloud droplets and ice crystals first form on certain types of small particles of dust or another airborne materials.

31. Male fiddler crabs have huge claws that move back and forth similar violinists move their arms when playing the violin.

32. Daylight saving time came into useful in the United States in an effort to conserve electricity by having business hours correspond to the hours of natural daylight。

33. Almost every fruits and vegetables contain riboflavin; the richest sources are leafy green vegetables such as spinach, kale, or turnip greens.

34. Gold lends itself to the making of decorative articles because of its great resistant to corrosion and tarnish and its ease of working.

35. Ethics is the branch of philosophy that deals with the values of life in a coherent, systematic, and science manner.

36. Indiscriminately dumping of waste materials and inadequate sewage treatment are two serious causes of environmental pollution.

37. The builders of the variety ancient cliff ruins scattered throughout the canyons and mesas of the arid Southwest of the United States are known as the cliff dwellers.

38. A fragrant plant has tiny sacs that makes and stores the substances that give it a pleasant odor.

39. Nomadic hunter and gatherer societies have access to only a limited amount of food in an area and moved on when they have exhausted each locality.

40. Collagen, a strong rubbery protein, supports the earflaps and the tip of nose in humans.

Questions 1-10

Potash (the old name for potassium carbonate) is one of the two alkalis (the other being soda, sodium carbonate) that were used from remote antiquity in the making of glass, and from the early Middle Ages in the making of soap: the former being the product of heating a mixture of alkali and sand, the latter a product of alkali and vegetable oil. Their importance in the communities of colonial North America need hardly be stressed.

(8)     Potash and soda are not interchangeable for all purposes, but for glass or soap-making either would do. Soda was obtained largely from the ashes of certain Mediterranean sea plants, potash from those of inland vegetation. Hence potash was more familiar to the early European settlers of the North American continent.

(13)  The settlement at Jamestown in Virginia was in many ways a microcosm of the economy of colonial North America, and potash was one of its first concerns. It was required for the glassworks, the first factory in the British colonies, and was produced in sufficient quantity to permit the inclusion of potash in the first cargo shipped out of Jamestown. The second ship to arrive in the settlement from England included among its passengers experts in potash making.

(20)  The method of making potash was simple enough. Logs was piled up and burned in the open, and the ashes collected. The ashes were placed in a barrel with holes in the bottom, and water was poured over them. The solution draining from the barrel was boiled down in iron kettles. The resulting mass was further heated to fuse the mass into what was called potash.

(26)  In North America, potash making quickly became an adjunct to the clearing of land for agriculture, for it was estimated that as much as half the cost of clearing land could be recovered by the sale of potash. Some potash was exported from Maine and New Hampshire in the seventeenth century, but the market turned out to be mainly domestic, consisting mostly of shipments from the northern to the southern colonies. For despite the beginning of the trade at Jamestown and such encouragements as a series of acts "to encourage the making of potash," beginning in 1707 in South Carolina, the softwoods in the South proved to be poor sources of the substance.

1. What aspect of potash does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) How it was made

(B) Its value as a product for export

(C) How it differs from other alkalis

(D) Its importance in colonial North America

2. All of the following statements are true of both potash and soda EXPECT:

(A) They are alkalis.

(B) They are made from sea plants.

(C) They are used in making soap.

(D) They are used in making glass.

3. They phrase "the latter" in line 5 refers to

(A) alkali

(B) glass

(C) sand

(D) soap

4. The word "stressed" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) defined

(B) emphasized

(C) adjusted

(D) mentioned

5. The word "interchangeable" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) convenient

(B) identifiable

(C) equivalent

(D) advantageous

6. It can be inferred from the passage that potash was more common than soda in colonial North America because

(A) the materials needed for making soda were not readily available

(B) making potash required less time than making soda

(C) potash was better than soda for making glass and soap

(D) the colonial glassworks found soda more difficult to use

7. According to paragraph 4, all of the following were needed for making potash EXCEPT

(A) wood

(B) fire

(C) sand

(D) water

8. The word "adjunct" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) addition

(B) answer

(C) problem

(D) possibility

9. According to the passage, a major benefit of making potash was that

(A) it could be exported to Europe in exchange for other goods

(B) it helped finance the creation of farms

(C) it could be made with a variety of materials

(D) stimulated the development of new ways of glassmaking

10. According to paragraph 5, the softwoods in the South posed which of the following problems for southern settles?

(A) The softwoods were not very plentiful.

(B) The softwoods could not be used to build houses.

(C) The softwoods were not very marketable.

(D) The softwoods were not very useful for making potash.

Questions 11-21

The first flying vertebrates were true reptiles in which one of the fingers of the front limbs became very elongated, providing support for a flap of stretched skin that served as a wing. These were the pterosaurs, literally the "winged lizards." The earliest pterosaurs arose near the end of the Triassic period of the Mesozoic Era, some 70 million years before the first known fossils of true birds occur, and they presumably dominated the skies until they were eventually displaced by birds. Like the dinosaurs,  some the pterosaurs became gigantic; the largest fossil discovered is of an individual that had a wingspan of 50 feet or more, larger than many airplanes. These flying reptiles had large, tooth-filled jaws, but their bodies were small and probably without the necessary powerful muscles for sustained wing movement. They must have been expert gliders, not skillful fliers, relying on wind power for their locomotion.

(14)  Birds, despite sharing common reptilian ancestors with pterosaurs, evolved quite separately and have been much more successful in their dominance of the air. They are an example of a common theme in evolution, the more or less parallel development of different types of body structure and function for the same reason-in this case, for flight. Although the fossil record, as always, is not complete enough to determine definitively the evolutionary lineage of the birds or in as much detail as one would like, it is better in this case than for many other animal groups. That is because of the unusual preservation in a limestone quarry in southern Germany of Archaeopteryx, a fossil that many have called the link between dinosaurs and birds. Indeed, had it not been for the superb preservation of these fossils, they might well have been classified as dinosaurs. They have the skull and teeth of a reptile as well as a bony tail, but in the line-grained limestone in which these fossils occur there are delicate impressions of feathers and fine details of bone structure that make it clear that Archaeopteryx was a bird. All birds living today, from the great condors of the Andes to the tiniest wrens, race their origin back to the Mesozoic dinosaurs.

11. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Characteristics of pterosaur wings

(B) The discovery of fossil remains of Archaeopteryx

(C) Reasons for the extinction of early flying vertebrates

(D) The development of flight in reptiles and birds

12. Which of the following is true of early reptile wings?

(A) They evolved from strong limb muscles.

(B) They consisted of an extension of skin.

(C) They connected the front and back limbs.

(D) They required fingers of equal length.

13. The word "literally" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) creating

(B) meaning

(C) related to

(D) simplified

14. It can be inferred from the passage that birds were probably dominant in the skies

(A) in the early Triassic period

(B) before the appearance of pterosaurs

(C) after the decline of pterosaurs

(D) before dinosaurs could be found on land.

15. The author mentions airplanes in line 10 in order to

(A) illustrate the size of wingspans in some pterosaurs

(B) compare the energy needs of dinosaurs with those of modern machines

(C) demonstrate the differences between mechanized flight and animal flight

(D) establish the practical applications of the study of fossils

16. The word "They" in line 12 refers to

(A) powerful muscles

(B) bodies

(C) jaws

(D) flying reptiles

17. According to the passage, pterosaurs were probably "not skillful fliers" (line 12) because

(A) of their limited wingspan

(B) of their disproportionately large bodies

(C) they lacked muscles needed for extended flight

(D) climate conditions of the time provided insufficient wind power

18. In paragraph 2, the author discusses the development of flight in birds as resulting from

(A) a similarity in body structure to pterosaurs

(B) an evolution from pterosaurs

(C) the dominance of birds and pterosaurs over land animals

(D) a separate but parallel development process to that of pterosaurs

19. The word "classified" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) perfected

(B) replaced

(C) categorized

(D) protected

20. Which of the following helped researchers determine that Archaeopteryx was not a dinosaurs?

(A) Its tail

(B) Its teeth

(C) The shape of its skull

(D) Details of its bone structure

21. What is the significance of the discovery that was made in southern Germany?

(A) It is thought to demonstrate that birds evolved from dinosaurs.

(B) It is proof that the climate and soils of Europe have changed over time.

(C) It suggests that dinosaurs were dominant in areas rich in limestone.

(D)It supports the theory that Archaeopteryx was a powerful dinosaur.

Questions 22-31

In July of 1994, an astounding series of events took place. The world anxiously watched as, every few hours, a hurtling chunk of comet plunged into the atmosphere of Jupiter. All of the twenty-odd fragments, collectively called comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 after its discoverers, were once part of the same object, now dismembered and strung out along the same orbit. This cometary train, glistening like a string of pearls, had been first glimpsed only a few months before its fateful impact with Jupiter, and rather quickly scientists had predicted that the fragments were on a collision course with the giant planet. The impact caused an explosion clearly visible from Earth, a bright flaming fire that quickly expanded as each icy mass incinerated itself. When each fragment slammed at 60 kilometers per second into the dense atmosphere, its immense kinetic energy was transformed into heat, producing a superheated fireball that was ejected back through the tunnel the fragment had made a few seconds earlier. The residues from these explosions left huge black marks on the face of Jupiter, some of which have stretched out to form dark ribbons.

(17)  Although this impact event was of considerable scientific import, it especially piqued public curiosity and interest. Photographs of each collision made the evening television newscast and were posted on the Internet. This was possibly the most open scientific endeavor in history. The face of the largest planet in the solar system was changed before our very eyes. And for the very first time, most of humanity came to fully appreciate the fact that we ourselves live on a similar target, a world subject to catastrophe by random assaults from celestial bodies. That realization was a surprise to many, but it should not have been. One of the great truths revealed by the last few decades of planetary exploration is that collisions between bodies of al sizes are relatively commonplace, at least in geologic terms, and were even more frequent in the early solar system.

22. The passage mentions which of the following with respect to the fragments of comet Shoemaker-Levy 9?

(A) They were once combine in a larger body.

(B) Some of them burned up before entering the atmosphere of Jupiter.

(C) Some of them are still orbiting Jupiter.

(D) They have an unusual orbit.

23. The word "collectively" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) respectively

(B) popularly

(C) also

(D) together

24. The author compares the fragments of comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 to all of the following EXCEPT

(A) a dismembered body

(B) a train

(C) a pearl necklace

(D) a giant planet

25. Before comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 hit Jupiter in July 1994, scientists

(A) had been unaware of its existence

(B) had been tracking it for only a few months

(C) had observed its breakup into twenty-odd fragments

(D) had decided it would not collide with the planet

26. Before the comet fragments entered the atmosphere of Jupiter, they were most likely

(A) invisible

(B) black

(C) frozen

(D) exploding

27. Superheated fireballs were produced as soon as the fragments of comet shoemaker-Levy 9

(A) hit the surface of Jupiter

(B) were pulled into Jupiter's orbit

(C) were ejected back through the tunnel

(D) entered the atmosphere of Jupiter

28. The phrase "incinerated itself" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) burned up

(B) broke into smaller pieces

(C) increased its speed

(D) grew in size

29. Which of the following is mentioned as evidence of the explosions that is still visible on Jupiter?

(A) fireballs

(B) ice masses

(C) black marks

(D) tunnels

30. Paragraph 2 discusses the impact of the comet Shoemaker-levy 9 primarily in terms of

(A) its importance as an event of-great scientific significance

(B) its effect on public awareness of the possibility of damage to Earth

(C) the changes it made to the surface of Jupiter

(D) the effect it had on television broadcasting

31. The "target" in line 23 most probably referred to

(A) Earth

(B) Jupiter

(C) the solar system

(D) a comet

Questions 32-42

The year 1850 may be considered the beginning of a new epoch in America art, with respect to the development of watercolor painting. In December of that year, a group of thirty artists gathered in the studio of John Falconer in New York City and drafted both a constitution and bylaws, establishing The Society for the Promotion of Painting in Water Color. In addition to securing an exhibition space in the Library Society building in lower Manhattan, the society founded a small school for the instruction of watercolor painting Periodic exhibitions of the members' paintings also included works by noted English artists of the day, borrowed from embryonic private collections in the city. The society's activities also included organized sketching excursions along he Hudson River. Its major public exposure came in 1853, when the society presented works by its members in the "Industry of All Nations" section of the Crystal Palace Exposition in New York.

(15)  The society did not prosper, however, and by the time of its annual meeting in 1854 membership had fallen to twenty-one. The group gave up its quarters in the Library Society building and returned to Falconer's studio, where it broke up amid dissension. No further attempt to formally organize the growing numbers of watercolor painters in New York City was made for more than a decade. During that decade, though, Henry Warren's Painting in Water Color was published in New York City in 1856-the book was a considerable improvement over the only other manual of instruction existing at the time, Elements of Graphic Art, by Archibald Roberson, published in 1802 and by the 1850's long out of print.

In 1866 the National Academy of Design was host to an exhibition of watercolor painting in its elaborate neo-Venetian Gothic building on Twenty-Third Street in New York City. The exhibit was sponsored by an independent group called The Artists Fund Society. Within a few months of this event, forty-two prominent artists living in and near New York City founded The American Society of Painters in Water Colors.

32. This passage is mainly about

(A) the most influential watercolor painters in the mid-1800's

(B) efforts to organize watercolor painters in New York City during the mid-1800's

(C) a famous exhibition of watercolor paintings in New York City in the mid-1800's

(D) styles of watercolor painting in New York City during the mid-1800's

33. The year 1850 was significant in the history of watercolor painting mainly because

(A) a group of artists established a watercolor-painting society

(B) watercolor painting was first introduced to New York City

(C) John Falconer established his studio for watercolor painters

(D) The first book on watercolor painting was published

34. The word "securing" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) locking

(B) creating

(C) constructing

(D) acquiring

35. All of the following can be inferred about the Society for the promotion of Painting in Water Color EXCEPT:

(A) The society exhibited paintings in lower Manhattan.

(B) Instruction in watercolor painting was offered by members of the society

(C) The society exhibited only the paintings of its members.

(D) Scenes of the Hudson River appeared often in the work of society members.

36. The exhibition at the Crystal Palace of the works of the Society for the Promotion of Painting in

Water Color was significant for which of the following reasons?

(A) It resulted in a dramatic increase in the popularity of painting with watercolor.

(B) It was the first time an exhibition was funded by a private source.

(C) It was the first important exhibition of the society's work.

(D) It resulted in a large increase in the membership of the society.

37. The word "it" in line 18 refers to

(A) time

(B) group

(C) building

(D) studio

38. Which of the following is true of watercolor painters in New York City in the late 1850's?

(A) They increased in number despite a lack of formal organization.

(B) They were unable to exhibit their paintings because of the lack of exhibition space.

(C) The Artists Fund Society helped them to form The American Society of Painters in Water Colors.

(D) They formed a new society because they were not allowed to join groups run by other kinds of artists.

39. Henry Warren's Painting in Water Color was important to artists because it

(A) received an important reward

(B) was the only textbook published that taught painting

(C) was much better than an earlier published

(D) attracted the interest of art collectors

40. The word "considerable" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) sensitive

(B) great

(C) thoughtful

(D) planned

41. The year 1866 was significant for watercolor painting for which of the following reasons?

(A) Elements of Graphic Art was republished.

(B) Private collections of watercolors were first publicly exhibited.

(C) The neo-Venetian Gothic building on Twenty-Third Street in New York City was built.

(D) The National Academy of Design held an exhibition of watercolor paintings.

42. The word "prominent" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) wealthy

(B) local

(C) famous

(D) organized

Questions 43-50

Pennsylvania's colonial ironmasters forged iron and a revolution that had both industrial and political implications. The colonists in North America wanted the right to the profits gained from their manufacturing. However, England wanted all of the colonies' rich ores and raw materials to feed its own factories, and also wanted the colonies to be a market for its finished goods. England passed legislation in 1750 to prohibit colonists from making finished iron products, but by 1771, when entrepreneur Mark Bird established the Hopewell blast furnace in Pennsylvania, iron making had become the backbone of American industry. It also had become one of the major issues that fomented the revolutionary break between England and the British colonies. By the time the War of Independence broke out in 1776, Bird, angered and determined, was manufacturing cannons and shot at Hopewell to be used by the Continental Army.

(14)  After the war, Hopewell, along with hundreds of other "iron plantations," continued to form the new nation's industrial foundation well into the nineteenth century. The rural landscape became dotted with tall stone pyramids that breathed flames and smoke, charcoal-fueled iron furnaces that produced the versatile metal so crucial to the nation's growth. Generations of ironmasters, craftspeople, and workers produced goods during war and peace-ranging from cannons and shot to domestic items such as cast-iron stoves, pots, and sash weights for windows.

(22)  The region around Hopewell had everything needed for iron production: a wealth of iron ore near the surface, limestone for removing impurities from the iron, hardwood forests to supply the charcoal used for fuel, rushing water to power the bellows that pumped blasts of air into the furnace fires, and workers to supply the labor. By the 1830's, Hopewell had developed a reputation for producing high quality cast-iron stoves, for which there was a steady market. As Pennsylvania added more links to its transportation system of roads, canals, and railroads, it became easier to ship parts made by Hopewell workers to sites all over the east coast. There they were assembled into stoves and sold from Rhode Island to Maryland as the "Hopewell stove". By the time the last fires burned out at Hopewell ironworks in 1883, the community had produced some 80,000 cast-iron stoves.

43. The word "implications" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) significance

(B) motives

(C) foundations

(D) progress

44. It can be inferred that the purpose of the legislation passed by England in 1750 was to

(A) reduce the price of English-made iron goods sold in the colonies

(B) prevent the outbreak of the War of Independence

(C) require colonists to buy manufactured

(D) keep the colonies from establishing new markets for their raw materials.

45. The author compares iron furnaces to which of the following?

(A) Cannons

(B) Pyramids

(C) Pots

(D) Windows

46. The word "rushing" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) reliable

(B) fresh

(C) appealing

(D) rapid

47. Pennsylvania was an ideal location for the Hopewell ironworks for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

(A) Many workers were available in the area.

(B) The center of operations of the army was nearby.

(C) The metal ore was easy to acquire

(D) There was an abundance of wood.

48. The passage mentions "roads, canals, and railroads" in line 29 in order to explain that

(A)improvements in transportation benefited the Hopewell ironworks

(B) iron was used in the construction of various types of transportation

(C) the transportation system of Pennsylvania was superior to that of other states.

(D) Hopewell never became a major transportation center

49. The word "they" in line 31 refers to

(A) links

(B) parts

(C) workers

(D) sites

50. The word "some" in line 33 is closest in meaning to

(A) only

(B) a maximum of

(C) approximately

(D) a variety of

2000年01月语法题

1. Amanda Way’s career as a social reformer ____ in 1851 when, at an antislavery meeting in Indiana, she called for a state woman’s rights convention.

(A) begin

(B) began

(C) have begun

(D) to have begun

2. The celesta, an orchestral percussion instrument, resembles ___

(A) a small upright piano

(B) how a small upright piano

(C) a small upright piano is

(D) as a small upright piano

3. Thomas Paine, _____, wrote Common Sense, a pamphlet that identified the American colonies with the cause of liberty.

(A) writer of eloquent

(B) whose eloquent writing

(C) an eloquent writer

(D) writing eloquent

4. Although beavers rarely remain submerged for more than two minutes, they can stay underwater ___fifteen minutes before having to surface for air.

(A) as long

(B) as long as

(C) so long

(D) so long that

5. Protein digestion begins in the stomach __ ends in the small intestine.

(A) while

(B) and

(C) how

(D) because

6. When natural gas burns, its ___ into atoms of carbon and hydrogen.

(A) hydrocarbon molecules, breaking up

(B) broke up by hydrocarbon molecules

(C) hydrocarbon molecules break up

(D) broken up hydrocarbon molecules

7. __ ballet dancers learn five basic positions for the arms and feet.

(A) All of

(B) Of every

(C) All

(D) Every

8. Some colonies of bryozoans, small marine animals, form ___with trailing stems.

(A) creeping colonies

(B) which colonies creep

(C) creeping colonies are

(D) colonies creep

9. Ruth Bader Ginsburg argued six women’s rights cases before the United States Supreme Court in the 1970’s,____

(A) of five winning them

(B) five winning of them

(C) of them five winning

(D) winning five of them

10. Natural selection is defined as the process ___ the course of evolution by preserving those traits best adapted for an organism’s survival.

(A) to which directs

(B) of which directs it

(C) directs it

(D) that directs

11. ____ 363 miles between the cities of Albany and Buffalo in New York State, the Eric Canal helped link the Atlantic Ocean with the Great Lakes.

(A) The extension of

(B) The extension

(C) Extending

(D) Extends

12. The chief sources of B12, a water-soluble vitamin __stored in the body, include meat, milk and eggs.

(A) is not

(B) that is not

(C) not that is

(D) that not

13. ____ is rooted in experiments in iron and steel conducted in the nineteenth century.

(A) While the history of twentieth-century architecture

(B) The history of twentieth-century architecture

(C) That the history of twentieth-century architecture

(D) Both twentieth-century architecture and its history

14. The primary source of energy for tropical cyclones is the latent heat released when ____

(A) does water vapor condense

(B) condensed water vapor

(C) water vapor condenses

(D) the condensation of water vapor

15. Manufacturing is Canada’s most important economic activity, ____17 percent of the workforce.

(A) engages

(B) and to engage

(C) that it engage

(D) engaging

16. The outer layer of the heart, called the pericardium, forms a sac in what the heart lies.

17. Wood from the ash tree becomes extremely flexibly when it is exposed to steam.

18. The ability to talk is one of the skill that make humans different from the rest of the animal world.

19. In plane geometry, the sum of the internal angles of any triangle has always equal to 180 degrees.

20. Polar bears are bowlegged and pigeon-toed, adaptations that enable this massive animals to maintain their balance as they walk.

21. Caves are formed by the chemical or action mechanical of water on soluble rock, by volcanic activity, and by earthquakes.

22. Celery, an edible plant is having long stalks topped with feathery leaves, grows best in cool weather.

23. The first fiction writer in the United States to achieve international fame was Washington Irving, who wrote many stories, included “Rip Van Winkle” and “The Legend of Sleepy Hollow”.

24. Three fundamental aspects of forest conversation are the protection of immature trees, the use of proper harvesting methods, and provide for an

environment that supports reproduction.

25. For each enzyme reaction there is an optimum temperature which maximum efficiency is achieved.

26. Adolescence is a transitional stage in human development from the beginning of puberty to the attainment of the emotion, social, and physical maturity of adulthood.

27. The people native to the northwest coast of North American have long be known for wood carvings of stunning beauty and extraordinary quality.

28. Colonial efforts to manufacture glass at Jamestown---- and later attempts near Philadelphia and Boston---failed despite the abundant of fuel and good raw materials.

29. The orbit of a celestial body is usually in the shape of ellipse.

30. Chicago is the third largest publishing center in the United States, exceeding only by New York City and San Francisco.

31. North American bison differ from domestic cattle in have 14 rather than 13 pairs of ribs.

32. Female sea turtles, before laying her eggs, swim as much as 2,000 kilometers to return to the beaches where they themselves were hatched.

33. Water is the only substance that occur at ordinary temperatures in all three states of matter: solid, liquid and gas.

34. Despite the growth of manufacturing and other industries, the economy of the state of Texas has remained heavily dependence on oil and gas.

35. Lyndon B. Johnson was the only United States President who oath of office was administered by a woman Judge Sarah Tilghman Hughes.

36. It took more than fourteen years to carve the faces of four United States Presidents into the granite cliffs to Mount Rushmore, South Dakota.

37.Charles Bullfinch was the architect who design the original red brick core of the State House in Boston.

38.Rarely has a technological development had as great an impact on as much aspects of social, economic, and cultural development as the growth of electronics.

39. Lowell, Massachusetts, known as the “Spindle City” since 1822 when its first textile mills were built, attracted worldwide attention as textile center.

40.Strange Victory, Sara Teas dale’s smallest and most perfect collection of poems, appear in print in 1933.

Questions 1-10

As Philadelphia grew from a small town into a city in the first half of the eighteenth century, it became an increasingly important marketing center for a vast and growing agricultural hinterland. Market days saw the crowded city even more crowded, as farmers from within a radius of 24 or more kilometers brought their sheep, cows, pigs, vegetables, cider, and other products for direct sale to the townspeople. The High Street Market was continuously enlarged throughout the period until 1736, when it reached from Front street to Third. By 1745 New Market was opened on Second Street between Pine and Cedar. The next year the Callowhill Market began operation. Along with market days, the institution of twice-yearly fairs persisted in Philadelphia even after similar trading days had been discontinued in other colonial cities. The fairs provided a means of bringing handmade goods from outlying places to would-be buyers in the city. Linens and stockings from Germantown, for example, were popular items.

(16)  Auctions were another popular form of occasional trade. Because of the competition, retail merchants opposed these as well as the fairs. Although governmental attempts to eradicate fairs and auctions were less than successful, the ordinary course of economic development was on the merchants' side, as increasing business specialization became the order of the day. Export merchants became differentiated from their importing counterparts, and specialty shops began to appear in ddition to general stores selling a variety of goods. One of the reasons Philadelphia's merchants generally prospered was because the surrounding area was undergoing tremendous economic and demographic growth. They did their business, after all, in the capital city of the province. Not only did they cater to the governor and his circle, but citizens from all over the colony came to the capital for legislative sessions of the assembly and council and meetings of the courts of justice.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Philadelphia's agriculture importance

(B) Philadelphia's development as a marketing center

(C) The sale of imported goods in Philadelphia

(D) The administration of the city of Philadelphia

2. It can be inferred from the passage that new markets opened in Philadelphia because

(A) they provided more modern facilities than older markets.

(B) the High Street Market was forced to close .

(C) existing markets were unable to serve the growing population.

(D) farmers wanted markets that were closer to the farmers.

3. The word "hinterland" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) tradition

(B) association

(C) produce

(D) region

4. The word "it" in line 7 refers to

(A) the crowded city

(B) a radius

(C) the High Street Market

(D) the period

5. The word "persisted" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) returned

(B) started

(C) declined

(D) continued

6. According to the passage, fairs in Philadelphia were held

(A) on the same day as market says

(B) as often as possible

(C) a couple of times a year

(D) whenever the government allowed it

7. It can be inferred that the author mentions "Linens and stockings" in line 14 to show that they were items that

(A) retail merchants were not willing to sell

(B) were not available in the stores in Philadelphia

(C) were more popular in Germantown than in Philadelphia

(D) could easily be transported

8. The word "eradicate" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) eliminate

(B) exploit

(C) organize

(D) operate

9. What does the author mean by stating in line 19 that "economic development was on the merchants' side"?

(A) Merchants had a strong impact on economic expansion.

(B) Economic forces allowed merchants to prosper.

(C) Merchants had to work together to achieve economic independence.

(D) Specialty shops near large markets were more likely to be economically successful.

10. The word "undergoing" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) requesting

(B) experiencing

(C) repeating

(D) including

Questions 11-22

Aviculturists, people who raise birds for commercial sale, have not yet learned how to simulate the natural incubation of parrot eggs in the wild. They continue to look for better ways to increase egg production and to improve chick survival rates.

(5)     When parrots incubate their eggs in the wild, the temperature and humidity of the nest are controlled naturally. Heat is transferred from the bird's skin to the top portion of the eggshell, leaving the sides and bottom of the egg at a cooler temperature. This temperature gradient may be vital to successful hatching. Nest construction can contribute to this temperature gradient. Nests of loosely arranged sticks, rocks, or dirt are cooler in temperature at the bottom where the egg contacts the nesting material. Such nests also act as humidity regulators by allowing rain to drain into the bottom sections of the nest so that the eggs are not in direct contact with the water. As the water that collects in the bottom of the nest evaporates, the water vapor rises and is heated by the incubating bird, which adds significant humidity to the incubation environment.

(17)  In artificial incubation programs, aviculturists remove eggs from the nests of parrots and incubate them under laboratory conditions. Most commercial incubators heat the eggs fairly evenly from top to bottom, thus ignoring the bird's method of natural incubation, and perhaps reducing the viability and survivability of the hatching chicks. When incubators are not used, aviculturists sometimes suspend wooden boxes outdoors to use as nests in which to place eggs. In areas where weather can become cold after eggs are laid, it is very important to maintain a deep foundation of nesting material to act as insulators against the cold bottom of the box. If eggs rest against the wooden bottom in extremely cold weather conditions, they can become chilled to a point where the embryo can no longer survive. Similarly, these boxes should be protected from direct sunlight to avoid high temperatures that are also fatal to the growing embryo. Nesting material should be added in sufficient amount to avoid both extreme temperature situations mentioned above and assure that the eggs have a soft, secure place to rest.

11. What is the main idea of the passage?

(A) Nesting material varies according to the parrots' environment.

(B) Humidity is an important factor in incubating parrots' eggs.

(C) Aviculturists have constructed the ideal nest box for parrots.

(D) Wild parrots' nests provide information useful for artificial incubation.

12. The word "They" in line  3 refers to

(A) aviculturists

(B) birds

(C) eggs

(D) rates

13. According to paragraph 2, when the temperature of the sides and bottom of the egg are cooler than the top, then

(A) there may be a good chance for successful incubation

(B) the embryo will not develop normally

(C) the incubating parent moves the egg to a new position.

(D) the incubation process is slowed down.

14. According to paragraph 2, sticks, rocks, or dirt are used to

(A) soften the bottom of the nest for the newly hatched chick

(B) hold the nest together

(C) help lower the temperature at the bottom of the nest

(D) make the nest bigger

15. According to paragraph 2, the construction of the nest allows water to

(A) provide a beneficial source of humidity in the nest

(B) loosen the materials at the bottom of the nest

(C) keep the nest in a clean condition

(D) touch the bottom of the eggs

16. All of the following are part of a parrot's incubation method EXCEPT

(A) heating the water vapor as it rises from the bottom of the nest

(B) arranging nesting material at the bottom of the nest

(C) transferring heat from the parent to the top of the eggshell

(D) maintaining a constant temperature on the eggshell

17. The word "suspend" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) build

(B) paint

(C) hang

(D) move

18. The word "fatal" in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) close

(B) deadly

(C) natural

(D) hot

19. The word "secure" in line 32 is closest in meaning to

(A) fresh

(B) dry

(C) safe

(D) warm

20. According to paragraph 3, a deep foundation of nesting material provides

(A) a constant source of humidity

(B) a strong nest box

(C) more room for newly hatched chicks

(D) protection against cold weather

21. Which of the following is a problem with commercial incubators?

(A) They lack the natural temperature changes of the outdoors.

(B) They are unable to heat the eggs evenly

(C) They do not transfer heat to the egg in the same way the parent bird does.

(D) They are expensive to operate.

22. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A) aviculturists (line 1)

(B) gradient (line 8)

(C) incubation (line 15)

(D) embryo (line 24)

Questions 23-33

The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large boulders. The most abundant particles-sand, silt, and clay-are the focus of examination in studies of soil texture. Texture is the term used to describe the composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative handfuls. To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and clay particles are sorted out by size and weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the sample weight.

(8)     In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of soil and squeezing the damp soil into three basic shapes; (1) cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample in a clenched fist; (2) thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between the palms; and (3) ribbon, a flattish shape formed by squeezing a small sample between the thumb and index finger. The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined by the amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when dampened, behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more refined and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.

(20)  Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered though a group of sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become grouped in corresponding size categories. Each category can be weighed to make a textural determination. Although sieves work well for silt, sand, and larger particles, they are not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately; therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water. Since clays settle so slowly, they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed.

23. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Characteristics of high quality soil

(B) Particles typically found in most soils

(C) How a high clay content affects the texture of soil

(D) Ways to determine the texture of soil

24. The author mentions "several representative handfuls" in line 5 in order to show

(A) the range of soil samples

(B) the process by which soil is weighed

(C) the requirements for an adequate soil sample

(D) how small soil particles are

25. The phrase "sorted out" in line 6 is closet in meaning to

(A) mixed

(B) replaced

(C) carried

(D) separated

26. It can be inferred that the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2 reflect

(A) the way the soil is extracted

(B) the results of squeezing the soil

(C) the need to check more than one handful

(D) the difficulty of forming different shapes

27. The word "dampened" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) damaged

(B) stretched

(C) moistened

(D) examined

28. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about a soil sample with little or no clay in it?

(A) It is not very heavy.

(B) It may not hold its shape when molded.

(C) Its shape is durable

(D) Its texture cannot be classified

29. The word "they" in line 25 refers to

(A) categories

(B) sieves

(C) larger particles

(D) clay particles

30. It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand test in determining soil texture because

(A) using the sieve takes less time

(B) the sieve can measure clay

(C) less training is required to use the sieve

(D) the sieve allows for a more exact measure

31. During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed into water they

(A) stick to the sides of the water container

(B) take some time to sink to the bottom

(C) separate into different sizes

(D) dissolve quickly

32. The word "fine" in line 27 is closest in meaning to

(A) tiny

(B) many

(C) excellent

(D) various

33. All of the following words are defined in the passage EXCEPT

(A) texture (line 3)

(B) ribbon (line 11)

(C) sediment sieves (line 21)

(D) evaporated (line 30)

Questions 34-43

A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker. The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language, communicating with a group or an individual, and specialized communication through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate unsureness or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the conversant's tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and/or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.

(21)  Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener’s receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed.

34. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The function of the voice in performance

(B) The connection between voice and personality

(C) Communication styles

(D) The production of speech

35. What does the author mean by stating that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen (lines 10-11)"?

(A) Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.

(B) The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.

(C) A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.

(D) Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.

36. The word "Here" in line 12 refers to

(A) interpersonal interactions

(B) the tone

(C) ideas and feelings

(D) words chosen

37. The word "derived" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) discussed

(B) prepared

(C) registered

(D) obtained

38. Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" in line 17?

(A) As examples of public performance

(B) As examples of basic styles of communication

(C) To contrast them to singing

(D) To introduce the idea of self-image

39. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice, may be an indication of a person's

(A) general physical health

(B) personality

(C) ability to communicate

(D) vocal quality

40. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide

(A) hostility

(B) shyness

(C) friendliness

(D) strength

41. The word "drastically" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) frequently

(B) exactly

(C) severely

(D) easily

42. The word "evidenced" in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) questioned

(B) repeated

(C) indicated

(D) exaggerated

43. According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?

(A) Lethargy

(B) Depression

(C) Boredom

(D) Anger

Questions 44-50

As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States increased. The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life combine with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise to make schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society.

(8)     The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920 schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational education and counseling extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies.

(18)  Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were one such population. Schools tried to educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many educators considered appropriate for women was the home.

(23)  Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American education gave homemaking a new definition. In preindustrial economies, homemaking had meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-producing activities both inside and outside the home. In the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however, overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers-cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children "efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite out-of-date.

44. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance of education in the United States was

(A) the growing number of schools in frontier communities

(B) an increase in the number of trained teachers

(C) the expanding economic problems of schools

(D) the increased urbanization of the entire country

45. The word "means" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) advantages

(B) probability

(C) method

(D) qualifications

46. The phrase "coincided with" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) was influenced by

(B) happened at the same time as

(C) began to grow rapidly

(D) ensured the success of

47. According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920's was that

(A) most place required children to attend school

(B) the amount of time spent on formal education was limited

(C) new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education

(D) adults and children studied in the same classes

48. Vacation schools and extracurricular activities are mentioned in lines 12-13 to illustrate

(A) alternatives to formal education provided by public schools

(B) the importance of educational changes

(C) activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs

(D) the increased impact of public schools on students

49. According to the passage, early-twentieth-century education reformers believed that

(A) different groups needed different kinds of education

(B) special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them

(C) corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress

(D) more women should be involved in education and industry

50. The word "it" in line 26 refers to

(A) consumption

(B) production

(C) homemaking

(D) education

答案：D

分析：D时态错误。应改为appeared。

参考译文：<神秘胜利>，Sara Teas dale的最小同时最优秀的诗集，于1933年出版。

难度：1

2000年05月语法题

1. From 1949 onward, the artist Georgia O’Keeffe made New Mexico _____

(A) her permanent residence was

(B) where her permanent residence

(C) permanent residence for her

(D) her permanent residence

2. Just as remote-controlled satellites can be employed to explore outer space, ___ employed to investigate the deep sea.

(A) can be robots

(B) robots can be

(C) can robots

(D) can robots that are

3. In ______ people, the areas of the brain that control speech are located in the left hemisphere.

(A) mostly of

(B) most

(C) almost the

(D) the most of

4. Stars shine because of _______ produced by the nuclear reactions taking place within them.

(A) the amount of light and heat is

(B) which the amount of light and heat

(C) the amount of light and heat that it is

(D) the amount of light and heat

5. ___ is not clear to researchers.

(A) Why dinosaurs having become extinct

(B) Why dinosaurs became extinct

(C) Did dinosaurs become extinct

(D) Dinosaurs became extinct

6. Although many people use the word “milk” to refer cow’s milk, __ to milk from any animal, including human milk and goat’s milk.

(A) applying it also

(B) applies also

(C) it also applies

(D) but it also applies

7. The first transatlantic telephone cable system was not established __ 1956.

(A) while

(B) until

(C) on

(D) when

8. _______ no two people think exactly alike, there will always be disagreement, but disagreement should not always be avoided; it can be healthy if handled creatively.

(A) There are

(B) Why

(C) That

(D) Because

9. Drinking water _____ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the enamel of teeth.

(A) containing

(B) in which containing

(C) contains

(D) that contain

10. In the 1820’s physical education became_______ of the curriculum of Harvard and Yale Universities.

(A) to be part

(B) which was part

(C) was part

(D) part

11. Pewter, ___ for eating and drinking utensils in colonial America, is about ninety percent tin, which copper or bismuth added for hardness.

(A) was widely used

(B) widely used it

(C) widely used

(D) which widely used

12. A moth possesses two pairs of wings _____ as single pair and are covered with dust like scales.

(A) function

(B) are functioning

(C) that function

(D) but functions

13. Soap operas, a type of television drama series, are so called because at first, they were ________.

(A) often which soap manufacturers sponsored

(B) sponsored often soap manufacturers

(C) often sponsored by soap manufacturers

(D) soap manufacturers often sponsored them

14. The Woolworth Building in New York was the highest in America when _______ in 1943 and was famous for its use of Gothic decorative detail.

(A) built

(B) it built

(C) was built

(D) built it

15. Humans, ________, interact through communicative behavior by means of signs or symbols used conventionally.

(A) like other animals

(B) how other animals

(C) other animals that

(D) do other animals

16. More and 90 percent of the calcium in the human body is in the skeleton.

17. Perhaps the most popular film in movie history, Star Wars was written and direction by George Lucas.

18. Some animal activities, such as mating, migration, and hibernate, have a yearly cycle.

19. Geographers were once concerned largely with exploring areas unknown to them and from describing distinctive features of individual places.

20. In his animated films, Walt Disney created animals that talk and act like people while retaining its animal traits.

21. The first city in the United States that put into effect major plan for the clustering of government buildings was Washington, D.C.

22. In a microwave oven, radiation penetrates food and is then absorbed primarily by water molecules, caused heat to spread through the food.

23. The cultures early of the genus Homo were generally distinguished by regular use of stone tools and by a hunting and gathering economy.

24. Dolphins are sleek and powerful swimmers that found in all seas and unlike porpoises have well defined, beaklike snouts and conical teeth.

25. The velocity of a river is controlled by the slope, the depth, and the tough of the riverbed.

26. The phonograph record was the first successful medium for capturing, preservation and reproducing sound.

27. Generally, the pattern of open space in urban areas has shaped by commercial systems, governmental actions, and cultural traditions.

28. A liquid that might be a poor conductor when pure is often used to make solutions that readily transmits electricity.

29. The initial discovery by humans almost 10,000 years ago that they could exploit metallic mineral deposits was an important milestone in the development civilization.

30. In 1989 Tillie Fowler a Republican, became the first member of her party to serving as president of the city council of Jacksonville, Florida.

31. General anesthesia, which is usually used for major surgery, involves a complete loss of consciousness and a relaxed of the muscles.

32. After first establishment subsistence farms along the Atlantic seaboard, European settlers in North America developed a maritime and shipbuilding industry.

33. The legs of a roadrunner are enough strong that it can run up to 24 kilometers per hour to catch lizards and small rodents.

34. For the immune system of a newborn mammal to develop properly, the presence of the thymus gland is essentially.

35. Physicians working in the field of public health are mainly concerned with the environmental causes of ill and how to eliminate them.

36. By 1850, immigration from distance shores, as well as migration from the countryside, had caused New York City’s population to swell.

37. By identifying similar words or structures in different languages, we find evidence that those languages are related and may be derived from same ancestor.

38. Astronomers use photography and sighting telescopes to study the motions of all of the bright stars and many of the faint one.

39. In the nineteenth century a number of Native American tribe, such as the Comanche, lived a nomadic existence hunting buffalo.

40. The average elevation of West Virginia is about 1,500 foot above sea level.

Questions 1-9

The canopy, the upper level of the trees in the rain forest, holds a plethora of climbing mammals of moderately large size, which may include monkeys, cats, civets, and porcupines. Smaller species, including such rodents as mice and small squirrels, are not as prevalent overall in high tropical canopies as they are in most habitats globally.

(6)     Small mammals, being warm blooded, suffer hardship in the exposed and turbulent environment of the uppermost trees. Because a small body has more surface area per unit of weight than a large one of similar shape, it gains or loses heat more swiftly. Thus, in the trees, where shelter from heat and cold may be scarce and conditions may fluctuate, a small mammal may have trouble maintaining its body temperature.

(12)  Small size makes it easy to scramble among twigs and branches in the canopy for insects, flowers, or fruit, but small mammals are surpassed, in the competition for food, by large ones that have their own tactics for browsing among food-rich twigs. The weight of a gibbon (a small ape) hanging below a branch arches the terminal leaves down so that fruit-bearing foliage drops toward the gibbon's face. Walking or leaping species of a similar or even larger size access the outer twigs either by snapping off and retrieving the whole branch or by clutching stiff branches with the feet or tail and plucking food with their hands.

(21)  Small climbing animals may reach twigs readily, but it is harder for them than for large climbing animals to cross the wide gaps from one tree crown to the next that typify the high canopy. A macaque or gibbon can hurl itself farther than a mouse can: it can achieve a running start, and it can more effectively use a branch as a springboard, even bouncing on a limb several times before jumping. The forward movement of a small animal is seriously reduced by the air friction against the relatively large surface area of its body. Finally, for the many small mammals the supplement their insect diet with fruits or seeds, an inability to span open gaps between tree crowns may be problematic, since trees that yield these foods can be sparse.

1. The word "they" in line 4 refers to

(A) trees

(B) climbing mammals of moderately large size

(C) smaller species

(D) high tropical canopies

2. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true about the small mammals in the rain forest?

(A) They have body shapes that are adapted to life in the canopy.

(B) They prefer the temperature and climate of the canopy to that of other environments.

(C) They have difficulty with the changing conditions in the canopy.

(D) They use the trees of the canopy for shelter from heat and cold.

3. In discussing animal size in paragraph 3, the author indicates that

(A) small animals require proportionately more food than larger animals do.

(B) a large animal's size is an advantage in obtaining food in the canopy.

(C) Small animals are often attacked by larger animals in the rain forest.

(D) Small animals and large animals are equally adept at obtaining food in the canopy.

4. The word "typify" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) resemble

(B) protect

(C) characterize

(D) divide

5. According to paragraph 4, what makes jumping from one tree crown to another difficult for small mammals?

(A) Air friction against the body surface.

(B) The thickness of the branches.

(C) The dense leaves of the tree crown.

(D) The inability to use the front feet as hands.

6. The word "supplement" in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) control

(B) replace

(C) look for

(D) add to

7. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A) canopy (line 1)

(B) warm blooded (line 6)

(C) terminal leaves (line 16)

(D) springboard (line 25)

Questions 10 - 19

During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the contribution of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed United States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not considered an important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the best contemporary history of the American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing she exercised great political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United States. But little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During these centuries, women remained invisible in history books.

(12)  Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection and use of sources.

(17)  During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by keeping records of activities in which women were engaged National, regional, and local women's organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper clippings, and souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources form the core of the two greatest collections of women's history in the United States - one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radeliffe College, and the other the Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable materials for later generations of historians.

(26)  Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth century, most of the writing about women conformed to the "great women" theory of history, just as much of mainstream American history concentrated on "great men". To demonstrate that women were making significant contributions to American life, female authors singled out women leaders and wrote biographies, or else important women produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life as reformers, activists working for women's right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of the great mass of ordinary women. The lives of ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the American histories being published.

10. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The role of literature in early American histories.

(B) The place of American women in written histories.

(C) The keen sense of history shown by American women.

(D) The "great women" approach to History used by American historians.

11. The word "contemporary" in line 7 means that the history was

(A) informative

(B) written at that time

(C) thoughtful

(D) faultfinding

12. In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that

(A) a woman's status was changed by marriage.

(B) even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored.

(C) only three women were able to get their writing published.

(D) poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women.

13. The word "celebratory" in line 15 means that the writings referred to were

(A) related to parties

(B) religious

(C) serious

(D) full of praise

14. The word "they" in line 15 refers to

(A) efforts

(B) authors

(C) counterparts

(D) sources

15. In the second paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point out?

(A) They put too much emphasis on daily activities.

(B) They left out discussion of the influence on money on politics

(C) The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.

(D) They were printed on poor quality paper.

16. On the basis of information in the third paragraph, which of the following, would most likely have

been collected by nineteenth-century feminist organizations?

(A) Newspaper accounts of presidential election results.

(B) Biographies of John Adams.

(C) Letters from a mother to a daughter advising her how to handle a family problem.

(D) Books about famous graduates of the country's first college.

17. What use was made of the nineteenth-century women's history materials in the Schlesinger Library and the Sophia Smith Collection?

(A) They were combined and published in a multivolume encyclopedia about women.

(B) They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth-century.

(C) They provided valuable information for twentieth-century historical researchers.

(D) They were shared among women's colleges throughout the United States.

18. In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of nineteenth-century "great women" EXCEPT

(A) authors

(B) reformers

(C) activists for women's rights

(D) politicians

19. The word "representative" in line 34 is closest in meaning to

(A) typical

(B) satisfied

(C) supportive

(D) distinctive

Questions 20 - 29

The end of the nineteenth century and the early years of the twentieth century were marked by the development of an international Art Nouveau style, characterized by sinuous lines, floral and vegetable motifs, and soft evanescent coloration. The Art Nouveau style was an eclectic one, bringing together elements of Japanese art, motifs of ancient cultures, and natural forms. The glass objects of this style were elegant in outline, although often deliberately distorted, with pale or iridescent surfaces. A favored device of the style was to imitate the iridescent surface seen on ancient glass that had been buried. Much of the Art Nouveau glass produced during the years of its greatest popularity had been generically termed "art glass". Art glass was intended for decorative purposes and relied for its effect upon carefully chosen color combinations and innovative techniques.

(14)  France produced a number of outstanding exponents of the Art Nouveau style: among the most celebrated was Emile Gallé (1846-1901). In the United States, Louis Comfort Tiffany (1848-1933) was the most noted exponent of this style, producing a great variety of glass forms and surfaces, which were widely copied in their time and are highly prized today. Tiffany was a brilliant designer, successfully combining ancient Egyptian.

(21)  The Art Nouveau style was a major force in the decorative arts from 1895 until 1915, although its influence continued throughout the mid-1920's. It was eventually to be overtaken by a new school of thought known as Functionalism that had present since the turn of the century. At first restricted to a small avant-garde group of architects and designers. Functionalism emerged as the dominant influence upon designers alter the First World War. The basic tenet of the movement - that function should determine form - was not a new concept. Soon a distinct aesthetic code evolved: form should be simple, surfaces plain, and any ornament should be based on geometric relationships. This new design concept, coupled with the sharp postwar reactions to the style and conventions of the preceding decades, created an entirely new public taste which caused Art Nouveau types of glass to fall out of favor. The new taste demanded dramatic effects of contrast  stark outline, and complex textural surfaces.

20. What does paragraph 1 mainly discuss?

(A) Design elements in the Art Nouveau style

(B) The popularity of the Art Nouveau style

(C) Production techniques for art glass

(D) Color combinations typical of the Art Nouveau style

21. The word "one" in line 4 refers to

(A) century

(B) development

(C) style

(D) coloration

22. Paragraph 1 mentions that Art Nouveau glass was sometimes similar to which aspect of ancient burial glass?

(A) The distortion of the glass

(B) The appearance of the glass

(C) The shapes of the glass objects

(D) The size of the glass objects

23. What is the main purpose of paragraph 2 ?

(A) To compare different Art Nouveau styles

(B) To give examples of famous Art Nouveau artists

(C) To explain why Art Nouveau glass was so popular in the United States

(D) To show the impact Art Nouveau had on other cultures around the world

24. The word "prized" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) valued

(B) universal

(C) uncommon

(D) preserved

25. The word "overtaken" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) surpassed

(B) inclined

(C) expressed

(D) applied

26. What does the author mean by stating that "function should determine form" (line 27) ?

(A) A useful object should not be attractive.

(B) The purpose of an object should influence its form

(C) The design of an object

(D) The form of an object should not include decorative elements.

27. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason. Functionalism became popular was that it

(A) clearly distinguish

(B) appealed to people who liked complex painted designs

(C) reflected a common desire to break from the past

(D) was easily interpreted by the general public

28. Paragraph 3 supports which of the following statements about Functionalism?

(A) Its design concept avoided geometric shapes.

(B) It started on a small scale and then spread gradually.

(C) It was a major force in the decorative arts before the First World War

(D) It was not attractive to architects and designers

29. According to the passage, an object made in the Art Nouveau style would most likely include

(A) a flowered design

(B) bright colors

(C) modern symbols

(D) a textured surface

Questions 30 - 40

During most of their lives, surge glaciers behave like normal glaciers, traveling perhaps only a couple of inches per day. However, at intervals of 10 to 100 years, these glaciers move forward up to 100 times faster than usual. The surge often progress along a glacier like a great wave, proceeding from one section to another. Sub glacial streams of melt water might act as a lubricant, allowing the glacier to flow rapidly toward the sea. The increasing water pressure under the glacier might lift it off its bed, overcoming the friction between ice and rock, thus freeing the glacier, which rapidly slides downhill. Surge glaciers also might be influenced by the climate, volcanic heat, or earthquakes. However, many of these glaciers exist in the same areas as normal glaciers, often almost side by side.

(13)  Some 800 years ago, Alaska's Hubbard Glacier advanced toward the sea, retreated, and advanced again 500 years later. Since 1895, this seventy-mile-long river of ice has been flowing steadily toward the Gulf of Alaska at a rate of approximately 200 feet per year. In June 1986, however, the glacier surged ahead as much as 47 feet a day. Meanwhile, a western tributary, called Valerie Glacier, advanced up to 112 feet per day. Hubbard's surge closed off Russell Fiord with a formidable ice dam, some 2,500 feet wide and up to 800 feet high, whose caged waters threatened the town of Yakutat to the south.

(22)  About 20 similar glaciers around the Gulf of Alaska are heading toward the sea. If enough surge glaciers reach the ocean and raise sea levels, West Antarctic ice shelves could rise off the seafloor and become adrift. A flood of ice would then surge into the Southern Sea. With the continued rise in sea level, more ice would plunge into the ocean, causing sea levels to rise even higher, which in turn would release more ice and set in motion a vicious cycle. The additional sea ice floating toward the tropics would increase. Earth's albedo and lower global temperatures, perhaps enough to initiate a new ice age. This situation appears to have occurred at the end of the last warm interglacial (the time between glaciations), called the Sangamon, when sea ice cooled the ocean dramatically, spawning the beginning of the Ice Age.

30. What is the main topic of the passage?

(A) The classification of different types of surge glaciers.

(B) The causes and consequences of surge glaciers.

(C) The definition of a surge glacier.

(D) The history of a particular surge Glacier.

31. The word "intervals" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) records

(B) speeds

(C) distances

(D) periods

32. The author compares the surging motion of a surge glacier to the movement of a

(A) fish

(B) wave

(C) machine

(D) boat

33. Which of the following does the another mention as possible cause of surging glaciers?

(A) The decline in sea levels.

(B) The occurrence of unusually large ocean waves.

(C) The shifting Antarctic ice shelves.

(D) The pressure of melt water underneath the glacier.

34. The word "freeing" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) pushing

(B) releasing

(C) strengthening

(D) draining

35. According to the passage, the Hubbard Glacier

(A) moves more often than the Valerie Glacier.

(B) began movement toward the sea in 1895

(C) is 800 feet wide.

(D) has moved as fast as 47 feet per day.

36. Yahutat is the name of

(A) an Alaskan town

(B) the last ice age

(C) a surge glacier

(D) an Antarctic ice shelf

37. The word "plunge" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) drop

(B) extent

(C) melt

(D) drift

38. The term "vicious cycle" in line 28 refers to the

(A) movement pattern of surge glaciers

(B) effect surge glaciers could have on the temperature of tropical areas

(C) effect that repeated rising sea levels might have on glacial ice

(D) constant threat surge glaciers could pose to the Gulf of Alaska

39. The author provides a definition for which of the following terms?

(A) Tributary (line 18)

(B) Ice dam (line 19)

(C) Albedo (line 29)

(D) Interglacial (line 31)

40.Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

(A) The movement of surge glaciers can be prevented.

(B) The next ice age could be cause by surge glaciers.

(C) Surge glaciers help to support Antarctic ice shelves.

(D) Normal glaciers have little effect on Earth's climate.

Questions 41 - 50

According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the family traditional cultural patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as friendship groups, one or more persons may gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally through election or recruitment.

(8)     Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades of research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category of "natural leaders." It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common; rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the person has qualities that meet the needs of that particular group.

(14)  Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader, research suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by different individuals. Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group. Group members look to instrumental leaders to "get things done." Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the collective well-beings of a social group's members. Expressive leaders are less concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing emotional support to group members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them. Group members expect expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the group and provide support to individual members.

(26)  Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group members. They give others and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the group's goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to others in the group. They offer sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to discipline, are quick to lighten a serious moment with humor, and try to resolve issues that threaten to divide the group. As the difference in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection from group members; instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy a more distant respect.

41. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The problems faced by leaders.

(B) How leadership differs in Small and large groups.

(C) How social groups determine who will lead them.

(D) The role of leaders in social groups.

42. The passage mentions al of the following ways by which people can become leaders EXCEPT

(A) recruitment

(B) formal election process

(C) specific leadership training

(D) traditional cultural patterns

43. In mentioning "natural leaders" in line 10, the author is making the point that

(A) few people qualify as "natural leaders".

(B) there is no proof that "natural leaders" exist.

(C) "natural leaders" are easily accepted by the members of a group.

(D) "natural leaders" share a similar set of characteristics

44. Which of the following statements about leadership can be inferred from paragraph 2?

(A) A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader in another group

(B) Few people succeed in sharing a leadership role with another person

(C) A person can best learn how to be an effective leader by studying research on leadership.

(D) Most people desire to be leaders but can produce little evidence of their qualifications.

45. The passage indicates that instrumental leaders generally focus on

(A) ensuring harmonious relationships.

(B) sharing responsibility with group members.

(C) identifying new leaders.

(D) achieving a goal.

46. The word "collective" in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) necessary

(B) typical

(C) group

(D) particular

47. The word "them" in line 23 refers to

(A) expressive leaders

(B) goals of the group

(C) group members

(D) tension and conflict

48. A "secondary relationship" mentioned in line 32 between a leader and the members of a group could best be characterized as

(A) distant

(B) enthusiastic

(C) unreliable

(D) personal

49. The word "resolve" in line 32 is closest in meaning to

(A) avoid repeating

(B) talk about

(C) avoid thinking about

(D) find a solution for

50. Paragraphs 3 and 4 organize the discussion of leadership primarily in terms of

(A) examples that illustrate a problem

(B) cause and effect analysis

(C) narration of events

(D) comparison and contrast

2000年08月语法题

1. The gray scale, a progressive series of shades ranging from black to white, is used in computer graphics __ detail to graphical images.

(A) added

(B) to add

(C) are added

(D) and add

2. By __excluding competition from an industry, governments have often created public service monopolies.

(A) they adopt laws

(B) laws are adopted

(C) adopting laws

(D) having laws adopt

3. _____ skeleton of an insect is on the outside of its body.

(A) Its

(B) That the

(C) There is a

(D) The

4. Lenses, _____, are used to correct imperfection in eyesight.

(A) are the forms of glasses and contact lenses

(B) in the form of glasses and contact lenses

(C) glasses and contact lenses which form

(D) glasses and contact lenses may be formed

5. In eighteenth-century North American, printed engravings provided____ rococo style.

(A) the most manifestation widespread

(B) manifestation widespread the most

(C) the widespread manifestation most

(D) the most widespread manifestation

6. In the Arctic tundra, ice fog may form under clear skies in winter, ____ coastal fogs or low stratus clouds are common in summer.

(A) because of

(B) whereas

(C) despite

(D) that

7. On attaining maximum size, ___ by drawing itself out and dividing into two daughter amoebas, each receiving identical nuclear materials.

(A) the reproduction of the amoeba

(B) the amoeba, which reproduces

(C) reproducing the amoeba

(D) the amoeba reproduced

8. For the advertiser, one of the greatest appeals of radio is ____ an audience all day long.

(A) that it has

(B) that to have

(C) to have it

(D) having it

9. Charles Schulz’s comic strip, “Peanuts,” features children who make ____ about life.

(A) funny, wise statement that

(B) which funny, wise statements

(C) statements are funny but wise

(D) funny but wise statements

10. One of the major rivers of the western United States, ____ flows for some 1,5000 miles from Colorado to northwestern Mexico.

(A) it is the Colorado River

(B) the Colorado River which

(C) and the Colorado River

(D) the Colorado River

11. In art, the tendency of gouache colors to lighten on drying makes ___ a wide range of pearly or paste-like effects.

(A) it is possible

(B) possible

(C) possible to be

(D) it possible the

12. Isabel Bishop was one of many American artists ___ by the government during the Depression years on various federal art projects.

(A) employed

(B) whose employment

(C) to employ

(D) had been employed

13. Outbreaks of diseases in trees commonly occur _____ stressed because of drought or other environmental factors.

(A) as forests that become

(B) in forests become

(C) that become forests

(D) when forests become

14. To break thick ice, an icebreaker boat moves fast enough to ride up on the ice, ____ under its weight.

(A) so then breaks

(B) when breaks it

(C) which then breaks

(D) for which then breaks

15. Cholesterol is present in large quantities in the nervous system, where ____ compound of myelin.

(A) it a

(B) a

(C) being

(D) it is a

16. Painters of the early twentieth century who were known primarily for they colorful landscapes, the Group of Seven changed is name to the Canadian Group of Painters in 1933.

17. Most animals have nervous systems, sense organs, and specialized modes of locomotion, and are capable of securing, ingesting, and to digest food.

18. The cork oak tree has a layer of cork several inches thickness that can be stripped every ten years.

19. Inflation, interest rates, and overall economic active can be governed by the United States Federal Reserve’s decision to adjust the supply of money to the economy.

20. Free radicals of oxygen, which common by-products of metabolic processes in the body, are capable of causing tissue damage.

21. By 1830 the glass industry in the United States had become too well established that the country no longer needed to depend on imported glass.

22. Free land, cheaply transportation, and powerfully persuasive railroad advertising all helped flood the western part of the United States with farmers in the nineteenth century.

23. Coral formations have known as fringing reefs are located close to shore, separated from land only by shallow water.

24. For a seagoing, cargo-carrying sailing vessels, the clipper ship was remarkably fast.

25. Visibly only through large telescopes, Pluto has a yellowish color, which indicates that there is very little atmosphere.

26. Diamond is the hardest known substance, so diamonds can be cut only by another diamonds.

27. The International Monetary Fund was created in a effort to stabilize exchange rates without interfering with the healthy growth of trade.

28. Butterflies and moths undergo complete metamorphosis, them changing from caterpillar to adult via one intermediate stage, the pupa.

29. Thousands of meteorite hit Earth each year, but most fall into the sea or in remote areas and are never recovered.

30. Alaska become the forty-ninth state in 1959, and Hawaii became the fiftieth state lately that year.

31. A sponge feeds itself by drawing water through tiny pores on its surface, filtering out food particles, and then expel the water through larger vents.

32. Toward the end of his life, John Singer Sargent returned to the painting of landscapes and the use of watercolors, of which he excelled.

33. Pythons differ than most other snakes by having two well developed lungs rather than a much smaller left lung or no left lung at all.

34. Weighing among two to five kilograms in adults, the skin is the largest organ of the human body.

35. Rodents dwell in various habitat, some species being aquatic, some terrestrial.

36. The nectar of flowers are ingested by worker bees and converted to honey in special sacs in their digestive systems.

37. Lucid dreaming, the ability dreamers to become aware of and to control their dreams while dreaming, is the focus of some current psychological research.

38. The sensation of sound is produced how vibrations transmitted through the air strike the eardrum.

39. The musical tone of an electric guitar is created not by the resonance of the body of the guitar but by electronically amplification.

40. Considered one of the most beautiful of the fine art, ballet is a combination of dance and mime performed to music.

Questions 1-8

Prehistoric mammoths have been preserved in the famous tar pits of Rancho La Brea (Brea is the Spanish word for tar) in what is now the heart of Los Angeles, California. These tar pits have been known for centuries and were formerly mine for their natural asphalt, a black or brown petroleum-like substance. Thousands of tons were extracted before 1875, when it was first noticed that the tar contained fossil remains. Major excavations were undertaken that established the significance of this remarkable site. The tar pits were found to contain the remains of scores of species of animals from the last 30,000 years of the Ice Age.

(10)  Since then, over 100 tons of fossils, 1.5 million from vertebrates, 2.5 million from invertebrates, have been recovered, often in densely concentrated tangled masses. The creatures found range from insects and birds to giant ground sloths, but a total of 17 proboscideans (animals with a proboscis or long nose) - including mastodons and Columbian mammoths-have been recovered, most of them from Pit 9, the deepest bone-bearing deposit, which was excavated in 1914. Most of the fossils date to between 40,000 and 10,000 years ago.

(18)  The asphalt at La Brea seeps to the surface, especially in the summer, and forms shallow puddles that would often have been concealed by leaves and dust. Unwary animals would become trapped on these thin sheets of liquid asphalt, which are extremely sticky in warm weather. Stuck, the unfortunate beasts would die of exhaustion and hunger or fall prey to predators that often also became stuck.

(24)  As the animals decayed, more scavengers would be attracted and caught in their turn. Carnivores greatly outnumber herbivores in the collection: for every large herbivore, there is one saber-tooth cat, a coyote, and four wolves. The fact that some bones are heavily weathered shows that some bodies remained above the surface for weeks or months. Bacteria in the asphalt itself would have consumed some of the tissues of other than bones, and the asphalt itself would dissolve what was left, at the same time impregnating and beautifully preserving the saturated bones, rendering them dark brown and shiny.

1. What aspect of the La Brea tar pits does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The amount of asphalt that was mine there

(B) The chemical and biological interactions between asphalt and animals

(C) The fossil remains that have been found there

(D) Scientific methods of determining the age of tar pits

2. In using the phrase "the heart of Los Angeles" in line 2, the author is talking about the city's

(A) beautiful design

(B) central area

(C) basic needs

(D) supplies of natural asphalt

3. The word "noticed" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) predicted

(B) announced

(C) corrected

(D) observed

4. The word "tangled" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) buried beneath

(B) twisted together

(C) quickly formed

(D) easily dated

5. The word "them" in line 15 refers to

(A) insects

(B) birds

(C) sloths

(D) proboscideans

6. How many probosideans have been found at the La Brea tar pits?

(A) 9

(B) 17

(C) 1.5 million

(D) 2.5 million

7. The word "concealed" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) highlighted

(B) covered

(C) transformed

(D) contaminated

8. Why does the author mention animals such as coyotes and wolves in paragraph 4?

(A) To give examples of animals that are classified as carnivores

(B) To specify the animals found least commonly at La Brea

(C) To argue that these animals were especially likely to avoid extinction

(D) To define the term "scavengers"

Questions 9-19

The principal difference between urban growth in Europe and in the North American colonies was the slow evolution of cities in the former and their rapid growth in the latter. In Europe they grew over a period of centuries from town economies to their present urban structure. In North America, they started as wilderness communities and developed to mature urbanism's in little more than a century.

(7)     In the early colonial days in North America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic Coastline, mostly in what are now New England and the Middle Atlantic states in the United States and in the lower Saint Lawrence valley in Canada. This was natural because these areas were nearest England and France, particularly England, from which most capital goods (assets such as equipment) and many consumer goods were imported. Merchandising establishments were, accordingly, advantageously located in port cities from which goods could be readily distributed to interior settlements. Here, too, were the favored locations for processing raw materials prior to export. Boston, Philadelphia, New York, Montreal, and other cities flourished, and as the colonies grew, these cities increased in importance.

(19)  This was less true in the colonial South, where life centered around large farms, known as plantations, rather than around towns, as was the case in the areas further north along the Atlantic coastline. The local isolation and the economic self-sufficiency of the plantations were antagonistic to the development of the towns. The plantations maintained their independence because they were located on navigable streams and each had a wharf accessible to the small shipping of that day. In fact, one of the strongest factors in the selection of plantation land was the desire to have it front on a water highway.

(28)  When the United States became an independent nation in 1776, it did not have a single city as large as 50,000 inhabitants, but by 1820 it had a city of more than 100,000 people, and by 1880 it had recorded a city of over one million. It was not until after 1823, after the mechanization of the spinning and weaving industries, that cities started drawing young people away from farms. Such migration was particularly rapid following the Civil War (1861-1865).

9. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Factors that slowed the growth of cities in Europe

(B) The evolution of cities in North America

(C) Trade between North American and European cities

(D) The effects of the United States' independence on urban growth in New England

10. The word "they" in line 5 refers to

(A) North American colonies

(B) Cities

(C) Centuries

(D) Town economies

11. The passage compares early European and North American cities on the basis of which of following?

(A) Their economic success

(B) The type of merchandise they exported

(C) Their ability to distribute goods to interior settlements

(D) The pace of their development

12. The word "accordingly" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) as usual

(B) in contrast

(C) to some degree

(D) for that reason

13. According to the passage, early colonial cities were established along the Atlantic coastline of North America due to

(A) an abundance of natural resources

(B) financial support from colonial governments

(C) proximity to parts of Europe

(D) a favorable climate

14. The passage indicates that during colonial times, the Atlantic coastline cities prepared which of the following for shipment to Europe?

(A) Manufacturing equipment

(B) Capital goods

(C) Consumer goods

(D) Raw materials

15. According to the passage, all of the following aspects of the plantation system influenced the growth of southern cities EXCEPT the

(A) location of the plantations

(B) access of plantation owners to shipping

(C) relationships between plantation residents and city residents

(D) economic self-sufficiency of the plantations

16. It can be inferred from the passage that, in comparison with northern cities, most southern cities were

(A) more prosperous

(B) smaller

(C) less economically self-sufficient

(D) tied less closely to England than to France

17. The word "recorded" in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) imagined

(B) discovered

(C) documented

(D) planned

18. The word "drawing" in line 32 is closest in meaning to

(A) attracting

(B) employing

(C) instructing

(D) representing

19. The passage mentions the period following the Civil War (lines 33 - 34) because it was a time of

(A) significant obstacles to industrial growth

(B) decreased dependence on foreign trade

(C) increased numbers of people leaving employment on farms

(D) increased migration from northern states to southern states

Questions 20-28

During the second half of the nineteenth century, the production of food and feed crops in the United States rose at an extraordinarily rapid rate. Corn production increased by four and a half times, hay by five times, oats and wheat by seven times. The most crucial factor behind this phenomenal upsurge in productivity was the widespread adoption of labor-saving machinery by northern farmers. By 1850 horse-drawn reaping machines that cut grain were being introduced into the major grain-growing regions of the country.

(9)     Horse-powered threshing machines to separate the seeds from the plants were already in general use. However, it was the onset of the Civil War in 1861 that provided the great stimulus for the mechanization of northern agriculture. With much of the labor force inducted into the army and with grain prices on the rise, northern farmers rushed to avail themselves of the new labor-saving equipment. In 1860 there were approximately 80,000 reapers in the country; five years later there were 350,000.

(17)  After the close of the war in 1865, machinery became ever more important in northern agriculture, and improved equipment was continually introduced. By 1880 a self-binding reaper had been perfected that not only cut the grain, but also gathered the stalks and bound them with twine. Threshing machines were also being improved and enlarged, and after 1870 they were increasingly powered by steam engines rather than by horses. Since steam - powered threshing machines were costly items-running from $ 1,000 to $ 4,000 - they were usually owned by custom thresher owners who then worked their way from farm to farm during the harvest season. "Combines" were also coming into use on the great wheat ranches in California and the Pacific Northwest. These ponderous machines - sometimes pulled by as many as 40 horses - reaped the grain, threshed it, and bagged it, all in one simultaneous operations.

(30)  The adoption of labor-saving machinery had a profound effect upon the scale of agricultural operations in the northern states-allowing farmers to increase vastly their crop acreage. By the end of the century, a farmer employing the new machinery could plant and harvest two and half times as much corn as a farmer had using hand methods 50 years before.

20. What aspect of farming in the United States in the nineteenth century does the passage mainly  discuss?

(A) How labor-saving machinery increased crop production

(B) Why southern farms were not as successful as successful as northern farms

(C) Farming practices before the Civil War

(D) The increase in the number of people farming

21. The word "crucial" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) obvious

(B) unbelievable

(C) important

(D) desirable

22. The phrase "avail themselves" in lines 13-14 is closest in meaning to

(A) take care

(B) make use

(C) get rid

(D) do more

23. According to the passage, why was the Civil War a stimulus for mechanization?

(A) The army needed more grain in order to feed the soldiers.

(B) Technology developed for the war could also be used by farmers.

(C) It was hoped that harvesting more grain would lower the price of grain.

(D) Machines were needed to replace a disappearing labor force.

24. The passage supports which of the following statements about machinery after the Civil War?

(A) Many farmers preferred not to use the new machinery.

(B) Returning laborers replaced the use of machinery.

(C) The use of farm machinery continued to increase.

(D) Poor-quality machinery slowed the pace of crop production.

25. Combines and self-binding reapers were similar because each

(A) could perform more than one function

(B) required relatively little power to operate

(C) was utilized mainly in California

(D) required two people to operate

26. The word "they" in line 22 refers to

(A) grain stalks

(B) threshing machines

(C) steam engines

(D) horses

27. It can be inferred from the passage that most farmers did not own threshing machines because

(A) farmers did not know how to use new machines

(B) farmers had no space to keep the machines

(C) thresher owner had chance to buy the machines before farmers did

(D) the machines were too expensive for every farmer to own

28. The word "ponderous" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) advanced

(B) heavy

(C) complex

(D) rapid

Questions 29-39

The Native American peoples of the north Pacific Coast created a highly complex maritime culture as they invented modes of production unique to their special environment. In addition to their sophisticated technical culture, they also attained one of the most complex social organizations of any nonagricultural people in the world.

(6)     In a division of labor similar to that of the hunting peoples in the interior and among foraging peoples throughout the world, the men did most of the fishing, and the women processed the catch. Women also specialized in the gathering of the abundant shellfish that lived closer to shore. They collected oysters, crabs, sea urchins, mussels, abalone, and clams, which they could gather while remaining close to their children. The maritime (10) life harvested by the women not only provided food, but also supplied more of the raw materials for making tools than did the fish gathered by the men. Of particular importance for the native tool kit before the introduction of metal was the wide knife made from the larger mussel shells, and a variety of cutting edges that could be made from other marine shells.

(18)  The women used their tools to process all of the fish and marine mammals brought in by the men. They cleaned the fish, and dried vast quantities of them for the winter. They sun-dried fish when practical, but in the rainy climate of the coastal area they also used smokehouses to preserve tons of fish and other seafood annually. Each product had its own peculiar characteristics that demanded a particular way of cutting or drying the meat, and each task required its own cutting blades and other utensils.

(25)  After drying the fish, the women pounded some of them into fish meal, which was an easily transported food used in soups, stews, or other dishes to provide protein and thickening in the absence of fresh fish or while on long trips. The women also made a cheese-like substance from a mixture of fish and roe by aging it in storehouses or by burying it in wooden boxes or pits lined with rocks and tree leaves.

29. Which aspect of the lives of the Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Methods of food preservation

(B) How diet was restricted by the environment

(C) The contributions of women to the food supply

(D) Difficulties in establishing successful farms

30. The word "unique" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) comprehensible

(B) productive

(C) intentional

(D) particular

31. The word "attained" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) achieved

(B) modified

(C) demanded

(D) spread

32. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the social organization of many agricultural peoples is

(A) more complex than that of hunters and foragers

(B) less efficient than that of hunters and forages

(C) more widespread than that of hunters and foragers

(D) better documented than that of hunters and forages

33. According to the passage, what is true of the "division of labor" mentioned in line 6?

(A) It was first developed by Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast.

(B) It rarely existed among hunting.

(C) It was a structure that the Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast shared with many other peoples.

(D) It provided a form of social organization that was found mainly among coastal peoples.

34. The word "abundant" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) prosperous

(B) plentiful

(C) acceptable

(D) fundamental

35. All of the following are true of the north Pacific coast women EXCEPT that they

(A) were more likely to catch shellfish than other kinds of fish

(B) contributed more materials for tool making than the men did

(C) sometimes searched for food far inland from the coast

(D) prepared and preserved the fish

36. The word "They" in line 19 refers to

(A) women

(B) tools

(C) mammals

(D) men

37. The Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast used smokehouses in order to

(A) store utensils used food preparation

(B) prevent fish and shellfish from spoiling

(C) have a place to store fish and shellfish

(D) prepare elaborate meals

38. The wore "peculiar" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) strange

(B) distinctive

(C) appealing

(D) biological

39. All of the following are true of the cheese-like substance mentioned in paragraph 4 EXCEPT that it was

(A) made from fish

(B) not actually cheese

(C) useful on long journeys

(D) made in a short period of time

Questions 40-50

Archaeological literature is rich in descriptions of pot making. Unlike modern industrial potters, prehistoric artisans created each of their pieces individually, using the simplest technology but demonstrating remarkable skill in making and adorning their vessels.

(5)     The clay used in prehistoric pot making was invariably selected with the utmost care; often it was traded over considerable distances. The consistency of the clay was crucial; it was pounded meticulously and mixed with water to make it entirely even in texture. By careful kneading, the potter removed the air bubbles and made the clay as plastic as possible, allowing it to be molded into shape as the pot was built up. When a pot is fired, it loses its water and can crack, so the potter added a temper to the clay, a substance that helped reduce shrinkage and cracking.

(13)  Since surface finishes provided a pleasing appearance and also improved the durability in day-to-day uses, the potter smoothed the exterior surface of the pot with wet hands. Often a wet clay solution, known as a slip, was applied to the smooth surface. Brightly colored slips were often used and formed painted decorations on the vessel. In later times, glazes came into use in some areas. A glaze is a form of slip that turns to a glasslike finish during high-temperature firing. When a slip was not applied, the vessel was allowed to dry slowly until the external surface was almost like leather in texture. It was then rubbed with a round stone or similar object to give it a shiny, hard surface. Some pots were adorned with incised or stamped decorations.

(24)  Most early pottery was then fired over open hearths. The vessels were covered with fast-burning wood; as it burned, the ashes would fall around the pots and bake them evenly over a few hours. Far higher temperatures were attained in special ovens, known as kilns, which would not only bake the clay and remove its plasticity, but also dissolve carbons and iron compounds. Kilns were also used for glazing, when two firings were needed. Once fired, the pots were allowed to cool slowly, and small cracks were repaired before they were ready for use.

40. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Why archaeologist study prehistoric pot making

(B) How early pottery was made and decorated

(C) The development of kilns used by early potters

(D) The variety of decorations on prehistoric pottery

41. The word "meticulously" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) heavily

(B) initially

(C) carefully

(D) completely

42. Which of the following was a process used by prehistoric potters to improve the texture of the clay?

(A) adding temper

(B) removing the water

(C) beating on the clay

(D) mixing the clay with plastic substances

43. The word "durability" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) quality

(B) endurance

(C) adaptability

(D) applicability

44. Prehistoric potters applied slips and glazes to their vessels in order to do which of the following?

(A) improve the appearance of the vessels

(B) prevent the vessels from leaking

(C) help the vessels to dry more quickly

(D) give the vessels a leather like quality

45. Which of the following was a method used by some potters to give vessels a glossy finish?

(A) smoothing them with wet hands

(B) mixing the clay with colored solutions

(C) baking them at a very high temperature

(D) rubbing them with a smooth hard object

46. The word "incised" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) designed

(B) carved

(C) detailed

(D) painted

47. The word "they" in line 31 refers to

(A) kilns

(B) firings

(C) pots

(D) cracks

48. According to the passage, the advantage of kilns over open fires was that the kilns

(A) required less wood for burning

(B) reached higher temperatures

(C) kept ashes away from the pots

(D) baked vessels without cracking them

49. Look at the terms "temper" (line 11) , "glazes" (lines 18), "kilns" (line 27), and "compounds" (line 29). Which of these terms is NOT defined in the passage?

(A) temper

(B) glazes

(C) kilns

(D) compounds

50. The passage mentions that then pottery is fired under burning wood, the ashes help

(A) prevent the clay from cracking

(B) produce a more consistently baked pot

(C) attain a very high temperature

(D) give the vessel a glasslike finish

2000年10月语法题

1. The role of the ear is ____ acoustic disturbances into neural signals suitable for transmission to the brain.

(A) to code

(B) so that coded

(C) coded

(D) it coding

2. The imagist movement in poetry arose during the second decade of the twentieth century ____ against romanticism.

(A) when a revolt

(B) as a revolt

(C) a revolt was

(D) that a revolt

3. Virtually ____ species have biological clocks that regulate their metabolism over a 24-hour period.

(A) all there are

(B) all

(C) all are

(D) they all

4. According to United States criminal law, insanity may relieve a person from the usual legal consequences____.

(A) what his or her acts have

(B) of his or her acts are

(C) of his or her acts

(D) what of his or her acts

5. In addition to __a place where business deals are made, a stock exchange collects statistics, publishes prices quotations, and sets rules and standards for trading.

(A) being

(B) it is

(C ) that which

(D) where is

6. The first inhabitants of the territories ____Canada came across the Bering Strait and along the edge of the Arctic ice.

(A) make up that now

(B) make up now that

(C ) that make up now

(D) that now make up

7.____ need for new schools following the Second World War that provided the sustained thrust for the architectural program in Columbus, Indiana.

(A) Since the

(B) To be the

(C ) The

(D) It was the

8. The soybean contains vitamins, essential minerals, ____high percentage of protein.

(A) a

(B) and a

(C ) since a

(D) of which a

9. Hail is formed when a drop of rain is carried by an updraft to an altitude where ____ to freeze it.

(A) is the air cold enough

(B) the air cold enough

(C ) the cold enough air

(D) the air is cold enough

10. Geometrically, the hyperbolic functions are related to the hyperbola, ____ the trigonometric functions are related to the circle.

(A) just as

(B) same

(C) similar to

(D) and similar

11. ___, Kilauea is one of the world’s most active volcanoes, having erupted dozens of times since 1952.

(A) The big island of Hawaii’s location

(B) Locates the big island of Hawaii

(C ) Located on the big island of Hawaii

(D) On the big island of Hawai’s location

12. Not until the eighteenth century __ the complex chemistry of metallurgy.

(A) when scientists began to appreciate

(B) did scientists begin to appreciate

(C) scientists who were beginning to appreciate

(D) the appreciation of scientists began

13. ____ 1810, water-powered textile manufacturing arrived in New Hampshire with the founding of a company in Manchester that manufactured cotton and wool.

(A) Early

(B) In the early

(C ) As early as

(D) When early

14. The settings of Eudora Welty’s stories may be rather limited, but ___ about human nature is quite broad.

(A) exposes

(B) exposes that

(C ) she exposes

(D) what she exposes

15. Lichens grow extremely well in very cold parts of the world ____ plants can survive.

(A) where few other

(B) few others

(C ) where do few others

(D) there are few others

16．The pear tree has simple, oval leaves that are smoother and shinier than them of the apple.

17．In the orbit of a planet around the Sun, the point closest to the Sun is called it the perihelion.

18．In the early 1900’s, Roy Harris created and promoted a distinctly American style of classical music and greatly influenced a number of composer in the United States.

19．The eighteenth century witnessed the emergence of North American ports, particular Boston, New York, and Philadelphia, as major commercial centers within the British empire.

20．Guitarlike instruments have exist since ancient times, but the first written mention of the guitar itself is from the fourteenth century.

21．The law of biogenesis is the principle what all living organisms are derived from a parent or parents.

22．Onyx is a mineral that can be recognized its regular and straight parallel bands of white, black, or brown.

23．There are as many as 200 million insects for every human beings, and in fact their total number exceeds that of all other animals taken together.

24．Native to South America and cultivated there for thousands of years, the peanut is said to have introduced to North America by early explorers.

25．Originally canoes were made by the hollowing out of logs and used were for combat as well as transport.

26．Among the symptoms of measles, which takes about twelve days to incubate, are a high fever, swelling of glands in the neck, a cough, and sensitive to light.

27．Ice crystals in a glacier tends to melt and recrystallize within a brief moment of travel on a downhill glide.

28．Photograph was revolutionized in 1851 by the introduction of the collodion process for making glass negatives.

29．The piano is a stringed musical instrument in which the strings are strike by felt-covered hammers controlled by a board.

30．The sounds used in human languages to create meaning consist of small variation in air pressure can be sensed by the ear.

31．The mountains, especially the Rocky Mountains, formerly constituted a seriously barrier to east-west trade in British Columbia.

32．Telescope are frequently used in astronomy to collect light from a celestial object, bring the light into focus, and producing a magnified image.

33．Diamond is the hardest known substance, so diamond can be cut only by another diamonds.

34．There are about 350 species and subspecies of birds in danger of become extinct, with a large number of them, 117 in all, found on oceanic islands.

35．The nineteenth-century romantic movement in art was partially a reaction to what was perceived as overemphasis on reasonable and order in neoclassicism.

36．Like triglycerides, cholesterol is a type of fat that is both consumed in the diet but manufactured by the body.

37．Both the United States silver dollar and half-dollar, first minted in 1794, had a figure of Liberty on one side and a eagle on the reverse side.

38．For an advertisement to be effective, its production and placement must to be based on a knowledge of human nature and a skilled use of the media.

39．While photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich organic compounds.

40．The Democratic Party, the most oldest existing political party in the United States, has played a vital role in the nation’s history.

Questions 1-10

One area of pale anthropological study involves the eating and dietary habits of hominids, erect bipedal primates—including early humans. It is clear that at some stage of history, humans began to carry their food to central places, called home bases, where it was shared and consumed with the young and other adults. The use of home bases is a fundamental component of human social behavior; the common meal served at a common hearth is a powerful symbol, a mark of social unity. Home base behavior does not occur among nonhuman primates and is rare among mammals. It is unclear when humans began to use home bases, what kind of communications and social relations were involved, and what the ecological and food- choice contexts of the shift were. Work on early tools, surveys of pale anthropological sites, development and testing of broad ecological theories, and advances in comparative primatology are contributing to knowledge about this central chapter in human prehistory.

(15)  One innovative approach to these issues involves studying damage and wear on stone tools. Researchers make tools that replicate excavated specimens as closely as possible and then try to use them as the originals might have been used, in woodcutting, hunting, or cultivation. Depending on how the tool is used, characteristic chip page patterns and microscopically distinguishable polishes develop near the edges. The first application of this method of analysis to stone tools that are 1.5 million to 2 million years old indicates that, from the start, an important function of early stone tools was to extract highly nutritious food—meat and marrow-from large animal carcasses. Fossil bones with cut marks caused by stone tools have been discovered lying in the same 2-million-year-old layers that yielded the oldest such tools and the oldest hominid specimens (including humans) with larger than ape- sized brains. This discovery increases scientists' certainty about when human ancestors began to eat more meat than present-day nonhuman primates. But several questions remain unanswered: how frequently meat eating occurred; what the social implications of meat eating were; and whether the increased use of meat coincides with the beginnings of the use of home bases.

1. The passage mainly discusses which of the following aspects of hominid behavior?

(A) Changes in eating and dietary practices

(B) The creation of stone hunting tools

(C) Social interactions at home bases

(D) Methods of extracting nutritious food from carcasses

2. According to the passage, bringing a meal to a location to be shared by many individuals is

(A) an activity typical of nonhuman primates

(B) a common practice among animals that eat meat

(C) an indication of social unity.

(D) a behavior that encourages better dietary habits

3. The word "consumed" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) prepared

(B)  stored

(C) distributed

(D) eaten

4. According to paragraph 2, researchers make copies of old stone tools in order to

(A) protect the old tools from being worn out

(B)  display examples of the old tools in museums

(C)  test theories about how old tools were used

(D) learn how to improve the design of modern tools

5. In paragraph 2, the author mentions all of the following as examples of ways in which early stone tools were used EXCEPT to

(A) build home bases

(B) obtain food

(C) make weapons

(D) shape wood

6. The word "innovative" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) good

(B) new

(C) simple

(D) costly

7. The word "them" in line 17 refers to

(A) issues

(B) researchers

(C) tools

(D) specimens

8. The author mentions "characteristic chip page patterns" in line 19 as an example of

(A) decorations cut into wooden objects

(B) differences among tools made of various substances

(C) impressions left on prehistoric animal bones

(D) indications of wear on stone tools

9. The word "extract" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) identify

(B) remove

(C) destroy

(D) compare

10. The word "whether" in line 31 is closest in meaning to

(A) if

(B) how

(C) why

(D) when

Questions 11-20

In seventeenth-century colonial North America, all day-to-day cooking was done in the fireplace. Generally large, fireplaces were planned for cooking as well as for warmth. Those in the Northeast were usually four or five feet high, and in the South, they were often high enough for a person to walk into. A heavy timber called th e mantel tree was used as a lintel to support the stonework above the fireplace opening. This timber might be scorched occasionally, but it was far enough in front of the rising column of heat to be safe from catching fire.

(9)     Two ledges were built across from each other on the inside of the chimney. On these rested the ends of a "lug pole" from which pots were suspended when cooking. Wood from a freshly cut tree was used for the lug pole, so it would resist heat, but it had to be replaced frequently because it dried out and charred, and was thus weakened. Sometimes the pole broke and the dinner fell into the fire. When iron became easier to obtain, it was used instead of wood for lug poles, and later fireplaces had pivoting metal rods to hang pots from.

(17)  Beside the fireplace and built as part of it was the oven. It was made like a small, secondary fireplace with a flue leading into the main chimney to draw out smoke. Sometimes the door of the oven faced the room, but most ovens were built with the opening facing into the fireplace. On baking days (usually once or twice a week) a roaring fire of "oven wood," consisting of brown maple sticks, was maintained in the oven until its walls were extremely hot. The embers were later removed, bread dough was put into the oven, and the oven was sealed shut until the bread was fully baked.

(26)  Not all baking was done in a big oven, however. Also used was an iron "bake kettle," which looked like a stewpot on legs and which had an iron lid. This is said to have worked well when it was placed in the fireplace, surrounded by glowing wood embers, with more embers piled on its lid.

11. Which of the following aspects of domestic life in colonial North America does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Methods of baking bread

(B) Fireplace cooking

(C) The use of iron kettles in a typical kitchen

(D) The types of wood used in preparing meals

12. The author mentions the fireplaces built in the South to illustrate

(A) how the materials used were similar to the materials used in northeastern fireplaces

(B)  that they served diverse functions

(C)  that they were usually larger than northeastern fireplaces

(D) how they were safer than northeastern fireplaces

13. The word "scorched" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) burned

(B) cut

(C) enlarged

(D) bent

14. The word "it" in line 7 refers to

(A) the stonework

(B) the fireplace opening

(C) the mantel tree

(D) the rising column of heat

15. According to the passage, how was food usually cooked in a pot in the seventeenth century?

(A) By placing the pot directly into the fire

(B) By putting the pot in the oven

(C) By filling the pot with hot water

(D) By hanging the pot on a pole over the fire

16. The word "obtain" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) maintain

(B) reinforce

(C) manufacture

(D) acquire

17. Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 2 as a disadvantage of using a wooden lug pole?

(A) It was made of wood not readily available.

(B) It was difficult to move or rotate.

(C) It occasionally broke.

(D) It became too hot to touch.

18. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that, compared to other firewood, "oven wood" produced

(A) less smoke

(B) more heat

(C) fewer embers

(D) lower flames

19. According to paragraph 3, all of the following were true of a colonial oven EXCEPT:

(A) It was used to heat the kitchen every day.

(B) It was built as part of the main fireplace.

(C) The smoke it generated went out through the main chimney.

(D) It was heated with maple sticks.

20. According to the passage, which of the following was an advantage of a "bake kettle"?

(A) It did not take up a lot of space in the fireplace.

(B) It did not need to be tightly closed.

(C) It could be used in addition to or instead of the oven.

(D) It could be used to cook several foods at one time.

Questions 21-29

Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects—an estimated 90 percent of the world's species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity.

(8)     Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions. For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed.

(16)  A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly "personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates, In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase.

(26)  In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.

21. Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Their physical characteristics

(B) Their names

(C) Their adaptation to different habitats

(D) Their variety

22. The word "consequence" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) result

(B) explanation

(C) analysis

(D) requirement

23.  Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because they

(A) are simple in structure

(B)  are viewed positively by people

(C)  have been given scientific names

(D) are found mainly in temperate climates

24.  The word "striking" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) physical

(B) confusing

(C) noticeable

(D) successful

25. The word "exceed" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) locate

(B) allow

(C) go beyond

(D) come close to

26. All of the following are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity EXCEPT

(A) differences between temperate and tropical zones

(B) patterns of distribution of species in each region

(C) migration among temperate and tropical zones

(D) variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants

27. The author mentions tropical Asia in lines 17-20 as an example of a location where

(A) butterfly behavior varies with climate

(B) a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established

(C) butterflies are affected by human populations

(D) documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species

28. Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?

(A) European butterfly habitats

(B) Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions

(C) Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region

(D) Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups

29. The word "generated" in line 27 is closest in meaning to

(A) requested

(B) caused

(C) assisted

(D) estimated

Questions 30-40

According to anthropologists, people in preindustrial societies spent 3 to 4 hours per day or about 20 hours per week doing the work necessary for life. Modern comparisons of the amount of work performed per week, however, begin with the Industrial Revolution (1760-1840) when 10 - to 12-hour workdays with six workdays per week were the norm. Even with extensive time devoted to work, however, both incomes and standards of living were low. As incomes rose near the end of the Industrial Revolution, it became increasingly common to treat Saturday afternoons as a half-day holiday. The half holiday had become standard practice in Britain by the 1870's, but did not become common in the United States until the 1920's.

In the United States, the first third of the twentieth century saw the workweek move from 60 hours per week to just under 50 hours by the start of the 1930' s. In 1914 Henry Ford reduced daily work hours at his automobile plants from 9 to 8. In 1926 he announced that henceforth his factories would close for the entire day on Saturday. At the time, Ford received criticism from other firms such as United States Steel and Westinghouse, but the idea was popular with workers.

The Depression years of the 1930's brought with them the notion of job sharing to spread available work around; the workweek dropped to a modem low for the United States of 35 hours. In 1938 the Fair Labor Standards Act mandated a weekly maximum of 40 hours to begin in 1940, and since that time the 8-hour day, 5-day workweek has been the standard in the United States. Adjustments in various places, however, show that this standard is not immutable. In 1987, for example, German metalworkers struck for and received a 37.5-hour workweek; and in 1990 many workers in Britain won a 37-hour week. Since 1989, the Japanese government has moved from a 6- to a 5-day workweek and has set a national target of 1,800 work hours per year for the average worker. The average amount of work per year in Japan in 1989 was 2,088 hours per worker, compared to 1,957 for the United States and 1,646 for France.

30. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Why people in preindustrial societies worked few hours per week

(B) Changes that have occurred in the number of hours that people work per week

(C) A comparison of the number of hours worked per year in several industries

(D) Working conditions during the Industrial Revolution

31. Compared to preiudustrial times, the number of hours in the workweek in the nineteenth century

(A) remained constant

(B) decreased slightly

(C) decreased significantly

(D) increased significantly

32. The word "norm" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) minimum.

(B) example

(C) possibility

(D) standard

33. The word "henceforth" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) in the end

(B) for a brief period

(C) from that time on

(D) on occasion

34.  The "idea" mentioned in line 17 refers to

(A) the 60-hour workweek

(B) the reduction in the cost of automobiles

(C) the reduction in the workweek at some automobile factories

(D) the criticism of Ford by United States Steel and Westinghouse

35.  What is one reason for the change in the length of the workweek for the average worker in the United States during the 1930's?

(A) Several people sometimes shared a single job.

(B) Labor strikes in several countries influenced labor policy in the United States.

(C) Several corporations increased the length of the workweek.

(D) The United States government instituted a 35-hour workweek.

36. Which of the following is mentioned as one of the purposes of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938?

(A) To discourage workers from asking for increased wages

(B) To establish a limit on the number of hours in the workweek

(C) To allow employers to set the length of the workweek for their workers

(D) To restrict trade with countries that had a long workweek

37.  The word "mandated" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) required

(B) recommended

(C) eliminated

(D) considered

38.  The word "immutable" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A)  unmatched

(B)  irregular

(C)  unnecessary

(D)  unchangeable

39.  Which of the following is NOT mentioned as evidence that the length of the workweek has been declining since the nineteenth century?

(A) The half-day holiday (line 8-9)

(B) Henry Ford (lines 13-14)

(C) United States Steel and Westinghouse (line 15)

(D) German metalworkers (line 23)

40. According to the passage, one goal of the Japanese government is to reduce the average annual amount of work to

(A) 1,646 hours

(B) 1,800 hours

(C) 1,957 hours

(D) 2,088 hours

Questions 41-50

The Arts and Crafts Movement in the United States was responsible for sweeping changes in attitudes toward the decorative arts, then considered the minor or household arts. Its focus on decorative arts helped to induce United States museums and private collectors to begin collecting furniture, glass, ceramics, metalwork, and textiles in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries. The fact that artisans, who were looked on as mechanics or skilled workers in the eighteenth century, are frequently considered artists today is directly attributable to the Arts and Crafts Movement of the nineteenth century. The importance now placed on attractive and harmonious home decoration can also be traced to this period, when Victorian interior arrangements were revised to admit greater light and more freely flowing spaces.

The Arts and Crafts Movement reacted against mechanized processes that threatened handcrafts and resulted in cheapened, monotonous merchandise. Founded in the late nineteenth century by British social critics John Ruskin and William Morris, the movement revered craft as a form of art. In a rapidly industrializing society, most Victorians agreed that art was an essential moral ingredient in the home environment, and in many middle- and working-class homes craft was the only form of art, Ruskin and his followers criticized not only the degradation of artisans reduced to machine operators, but also the impending loss of daily contact with handcrafted objects, fashioned with pride, integrity, and attention to beauty.

In the United States as well as in Great Britain, reformers extolled the virtues of handcrafted objects: simple, straightforward design; solid materials of good quality; and sound, enduring construction techniques. These criteria were interpreted in a variety of styles, ranging from rational and geometric to romantic or naturalistic. Whether abstract, stylized, or realistically treated, the consistent theme in virtually all Arts and Crafts design is nature.

The Arts and Crafts Movement was much more than a particular style; it was a philosophy of domestic life. Proponents believed that if simple design, high-quality materials, and honest construction were realized in the home and its appointments, then the occupants would enjoy moral and therapeutic effects. For both artisan and consumer, the Arts and Crafts doctrine was seen as a magical force against the undesirable effects of industrialization.

41. The passage primarily focuses on nineteenth-century arts and crafts in terms of which of the following?

(A) Their naturalistic themes

(B) Their importance in museum collections

(C) Their British origin

(D) Their role in an industrialized society

42. According to the passage, before the nineteenth century, artisans were thought to be

(A) defenders of moral standards

(B) creators of cheap merchandise

(C) skilled workers

(D) artists

43. It can be inferred from the passage that the Arts and Crafts Movement would have considered ail of the following to be artists EXCEPT

(A) creators of textile designs

(B) people who produce handmade glass objects

(C) operators of machines that automatically cut legs, for furniture

(D) metalworkers who create unique pieces of jewelry

44.  The word "revered" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) respected

(B) described

(C) avoided

(D) created

45. According to paragraph 2, the handcrafted objects in the homes of middle -and working-class families usually were

(A) made by members of the family

(B) the least expensive objects in their homes

(C) regarded as being morally uplifting

(D) thought to symbolize progress

46. The word "extolled" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) exposed

(B) praised

(C) believed

(D) accepted

47.  The author mentions all of the following as attributes of handcrafted objects EXCEPT

(A) the pride with which they were crafted

(B) the complexity of their design

(C)  the long time that they lasted

(D) the quality of their materials

48. The word "consistent" in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) conservative

(B) considerable

(C) constant

(D) concrete

49. According to the passage, which of the following changes occurred at the same time as the Arts and Crafts Movement?

(A) The creation of brighter and more airy spaces inside homes

(B) The rejection of art that depicted nature in a realistic manner

(C) A decline of interest in art museum collections

(D) An increase in the buying of imported art objects

50. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

(A) Private collectors in the nineteenth century concentrated on acquiring paintings.

(B) The Arts and Crafts Movement in the United States, unlike the one in Britain, did not react strongly against mechanized processes.

(C) Handcrafted objects in the United States and Britain in the nineteenth century did not use geometric designs.

(D) The Arts and Crafts Movement believed in the beneficial effect for people from being surrounded by beautiful objects.

2001年01月语法题

1. A three-foot octopus can crawl through a hole ------ in diameter.

(A) than one inch less

(B) less than one inch

(C) one less inch than

(D) than less one inch

2. ------adopted the decimal system of coinage in 1867.

(A) Canada

(B) When Canada

(C) Canada, which

(D) There was Canada

3. Generally, the representatives -----a legislature are constitutionally elected by a broad spectrum of the population.

(A) who they compose

(B) who compose

(C) and compose

(D) compose

4. The Actor’s Studio, a professional actors’ workshop in New York City, provides ------where actors can work together without the pressure of commercial production.

(A) a place and

(B) a place

(C) so that a place

(D) a place is

5. ------ that life began billions of years ago in the water.

(A) It is believed

(B) In the belief

(C) The belief

(D) Believing

6. By 1872 the United States had 70 engineering colleges, ------ astonishing expansion credited largely to the Morrill Act of 1862.

(A) because

(B) an

(C) to which

(D) was

7. The artist Romare Bcarden was ------ whose yellows, deep blues, and fuchsias contrasted strongly with photographic gray in his bright collages.

(A) with a gift for color

(B) a gifted colorist

(C) a gift with colorful

(D) gifted with coloring

8. The most important chemical catalyst on this planet is chlorophyll, ------- carbon dioxide and water react to form carbohydrates.

(A) whose presence

(B) which is present

(C) presenting

(D) in the presence of which

9. One theory of the origin of the universe is ---- from the explosion of a tiny, extremely dense fireball several billion years ago.

(A) because what formed

(B) the formation that

(C) that it formed

(D) when forming

10. Roads in the United States remained crude, ------ with graved or wood planks, until the beginning of the twentieth century.

(A) were unsurefaced or they covered them

(B) which unsureface or covered

(C) unsurfaced or covered them

(D) unsurfaced or covered

11. Portrait prints were the first reproductions of American paintings ------- widely distributed in the United States.

(A) were

(B) that which

(C) that being

(D) to be

12. Abigail Adams was prodigious letter writer, ------- many editions of her letters have been published.

(A) who

(B) and

(C) in addition to

(D) due to

13. In geometry, an ellipse may be defined as the locus of all points -------distances from two fixed points is constant.

(A) which as the sum of

(B) of the sum which

(C) the sum of whose

(D) whose sum that the

14. -------at the site of a fort established by the Northwest Mounted Police, Calgary is now one of Canada’s fastest growing cities.

(A) Built

(B) It is built

(C) To build

(D) Having built

15. An image on a national flag can symbolize political ideals that -------express.

(A) take many words to otherwise would.

(B) would take to many otherwise words

(C) many words to take would otherwise

(D) would otherwise take many words to

16. A variation of collodion photography was the tintype, which captured images on a black or dark brown metal plate instead from on glass.

17. In cases of minor injury to the brain. Amnesia is likely to be a temporarily condition.

18. The system of chemical symbols, first devised about 1800. gives a concise and instantly recognizable description of a element or compound.

19. The fact that white light is light composed of various wavelengths may be demonstrating by dispersing a beam of such light through a prism.

20. Over the course of history, much civilizations developed their own Number systems.

21. In the United States during the Second World War, each trade unions and employers avoided federal limits on wages by offering employees Nontaxable medical benefits.

22. Philosophy is the study of the nature of reality, knowledge, existent, and ethics by means of rational inquiry.

23. Poems vary in length from brief lyric poems to narrative or epic poems, which can be as broad in scope than a novel.

24. The population of California more than doubled during the period 1940-1960, creating problems in road-building and provide water for its arid southern section.

25. Although based it on feudal models, the colony of Pennsylvania developed a reputation for a progressive political and social outlook.

26. Hard and resistant to corrosion, bronze is traditionally used in bell casting and is the material used widely most for metal sculpture.

27. The Appalachian Mountains formation a natural barrier between the eastern seaboard and the vast lowlands of the continental interior of North America.

28. The United States census for 1970 showed that the French-speaking residents of Louisiana were one of the country’s most compact regional linguistic minority.

29. When used as food additives, antioxidants prevent fats and oils from become rancid when exposed to air, and thus extend their shelf life.

30. Liquid will flow and take the shape of their container.

31. Copper was the first metallic used by humans and is second only to iron in its utility through the ages.

32. Despite the fact that lemurs are general nocturnal, the ring-tailed lemur travels by day in bands of four to twelve individuals.

33. The Western world is beset with the range of problem that characterize mature, postindustrial societies.

34. Acrylic paints are either applied using a knife or diluted and spreading with a paintbrush.

35. Some marine invertebrates, such as the sea urchin and the starfish, migrates from deep water to shallow during spring and early summer to spawn.

36. Marshes, wetland areas characterized by plant grassy growth, are distinguished from swamps, wetlands where trees grow.

37. Wampum, beads used as a form of exchange by some Native Americans, was made of bits of seashells cut, drill, and strung into belts.

38. Kangaroos use their long and powerful tails for balance themselves when sitting upright or jumping.

39. Proper city planning provides for the distribution of public utilities, public buildings, parks, and recreation centers, and for adequate and the

inexpensive housing.

40. Most traditional dances are made up of a prearranged series of steps and movements, but modern dancers are generally free to move as they choice.

Questions 1-9

In 1972, a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar To that existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an areas a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or removed.

(9)     The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce. Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after 1978. They range in size from the very small (less than I square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers.

(18)  The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species.

(24)  Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries. The National Estuarine Research Reserve System, managed by the United States government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries. Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves, and preserves. Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range from the well-known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures on fragile coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas. whether as sanctuaries, parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that diversity.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves

(B) Various marine conservation programs

(C) International agreements on coastal protection

(D) Similarities between land and sea protected environments

2. The word “intent” in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) repetition

(B) approval

(C) goal

(D) revision

3. The word “administered” in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) managed

(B) recognized

(C) opposed

(D) justified

4. The word “these” in line 13 refers to

(A) sites

(B) candidates

(C) decades

(D) sanctuaries

5. The passage mentions the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary (lines 15-16) as an example of a sanctuary that

(A) is not well know

(B) covers a large area

(C) is smaller than the Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary

(D) was not originally proposed for sanctuary status

6. According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program established?

(A) Before 1972 (B) After 1987

(C) One hundred years before national parks were established

(D) One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established

7. According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National Marine Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT

(A) the discovery of several new marine organisms

(B) the preservation of connections between individual marine species

(C) the protection of coastal habitats

(D) the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life

8. The word “periphery” in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) depth

(B) landmass

(C) warm habitat

(D) outer edge

9. The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside the United States?

(A) Limitations in financial support

(B) The use of marine species as food

(C) Variability of the climate

(D) Increases in tourism

Questions 10-17

From their inception, most rural neighborhoods in colonial North America included at least one carpenter, joiner, sawyer, and cooper in woodworking; a weaver and a tailor for clothing production; a tanner, currier, and cordwainer (shoemaker) for fabricating leather objects; and a blacksmith for metalwork, Where stone was the local building material, a mason was sure to appear on the list of people who paid taxes. With only an apprentice as an assistant, the rural artisan provided the neighborhood with common goods from furniture to shoes to farm equipment in exchange for cash or for “goods in kind” from the customer’s field, pasture, or dairy. Sometimes artisans transformed material provided by the customer wove cloth of yam spun at the farm from the wool of the family sheep; made chairs or tables from wood cut in the customer’s own woodlot; produced shoes or leather breeches from cow, deer, or sheepskin tanned on the farm.

(15)  Like their farming neighbors, rural artisans were part of an economy seen, by one historian, as “an orchestra conducted by nature.” Some tasks could not be done in the winter, other had to be put off during harvest time, and still others waited on raw materials that were only produced seasonally. As the days grew shorter, shop hours kept pace, since few artisans could afford enough artificial light to continue work when the Sun went down. To the best of their ability, colonial artisans tried to keep their shops as efficient as possible and to regularize their schedules and methods of production for the best return on their investment in time, tools, and materials, While it is pleasant to imagine a woodworker, for example, carefully matching lumber, joining a chest together without resort to nails or glue, and applying all thought and energy to carving beautiful designs on the finished piece, the time required was not justified unless the customer was willing to pay extra for the quality— and few in rural areas were, Artisans, therefore, often found it necessary to employ as many shortcuts and economics as possible while still producing satisfactory products.

10. What aspect of rural colonial North America does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Farming practices

(B) The work of artisans

(C) The character of rural neighborhoods

(D) Types of furniture that were popular

11. The word “inception” in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) investigation

(B) location

(C) beginning

(D) records

12. The word “fabricating” in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) constructing

(B) altering

(C) selecting

(D) demonstrating

13. It can be inferied from the from the passage that the use of artificial light in colonial times was

(A) especially helpful to woodworkers

(B) popular in rural areas

(C) continuous in winter

(D) expensive

14. Why did colonial artisans want to “regularize their schedules their schedules” (line 22)?

(A) To enable them to produce high quality products

(B) To enable them to duplicate an item many times

(C) To impress their customers

(D) To keep expenses low

15. The phrase “resort to” in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) protecting with

(B) moving toward

(C) manufacturing

(D) using

16. The word “few” in lines 28 refers to

(A) woodworkers

(B) finished pieces

(C) customers

(D) chests

17. It can inferred that the artisans referred to in the passage usually produced products that were

(A) simple

(B) delicate

(C) beautifully decorated

(D) exceptionally long-lasting

Questions 18-28

Cities develop as a result of functions that they can perform. Some functions result directly from the ingenuity of the citizenry, but most functions result from the needs of the local area and of the surrounding hinterland (the region that supplies goods to the city and to which the city furnishes services and other goods). Geographers often make a distinction between the situation and the site of a city. Situation refers to the general position in relation to the surrounding region, whereas site involves physical characteristics of the specific location. Situation is normally much more important to the continuing prosperity of a city. if a city is well situated in regard to its hinterland, its development is much more likely to continue. Chicago, for example, possesses an almost unparalleled situation: it is located at the southern end of a huge lake that forces east-west transportation lines to be compressed into its vicinity, and at a meeting of significant land and water transport routes. It also overlooks what is one of the world’s finest large farming regions. These factors ensured that Chicago would become a great city regardless of the disadvantageous characteristics of the available site, such as being prone to flooding during thunderstorm activity.

(19)  Similarly, it can be argued that much of New York City’s importance stems from its early and continuing advantage of situation. Philadephia and Boston both originated at about the same time as New York and shared New York’s location at the western end of one of the world’s most important oceanic trade routes, but only New York   possesses an easy-access functional connection (the Hudson-Mohawk lowland) to the vast Midwestern hinterland. This account does not alone explain New York’s primacy, but it does include several important factors. Among the many aspects of situation that help to explain why some cities grow and others do not, original location on a navigable waterway seems particularly applicable. Of course, such characteristic as slope, drainage, power resources, river crossings, coastal shapes, and other physical characteristics help to determine city location, but such factors are normally more significant in early stages of city development than later.

18. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The development of trade routes through United States cities

(B) Contrasts in settlement patterns in United States

(C) Historical differences among three large United States cities

(D) The importance of geographical situation in the growth of United States cities

19. The word “ingenuity” in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) wealth

(B) resourcefulness

(C) traditions

(D) organization

20. The passage suggests that a geographer would consider a city’s soil type part of its

(A) hinterland

(B) situation

(C) site

(D) function

21. According to the passage, a city’s situation is more important than its site in regard to the city’s.

(A) long-term growth and prosperity

(B) ability to protect its citizenry

(C) possession of favorable weather conditions

(D) need to import food supplies

22. The author mentions each of the following as an advantage of Chicago’s location EXCEPT its.

(A) hinterland

(B) nearness to a large lake

(C) position in regard to transport routes

(D) flat terrain

23. The word “characteristics” in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) choices

(B) attitudes

(C) qualities

(D) inhabitants

24. The primary purpose of paragraph 1 is to

(A) summarize past research and introduce anew study

(B) describe a historical period

(C) emphasize the advantages of one theory over another

(D) define a term and illustrate it with an example

25. According to the passage, Philadelphia and Boston are similar to New York City in

(A) size of population

(B) age

(C) site

(D) availability of rail transportation

26. The word “functional” in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) alternate

(B) unknown

(C) original

(D) usable

27. The word “it” in line 26 refers to

(A) account

(B) primacy

(C) connection

(D) hinterland

28. The word “significant” in line 32 is closest in meaning to

(A) threatening

(B) meaningful

(C) obvious

(D) available

Questions 29-10

The largest of the giant gas planets, Jupiter, with a volume 1,300 times greater than Earth’s, contains more than twice the mass of all the other planets combined. It is thought to be a gaseous and fluid planet without solid surfaces, Had it been somewhat more massive, Jupiter might have attained internal temperatures as high as the ignition point for nuclear reactions, and it would have flamed as a star in its own right. Jupiter and the other giant planets are of a low-density type quite distinct from the terrestrial planets: they are composed predominantly of such substances as hydrogen, helium, ammonia, and methane, unlike terrestrial planets. Much of Jupiter’s interior might be in the form of liquid, metallic hydrogen, Normally, hydrogen is a gas, but under pressures of millions of kilograms per square centimeter, which exist in the deep interior of Jupiter, the hydrogen atoms might lock together to form a liquid with the properties of a metal. Some scientists believe that the innermost core of Jupiter might be rocky, or metallic like the core of Earth.

(16)  Jupiter rotates very fast, once every 9.8 hours. As a result, its clouds, which are composed largely of frozen and liquid ammonia, have been whipped into alternating dark and bright bands that circle the planet at different speeds in different latitudes. Jupiter’s puzzling Great Red Spot changes size as it hovers in the Southern Hemisphere. Scientists speculate it might be a gigantic hurricane, which because of its large size (the Earth could easily fit inside it), lasts for hundreds of years. Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as it receives from the Sun. Perhaps this is primeval heat or beat generated by the continued gravitational contraction of the planet. Another starlike characteristic of Jupiter is its sixteen natural satellites, which, like a miniature model of the Solar System, decrease in density with distance—from rocky moons close to Jupiter to icy moons farther away. If Jupiter were about 70 times more massive, it would have become a star, Jupiter is the best-preserved sample of the early solar nebula, and with its satellites, might contain the most important clues about the origin of the Solar System.

29. The word “attained” in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) attempted

(B) changed

(C) lost

(D) reached

30. The word “flamed” in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) burned

(B) divided

(C) fallen

(D) grown

31. The word “they” in line 7 refers to

(A) nuclear reactions

(B) giant planets

(C) terrestrial

(D) substances

32. According to the passage, hydrogen can become a metallic-like liquid when it is

(A) extremely hot

(B) combined with helium

(C) similar atmospheres

(D) metallic cores

33. According to the passage, some scientists believe Jupiter and Earth are similar in that they both have

(A) solid surfaces

(B) similar masses

(C) similar atmospheres

(D) metallic cores

34. The clouds surrounding Jupiter are mostly composed of

(A) ammonia

(B) helium

(C) hydrogen

(D) methane

35. It can be inferred from the passage that the appearance of alternating bands circling Jupiter is caused by

(A) the Great Red Spot

(B) heat from the Sun

(C) the planet’s fast rotation

(D) Storms from the planet’s Southern Hemisphere

36. The author uses the word “puzzling” in line 19 to suggest that the Great Red Spot is

(A) the only spot of its kind

(B) not well understood

(C) among the largest of such spots

(D) a problem for the planet’s continued existence

37. Paragraph 3 supports which of the following conclusions?

(A) Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as the Sun.

(B) Jupiter has a weaker gravitational force than the other planets.

(C) Scientists believe that Jupiter was once a star.

(D) Scientists might learn about the beginning of the Solar System by Studying Jupiter.

38. Why does the author mention primeval heat (lines 22-24) ?

(A) To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the Sun

(B) To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the other planets

(C) To suggest a possible

explanation for the number of satellites that Jupiter has

(D) To suggest a possible source of the quantity of heat that Jupiter gives off

39. According to the passage, Jupiter’s most distant moon is

(A) the least dense

(B) the largest

(C) warm on the surface

(D) very rocky on the surface

40. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

(A) If Jupiter had fewer satellites, it would be easier for scientists to study the planet itself.

(B) If Jupiter had had more mass, it would have developed internal nuclear reactions.

(C) If Jupiter had been smaller, it would have become a terrestrial planet.

(D) If Jupiter were larger, it would give off much less heat

Questions 41-50

The tern “art deco” has come to encompass three distinct but related design trends of the 1920’s and 1930’s. The first was what is frequently referred to as “zigzag moderne” –the exotically ornamental style of such skyscrapers as the Chrysler Building in New York City and related structures such as the Paramount Theater in Oakland, California The word “zigzag” alludes to the geometric and stylized ornamentation of zigzags, angular patterns, abstracted plant and animal motifs, sunbursts, astrological imagery, formalized fountains, and related themes that were applied in mosaic relief and mural form to the exterior and interior of the buildings. Many of these buildings were shaped in the ziggurat form, a design resembling an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower that recedes in progressively smaller stages to the summit, creating a staircase-like effect. The second manifestation of art deco was the 1930’s streamlined moderne” style—a Futuristic-looking aerodynamic style of rounded corners and horizontal bands known as “speed stripes.” In architecture, these elements were frequently accompanied by round windows, extensive use of glass block, and flat rooftops.

(18)  The third style, referred to as cither “international stripped classicism,” or simply “classical moderne,” also came to the forefront during the Depression, a period of severe economic difficult in the 1930’s. This was amore conservative style, blending a simplified modernistic style with a more austere form of geometric and stylized relief sculpture and other ornament, including interior murals. May buildings in this style were erected nationwide through government programs during the Depression.

(25)  Although art deco in its many forms was largely perceived as thoroughly modern, it was strongly influenced by the decorative arts movements that immediately preceded it. For example, like “art nouveau” (1890-1910), art deco also used plant motifs, but regularized the forms into abstracted repetitive patterns rather than presenting them as flowing, asymmetrical foliage, Like the Viennese craftspeople of the Wiener Werkstatte, art deco designers worked with exotic materials, geometricized shapes, and colorfully ornate patterns. Furthermore, like the artisans of the Arts and Crafts Movement in England and the United States, art deep practitioners considered it their mission to transform the domestic environment through well-designed furniture and household accessories.

41. What aspect of art deco does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The influence of art deco on the design of furniture and household accessories

(B) Ways in which government programs encouraged the development of art deco

(C) Architectural manifestations of art deco during the 1920’s and 1930’s

(D) Reasons for the popularity of art deco in New York and California

42. The word “encompass” in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) separate

(B) include

(C) replace

(D) enhance

43. The phrase “The first” in line 2 refers to

(A) the term “art deco”

(B) design trends

(C) the 1920’s and 1930’s

(D) skyscrapers

44. In line 11, the author mentions “an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower ” in order to

(A) describe the exterior shape of certain “art deco” buildings

(B) explain the differences between ancient and modern architectural steles

(C) emphasize the extent of architectural advances

(D) argue for a return to more traditional architectural design

45. The streamlined moderne style is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

(A) animal motifs

(B) flat roofs

(C) round windows

(D) “speed stripes”

46. The phrase “came to the forefront” in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) grew in complexity

(B) went through a process

(C) changed its approach

(D) became important

47. According to the passage, which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between art deco and art nouveau?

(A) They were art forms that competed with each other for government support during the Depression era.

(B) They were essentially the same art form.

(C) Art nouveau preceded art deco and influenced it.

(D) Art deco became important in the United States while art nouveau became popular in England.

48. According to the passage, a building having an especially ornate appearance would most probably have been designed in the style of

(A) zigzag moderne

(B) streamlined moderne

(C) classical moderne

(D) the Arts and Crafts Movement

49. According to the passage, which of the following design trends is known by more than one name ?

(A) Zigzag moderne

(B) Streamlined moderne

(C) International stripped classicism

(D) Arts and Crafts Movement

50. The passage is primarily developed as

(A) the historical chronology of a movement

(B) a description of specific buildings that became famous for their unusual beauty

(C) an analysis of various trends within an artistic movement

(D) an argument of the advantages of one artistic form over another

2001年05月语法题

1. The giant ragweed, or buffalo weed, grows _____.

(A) 18 feet up to high

(B) to high 18 feet up

(C) up to 18 feet high

(D) 18 feet high up to

2. Neptune is __ any planet except Pluto.

(A) to be far from the Sun

(B) far from the Sun being

(C) farther than the Sun is

(D) farther from the Sun than

3. Since prehistoric times, artists have arranged paint on surfaces in ways _____ their ideas about people and the world.

(A) express

(B) that their expression of

(C) which, expressing

(D) that express

4. Except for certain microorganisms, __ need oxygen to survive.

(A) of all living things

(B) all living things

(C) all are living things

(D) are all living things

5. Dubbing is used in filmmaking _____ a new sound track to a motion picture.

(A) which to add

(B) to add

(C) is adding that

(D) to add while

6. _____ of green lumber may come from moisture in the wood.

(A) More weight than half

(B) Of the weight, more than half

(C) The weight is more than half

(D) More than half of the weight

7. Archaeologists study _____ to trace ancient trade routes because such tools are relatively rare, and each occurrence has a slightly different chemical composition.

(A) which obsidian tools

(B) obsidian tools

(C) how obsidian tools

(D) obsidian tools are

8. _____ the hamster’s basic diet is vegetarian, some hamsters also eat insects.

(A) Despite

(B) Although

(C) Regardless of

(D) Consequently

9. The Navajo Indians of the southwestern United States _____ for their sand painting, also called dry painting.

(A) noted

(B) are noted

(C) to be noted

(D) have noted

10. In 1784, the leaders of what would later become the state of Virginia gave up_____ to the territory that later became five different Midwestern states.

(A) any claim

(B) when the claim

(C) to claim

(D) would claim

11. _____ one after another, parallel computers perform groups of operations at the same time.

(A) Conventional computers, by handling tasks

(B) Since tasks being handled by conventional computers

(C) Whereas conventional computers handle tasks

(D) While tasks handled by conventional computers

12. The Liberty Bell, formerly housed in Independence Hall, _____ in Philadelphia, was moved to a separate glass pavilion in 1976.

(A) which a historic building

(B) a historic building which

(C) was a historic building

(D) a historic building

13. Fossils, traces of dead organisms found in the rocks of Earth’s crust, reveal _____ at the time the rocks were formed.

(A) what was like

(B) was like life

(C) what life was like

(D) life was like

14. Although the huge ice masses __ glaciers move slowly, they are a powerful erosive force in nature.

(A) call them

(B) are called

(C) to call

(D) called

15. The soybean contains vitamins, essential minerals, _____ high percentage of protein.

(A) a

(B) and a

(C) since a

(D) of which a

16. A gene is a biological unit of information who directs the activity of a cell or organism during its lifetime.

17. The flowering of African American talent in literature, music, and art in the 1920’s in New York City became to know as the Harlem Renaissance.

18. The symptoms of neumonia, a lung infection, include high fever, chest pain, breathing difficult, and coughing.

19. The rapid grow of Boston during the mid-nineteenth century coincided with a large influx of European immigrants.

20. In 1908 Olive Campbell started writing down folk songs by rural people in the southern Appalachian mountains near hers home.

21. The thirteen stripes of the United States flag represent the original thirteen states of the Union, which they all were once colonies of Britain.

22. In 1860, more as 90 percent of the people of Indiana lived rural areas, with only a few cities having a population exceeding 10,000.

23. Gravitation keeps the Moon in orbit around Earth and the planets other of the solar system in orbit around the Sun.

24. Photograph was revolutionized in 1831 by the introduction of the collodion process for making glass negatives.

25. After flax is washed, dry, beaten, and combed, fibers are obtained for use in making fabric.

26. A fever is caused which blood cells release proteins called pyrogens, raising the body’s temperature.

27. Because of various gift-giving holidays, most stores clothing in the United Sates do almost as much business in November and December as they do in the other ten months combined.

28. The United States National Labor Relations Board is authorized to investigation allegations of unfair labor practices on the part of either

employers or employees.

29. The Great Potato Famine in Ireland in the 1840’s caused an unprecedented numbers of people from Ireland to immigrate to the United States.

30. The particles comprising a given cloud are continually changing, as new ones are added while others are taking away by moving air.

31. Political parties in the United States help to coordinate the campaigns of their members and organizes the statewide and nationa conventions that mark election years.

32. The lemur is an unusual animal belonging to the same order than mon’s and apes.

33. Cheese may be hard or soft, depending on the amount of water left into it and the character of the cuting.

34. The carbon-are lamp, a very bright electric lamp used for spotlights, consists of two carbon electrodes with a high-current arc passing between it.

35. At first the poems of E.E. Cummings gained notoriety to their idiosyncratic punctuation and typography, but they have gradually been recognized for their lyric power as well.

36. The mechanism of human thought and recall, a subject only partly understood by scientists, is extraordinary complicated.

37. While the process of photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and organic compounds.

38.The globe artichoke was known as a delicacy at least 2,500 years ago, and records of its cultivation date from fifteenth century.

39. Humans do not constitute the only species endowed with intelligence: the higher animals also have considerably problem-solving abilities.

40. Many of species of milkweed are among the most dangerous of poisonous plants, while others have little, if any, toxicity.

Questions 1-10

In the early 1800’s, over 80 percent of the United States labor force was engaged in agriculture. Sophisticated technology and machinery were virtually nonexistent. People who lived in the cities and were not directly involved in trade often participated in small cottage industries making handcrafted goods. Others cured meats, silversmiths, candle or otherwise produced needed goods and commodities. Blacksmiths, silversmiths, candle makers, and other artisans worked in their homes or barns, relying on help of family.

(9)     Perhaps no single phenomenon brought more widespread and lasting change to the United States society than the rise of industrialization. Industrial growth hinged on several economic factors. First, industry requires an abundance of natural resources, especially coal, iron ore, water, petroleum, and timber-all readily available on the North American continent. Second, factories demand a large labor supply. Between the 1870’s and the First World War (1914-1918), approximately 23 million immigrants streamed to the United States, settled in cities, and went to work in factories and mines. They also helped build the vast network of canals and railroads that crisscrossed the continent and linked important trade centers essential to industrial growth.

(20)  Factories also offered a reprieve from the backbreaking work and financial unpredictability associated with farming. Many adults, poor and disillusioned with farm life, were lured to the cities by promises of steady employment, regular paychecks, increased access to goods and services, and expanded social opportunities. Others were pushed there when new technologies made their labor cheap or expendable; inventions such as steel plows and mechanized harvesters allowed one farmhand to perform work that previously had required several, thus making farming capital-intensive rather than labor-intensive.

(29)  The United States economy underwent a massive transition and the nature of work was permanently altered. Whereas cottage industries relied on a few highly skilled craft workers who slowly and carefully converted raw materials into finished products from start to finish, factories relied on specialization. While factory work was less creative and more monotonous, it was also more efficient and allowed mass production of goods at less expense.

1. What aspect of life in the United States does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The transition from an agricultural to an industrial economy

(B) The inventions that transformed life in the nineteenth century

(C) The problems associated with the earliest factories

(D) The difficulty of farm life in the nineteenth century

2. Blacksmiths, silversmiths, and candle makers are mentioned in lines 6-7 as examples of artisans who

(A) maintained their businesses at home

(B) were eventually able to use sophisticated technology

(C) produced unusual goods and commodities

(D) would employ only family members

3. The phrase “hinged on” in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) recovered from

(B) depended on

(C) started on

(D) contributed to

4. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a reason for the industrial growth that occurred in the United States before 1914?

(A)The availability of natural resources found only in the United States

(B) The decrease in number of farms resulting from technological advances

(C) The replacement of canals and railroads by other forms of transportation

(D) The availability of a large immigrant work force

5. The word “lured” in line 22 is closest in   meaning to

(A) attracted

(B) assigned

(C) restricted

(D) attached

6. The word “Others” in line 24 refers to other

(A) adults

(B) promises

(C) goods and services

(D) social opportunities

7. The word “expendable” in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) nonproductive

(B) unacceptable

(C) nonessential

(D) unprofitable

8. It can be inferred from the passage that industrialization affected farming in that industrialization

(A) increased the price of farm products

(B) limited the need for new farm machinery

(C) created new and interesting jobs on farms

(D) reduced the number of people willing to do farm work

9. What does the author mean when stating that certain inventions made farming “capital-intensive rather than labor-intensive” (lines 27-28)?

(A) Workers had to be trained to operate the new machines.

(B) Mechanized farming required more capital and fewer laborers.

(C) The new inventions were not helpful for all farming activities.

(D) Human labor could still accomplish as much

work as the first machines.

10. According to the passage, factory workers differed from craft workers in that factory workers

(A) were required to be more creative

(B) worked extensively with raw materials

(C) changed jobs frequently

(D) specialized in one aspect of the finished product only

Question 11-20

Molting is one of the most involved processes of a bird’s annual life cycle. Notwithstanding preening and constant care, the marvelously intricate structure of a bird’s Feather inevitably wears out. All adult birds molt their feathers at least once a year, and upon close observation, one can recognize the frayed, ragged appearance of feathers that are nearing the end of their useful life. Two distinct processes are involved in molting. The first step is when the old, worn feather is dropped, or shed. The second is when a new feather grows in its place. When each feather has been shed and replaced, then the molt can be said to be complete. This, however, is an abstraction that often does not happen: incomplete, overlapping, and arrested molts are quite common.

(12)  Molt requires that a bird find and process enough protein to rebuild approximately one-third of its body weight. It is not surprising that a bird in heavy molt often seems listless and unwell. But far from being random, molt is controlled by strong evolutionary forces that have established an optimal time and duration. Generally, molt occurs at the time of least stress on the bird. Many songbirds, for instance, molt in late summer, when the hard work of breeding is done but the weather is still warm and food still plentiful. This is why the woods in late summer often seem so quiet, when compared with the Exuberant choruses of spring.

(21)  Molt of the flight feathers is the most highly organized part of the process. Some species, for example, begin by dropping the outermost primary feathers on each side (to retain balance in the air) and wait until the replacement feathers are about one-third grown before shedding the next outermost, and so on. Others always start with the innermost primary feathers and work outward. Yet other species begin in the middle and work outward on both weeks while the replacement feathers grow.

11. The passage mainly discusses how

(A) birds prepare for breeding

(B) bird feathers differ from species

(C) birds shed and replace their feathers

(D) birds are affected by seasonal changes

12. The word “Notwithstanding” in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) despite

(B) because of

(C) instead of

(D) regarding

13.The word “intricate” in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) regular

(B) complex

(C) interesting

(D) important

14. The word “random” in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) unfortunate

(B) unusual

(C) unobservable

(D) unpredictable

15. The word “optimal” in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) slow

(B) frequent

(C) best

(D) early

16. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason that songbirds molt in the late summer?

(A) Fewer predators are in the woods.

(B) The weathers is still warm.

(C) The songbirds have finished breeding.

(D) Food is still available.

17. Some birds that are molting maintain balance during flight by

(A) constantly preening and caring for their remaining feathers

(B) dropping flight feathers on both sides at the same time

(C) adjusting the angle of their flight to compensate for lost feathers

(D) only losing one-third of their feathers

18. The word “Others” in line 25 refers to

(A) ducks

(B) sides

(C) species

(D) flight feathers

19. The author discusses ducks in order to provide an example of birds that

(A) grow replacement feathers that are very long

(B) shed all their wing feathers at one time

(C) keep their innermost feathers

(D) shed their outermost feathers first

20. It can inferred from the discussion about ducks that the molting of their flight feathers takes.

(A) a year

(B) a season

(C) several months

(D) a few weeks

Question 21-30

The Harlem Renaissance, a movement of the 1920’s, marked the twentieth century’s first period of intense activity by African Americans in the field of literature, art, and music in the United States. The philosophy of the movement combined realism, ethnic consciousness, and Americanism. Encouraged by the example of certain Americans of European descent such as Thomas Eakins, Robert Henri, and George Luks, who had included persons of African descent in their paintings as serious studies rather than as trivial or sentimental stereotypes, African American artists of this period set about creating a new portrayal of themselves and their lives in the United States. As they began to strive for social and cultural independence. Their attitudes toward themselves changed, and, to some extent, other segments of American society began to change their attitudes  toward them. Thus, thought the Harlem Renaissance was a short-lived movement, its impact on American art and culture continues to the present.

(16)  The district in New York City know as Harlem was the capital of the movement. In 1925 an issue of Survey Graphic magazine devoted exclusively to Harlem and edited by philosopher Alain Locke became the manifesto of the African American artistic movement. Locke strongly suggested that individuals, while accepting their Americanism, take pride in their African ancestral arts and urged artists to look to Africa for substance and inspiration. Far from advocating a withdrawal from American culture, as did some of his contemporaries, Locke recommended a cultural pluralism through which artists could enrich the culture of America. African Americans were urged by Locke to be collaborators and participators with other Americans in art, literature, and music; and at the same time to preserve, enhance, and promote their own cultural heritage.

Artists and intellectuals from many parts of the United States and the Caribbean had been attracted to Harlem by the pulse and beat of its unique and dynamic culture. From this unity created by the convergence of artists from various social and geographical backgrounds came a new spirit, which, particularly in densely populated Harlem, was to result in greater group awareness and self-determination. African American graphic artists took their place beside the poets and writers of the Harlem Renaissance and carried on efforts to increase and promote the visual arts.

21. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) African American paintings in the 1920’s

(B) An arts movement of the 1920’s

(C) The influence of Alain Locke on African American art

(D) Some ways in which African culture inspired American literature, art and music

22. According to the passage, Tomas Eakins, Robert Henri, and George Luks were important because of

(A) the philosophical contributions they made to the Harlem Renaissance

(B) their development of a new style of African American art

(C) they way in which they depicted African Americans in their paintings

(D) their independence from European artistic traditions

23. The word “them” in line 13 refers to

(A) Americans of European descent

(B) paintings

(C) African American artists

(D) attitudes

24. According to the passage, African American artists of the 1920’s differed from earlier African American artists in terms of their feelings about

(A) themselves

(B) other artists

(C) their impact on American art

(D) stereotypes

25. The word “urged” in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) prepared

(B) defined

(C) permitted

(D) encouraged

26. Alain Locke believed all of the following to be important to the African American artistic movement EXCEPT

(A) pride in African art

(B) cultural pluralism

(C) collaboration with other artists

(D) withdrawal from American culture

27. In mentioning “the pulse and beat” (line 29) of Harlem during the 1920’s, the author is characterizing the district as one that

(A) depended greatly on its interaction with other parts of the city

(B) grew economically in a short period of time

(C) was an exciting place to be

(D) was in danger of losing population

28. The word “convergence” in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) gathering

(B) promotion

(C) expression

(D) influence

29. According to the passage, all of the following were true of Harlem in the 1920’s EXCEPT:

(A) Some Caribbean artists and intellectuals lived there.

(B) It attracted people from various regions of United States.

(C) It was one of the most expensive neighborhoods in New York City.

(D) It was a unique cultural center.

30.The phrase “carried on” in line 35 is closest in meaning to

(A) continued

(B) praised

(C) transformed

(D) connected

Questions 31-40

Ethology is concerned with the study of adaptive, or survival, value of behavior and its Evolutionary history. Ethological theory began to be applied to research on children in the 1960’s but has become even more influential today. The origins of ethology can be traced to the work of Darwin. Its modern foundations were laid by two European zoologists, Konrad Lorenz and Niko Tinbergen.

(7)     Watching the behaviors diverse animal species in their natural habitats, Lorenz, and Tinbergen observed behavior patterns that promote survival. The most well-known of these is imprinting, the carly following behavior of certain baby birds that ensures that the young will stay close to their mother and be fed and protected from danger. Imprinting takes place during an early, restricted time period of development. If the mother goose is not present during this time, but an object resembling her in important features is, young goslings may imprint on it instead.

(15)  Observations of imprinting led to major concept that has been applied in child Development” the critical period. It refers to a limited times span during which the child is biologically prepared to acquire certain adaptive behaviors but needs the support of suitably stimulating environment. Many researchers have conducted studies to find out whether complex congnitive and social behaviors must be learned during restricted time periods. For example, if children are deprived of adequate food or physical and social stimulation during the early years of life, will their intelligence be permanently impaired? If language is not mastered during the preschool years, is the child’s capacity to acquire it reduced?

(25)  Inspired by observations of imprinting, in 1969 the British psychoanalyst John Bowlby applied ethological theory to the understanding of the relationship between an infant and its parents. He argued that attachment behaviors of babies, such as smiling, babbling, grasping, and crying, are built-in social signals that encourage the parents to approach, care for, and interact with the baby. By keeping a parent near, these behaviors help ensure that the baby will be fed, protected from danger, and provided with the stimulation and affection necessary for healthy growth. The development of attachment in human infants is a lengthy process involving changes in psychological structures that lead to a deep affectional tie between parent and baby.

31. What was Darwin’s contribution to ethology?

(A) Darwin improved on the original principles of ethology.

(B) Darwin was the professor who taught Lorenz and Tinbergen.

(C) Darwin’s work provided the basis for ethology.

(D) Darwin was the first person to apply ethological theory to children.

32. The word “diverse” in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) small

(B) varied

(C) wild

(D) particular

33. The word “ensures” in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) guarantees

(B) proves

(C) teaches

(D) assumes

34. According to the passage, if a mother goose is not present during the time period when imprinting takes place, which of the following will most likely occur?

(A) The gosling will not imprint on any object.

(B) The gosling may not find a mate when it matures.

(C) The mother will later imprint on the gosling.

(D) The gosling may imprint on another object.

35. The word “it” in line 14 refers to

(A) development

(B) goose

(C) time

(D) object

36. The word “suitably” in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) willingly

(B) moderately

(C) appropriately

(D) emotionally

37. The author mentions all of the following as attachment behaviors of human infants EXCEPT

(A) grasping

(B) crying

(C) eating

(D) smiling

38. According to the passage, attachment behaviors of infants are intended to

(A) get the physical, emotional and social needs of the infant met

(B) allow the infant to become imprinted on objects that resemble the parent

(C) provide the infant with a means of self-stimulation

(D) prepare the infant to cope with separation

39. The phrase “affectional tie” in line 35 is closest in meaning to

(A) cognitive development

(B) emotional attachment

(C) psychological need

(D) behavioral change

40. It can be inferred from the passage that ethological theory assumes that

(A) to learn about human behavior only human subjects should be studied

(B) failure to imprint has no influence on intelligence

(C) the notion of critical periods applies only to animals

(D) there are similarities between animal and human behavior

Questions 41-50

There are only a few clues in the rock record about climate in the Proterozoic con. Much of our information about climate in the more recent periods of geologic history comes from the fossil record, because we have a reasonably good understanding of the types of environment in which many fossil organisms flourished. The scarce fossils of the Proterozoic, mostly single-celled bacteria, provide little evidence in this regard. However, the rocks themselves do include the earliest evidence for glaciation, probably a global ice age.

(9)     The inference that some types of sedimentary rocks are the result of glacial activity is based on the principle of uniformitarianism, which posits that natural processes now at work on and within the Earth operated in the same manner in the distant past. The deposits associated with present-day glaciers have been well studied, and some of their characteristics are quite distinctive. In 2.3-billion-year-old rocks in Canada near Lake Huron (dating from the early part of the Proterozoic age), there are thin laminae of fine-grained sediments that resemble varves, the annual layers of sediment deposited in glacial lakes. Typically, present-day varves show two-layered annual cycle, one layer corresponding to the rapid ice melting and sediment transport of the summer season, and the other, finer-grained, layer corresponding to slower winter deposition. Although it is not easy to discern such details in the Proterozoic examples, they are almost certainly glacial varves. These fine-grained, layered sediments even contain occasional large pebbles or “dropstones,” a characteristic feature of glacial environments where coarse material is sometimes carried on floating ice and dropped far from its source, into otherwise very fine grained sediment. Glacial sediments of about the same age as those in Canada have been found in other parts of North America and in Africa, India, and Europe. This indicates that the glaciation was global, and that for a period of time in the early Proterozoic the Earth was gripped in an ice age.

(30)  Following the early Proterozoic glaciation, however, the climate appears to have Been fairly benign for a very long time. There is no evidence for glaciation for the Next 1.5 billion years or so. Then, suddenly, the rock record indicates a series of Glacial episodes between about 850 and 600 million year ago, near the end of the Proterozoic con.

41. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) How patterns in rock layers have been used to construct theories about the climate of the Proterozoic age

(B) What some rare fossils indicate about glacial conditions during the late Proterozoic age

(C) The varying characteristics of Proterozoic glacial varves in different parts of the world

(D) The number of glacial episodes that the Earth has experienced since the Proterozoic age

42. According to the passage, the fossil record of the Proterozoic con is

(A) highly regarded because it preserves the remains of many kinds of organisms

(B) less informative than the fossil record of more recent periods

(C) very difficult to interpret due to damage from bacteria

(D) more useful to researchers than other   aspects of the rock record

43. The word “scarce” in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) ancient

(B) tiny

(C) available

(D) rare

44. It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of uniformitarianism indicates that

(A) similar conditions produce similar rock formations

(B) rock layers in a given region remain undisturbed over time

(C) different kinds of sedimentary rocks may

(D) each continent has its own distinctive pattern of sediment layers

45. The word “resemble” in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) result from

(B) penetrate

(C) look like

(D) replace have similar origins

46. According to the passage, the layers in varves are primarily formed by

(A) fossilized bacteria

(B) pieces of ancient dropstones

(C) a combination of ancient and recent sediments

(D) annual cycles of sediment transport and deposition

47. The phrase “the other” in line 19 refers to another

(A) annual cycle

(B) glacial lake

(C) layer of sediment

(D) season

48. According to the passage, the presence of dropstones indicates that

(A) the glacial environment has been unusually server

(B) the fine-grained sediment has built up very slowly

(C) there has been a global ice age

(D) coarse rock material has been carried great distances

49. Why does the author mention Canada, North America, Africa, India, and Europe in lines 26-27?

(A) To demonstrate the global spread of dropstones

(B) To explain the principles of varve formation

(C) To provide evidence for the theory that there was a global ice age in the early Proterozoic eon

(D) To illustrate the varied climatic changes of the Proterozoic con in different parts of the globe

50. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A) fossil record (line 3)

(B) laminae (line 15)

(C) varves (line 16)

(D) glacial episodes (line 33)

2001年8月TOEFL试题

1. Geothermal energy is a potentially inexhaustible energy source ___been tapped by humans for centuries but,until recent years,only on a small scale.

(A) has it
(B) has
(C) that has
(D) that it has

2. The importance of the hand, and more generally of the body, in children's acquisition of arithmetic__.

(A) can hardly be exaggerated

(B) hardly exaggerated can be

(C) can be exaggerate hardly

(D) exaggerated can be hardly

3. __ is present in the body in greater amounts than any other mineral.
(A) Calcium

(B) There is calcium

(C) Calcium, which

(D) It is calcium

4. ____ the evidence is inconclusive, it is thought that at least some seals have an cholocation system akin to that of bats, porpoises, and shrews.
(A) Rather

(B) Despite

(C) Although

(D) Why

5. The total mass of all asteroids in the solar system is much less ______ mass of Earth's Moon.
(A) than that is the

(B) than the

(C) the

(D) is the

6. Like bacteria, protozoans ___by splitting in two.

(A) reproducing

(B) reproduce

(C) to reproduce

(D) reproduction

7. ______main processes involved in virtually all manufacturing: extraction, assembly, and alteration.

(A) There are three
(B) Three
(C) The three
(D) Three of the

8. Most documentary filmmakers use neither actors _______studio setting.
(A) or else

(B) but not

(C) nor

(D) and

9. Salamanders are sometime confused with lizards, but unlike lizards ______ no scales or claws.

(A) that they have

(B) to have

(C) they have

(D) are having

10. The province of Alberta lies along three of the major North American flyways Used by birds ___between their winter and summer homes.

(A) the migration

(B) migrating

(C) migrate

(D) and migrate

11. Astronomers estimate ______called the Pleiades in the constellation Taurus is 415 light-years away from Earth.

(A) that a loose cluster of stars

(B) a loose cluster of stars is

(C) that is a loose cluster of stars

(D) there is a loose cluster of stars

12. Pearl Sydenstricker Buck, _____ the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1938, is Best known for her novels about China.

(A) won

(B) winner of

(C) to win

(D) who the winner of

13. Stage producers Klaw and Erlanger were the first to eliminate arguments among leading performers _____in order of appearance, instead of prominence.

(A) of whom list the program

(B) the program listing

(C) for them the program listed

(D) by listing them on the program

14. During the decades after the United States Civil War, a host of technical advances made possible___ and uniformity of railroad service.

(A) a new integration

(B) for a new integration

(C) that a new integration

(D) and a new integration

15. Forests stabilize ______and retain precipitation, thereby helping to prevent erosion and regulate the flow of streams.

(A) to the soil

(B) the soil

(C) where the soil

(D) the soil is.

16. Modern societies are such complex that they could not exist without  a well-developed system of law.

17. Altitude, climate, temperature, and the length of the  growing season both  determine Where plants will grow.

18. The bathyscaphe, a free-moving vessel designed for underwater  exploration, consists of a Flotation compartment with a  observation capsule attached underneath  it.

19. Water constitutes almost 96 percent of the body weight of a jellyfish, so if a jellyfish were to dry out in the sun, it would  virtually disappeared.

20. The most important parameters affecting a rocket's maximum  flight velocity is the relationship between the vehicle's mass and the amount of propellant it can carry.

21. There were once only eight major lakes or reservoirs in Texas, but today there are over 180, many built to storing water against periodic droughts.

22. All harmonized music that is not contrapuntal depends from  the relationship of chords, which are either consonant or dissonant.

23. Expressionist drama often shows the influence of modern psychology by reflecting the frustrations inner of the dramatist.

24. It is the number, kind, and arrange of teeth that determine whether a mammal is classified as a carnivore not the food that the animal actually eats.

25. The sea otter is well adapted at its marine existence, with ears and nostrils that can be closed under water.

26. Petroleum, which currently makes up about four-tenths of the world's energy production, supplies more commercial energy than any another source.

27. Someone may refuse to recognize the seriousness of an emotionally threatening situation and perceive as less threatening.

28. Through experiments with marine organisms, marine biologists can increase  our knowledge of human reproductive and development  as  well as our understanding of the nervous system.

29. When swollen by melting snow or heavy rain, some rivers routinely overflow its banks.

30. In 1884 Belva Lockwood, a lawyer who had appeared before the Supreme Court, became the first woman was nominated for President of the United States.

31. The taller of all animals, a full-grown giraffe may be eighteen feet or more high.

32. Physicists have known since the early nineteenth century that all matter is made up of tiny extremely particles called atoms.

33. Rain is slight acidic even in unpolluted air, because carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and other natural acid-forming gases  dissolve in the water.

34. In a stock company, a troupe of actors performs in a  particular  theater, presenting plays from its repertory of prepare productions.

35. Established in 1860, the Government Printing Office prints and binds documents for all department of the United States  government.

36. Ethnology, usually considered a branch of cultural anthropology, is  often defined as the scientifically study of the  origin and  functioning humans and their culture.

37. The one-fluid theory of electricity was proposing by Benjamin Franklin, a man famous for his wide interests and great  attainments.

38. Probably not speech of so few words has ever been as celebrated as  Lincoln's Gettysburg Address.

39. Generally, Abstract Expressionist art is without recognizable images and does not adhere the Limits of conventional form.

40. Although complete paralysis is rare with neuritis, some degree of muscle weakness common.

Questions 1-9

Glass fibers have a long history. The Egyptians made coarse fibers by 1600 B.C., and fibers survive as decorations on Egyptian pottery dating back to 375 B.C. During the Renaissance (fifteenth and sixteenth centuries A.D.), glassmakers from Venice used glass.

(5)     Fibers to decorate the surfaces of plain glass vessels. However, glassmakers guarded their secrets so carefully that no one wrote about glass fiber production until the early seventeenth century.

(8)     The eighteenth century brought the invention of "spun glass" fibers. Rene-Antoine de Reaumur, a French scientist, tried to make artificial feathers from glass. He made fibers by rotating a wheel through a pool of molten glass, pulling threads of glass where the hot thick liquid stuck to the wheel. His fibers were short and fragile, but he predicted that spun glass fibers as thin as spider silk would be flexible and could be woven into fabric.

(14)  By the start of the nineteenth century, glassmakers learned how to make longer, stronger fibers by pulling them from molten glass with a hot glass tube. Inventors wound the cooling end of the thread around a yarn reel, then turned the reel rapidly to pull more fiber from the molten glass. Wandering tradespeople began to spin glass fibers at fairs, making decorations and ornaments as novelties for collectors, but this material was of little practical use; the fibers were brittle, ragged, and no longer than ten feet, the circumference of the largest reels. By the mid-1870's, however, the best glass fibers were finer than silk and could be woven into fabrics or assembled into imitation ostrich feathers to decorate hats. Cloth of white spun glass resembled silver; fibers drawn from yellow-orange glass looked golden.

(25)  Glass fibers were little more than a novelty until the 1930's, when their thermal and electrical insulating properties were appreciated and methods for producing continuous filaments were developed. In the modern manufacturing process, liquid glass is fed directly from a glass-melting furnace into a bushing, a receptacle pierced with hundreds of fine nozzles, from which the liquid issues in fine streams. As they solidify, the streams of glass are gathered into a single strand and wound onto a reel.

1. Which of the following aspects of glass fiber does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The major developments in its production

(B) Its relationship with pottery making

(C) Important inventors in its long history

(D) The variety of its uses in modern Industry

2. The word "coarse" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) decorative

(B) natural

(C) crude

(D) weak

3. Why was there nothing written about the making of Renaissance glass fibers until the seventeenth century?

(A) Glassmakers were unhappy with the quality of the fibers they could make.

(B) Glassmakers did not want to reveal the methods they used.

(C) Few people were interested in the Renaissance style of glass fibers.

(D) Production methods had been well known for a long time.

4. According to the passage, using a hot glass tube rather than a wheel to pull fibers from molten glass made the fibers

(A) quicker to cool

(B) harder to bend

(C) shorter and more easily broken

(D) longer and more durable

5. The phrase "this material" in line 19 refers to

(A) glass fibers

(B) decorations

(C) ornaments

(D) novelties for collectors

6. The word "brittle" in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) easily broken

(B) roughly made

(C) hairy

(D) shiny

7. The production of glass fibers was improved in the nineteenth century by which of the following

(A) Adding silver to the molten glass

(B) Increasing the circumference of the glass tubes

(C) Putting silk thread in the center  of the fibers

(D) Using yam reels

8. The word "appreciated" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) experienced

(B) recognized

(C) explored

(D) increased

9. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A) invention (line 8)

(B) circumference (line 21)

(C) manufacturing process (line 28)

(D) bushing (line29).

Questions 10-19

The most thoroughly studied cases of deception strategies employed by ground-nesting birds involve plovers, small birds that typically nest on beaches or in open fields, their nests merely scrapes in the sand or earth. Plovers also have an effective repertoire of tricks for distracting potential nest predators from their exposed and defenseless eggs or chicks.

(6)     The ever-watchful plover can detect a possible threat at a considerable distance. When she does, the nesting bird moves inconspicuously off the nest to a spot well away from eggs or chicks. At this point she may use one of several ploys. One technique involves first moving quietly toward an approaching animal and then setting off noisily through the grass or brush in a low, crouching run away from the nest, while emitting rodent like squeaks. The effect mimics a scurrying mouse or vole, and the behavior rivets the attention of the type of predators that would also be interested in eggs and chicks.

(14)  Another deception begins with quiet movement to an exposed and visible location well away from the nest. Once there, the bird pretends to incubate a brood. When the predator approaches, the parent flees, leaving the false nest to be searched. The direction in which the plover "escapes" is such that if the predator chooses to follow, it will be led still further away from the true nest.

(20)  The plover's most famous stratagem is the broken-wing display, actually a continuum of injury-mimicking behaviors spanning the range from slight disability to near-complete helplessness. One or both wings are held in an abnormal position, suggesting injury. The bird appears to be attempting escape along an irregular route that indicates panic. In the most extreme version of the display, the bird flaps one wing in an apparent attempt to take to the air, flops over helplessly, struggles back to its feet, runs away a short distance, seemingly attempts once more to take off, flops over again as the "useless" wing fails to provide any lift, and so on. Few predators fail to pursue such obviously vulnerable prey.

(31)  Needless to say, each short run between "flight attempts" is directed away from the nest.

10. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The nest- building techniques of plovers

(B) How predators search for plovers

(C) The strategies used by plovers to deceive predators

(D) Why plovers are vulnerable to predators

11. The word "merely" in fine 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) often

(B) only

(C) usually

(D) at first

12. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage about plovers?

(A) Their eggs and chicks are difficult to find.

(B) They are generally defenseless when away From their nests.

(C) They are slow to react in dangerous situations.

(D) Their nests are on the surface of the ground.

13. The word "emitting" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) bringing

(B) attracting

(C) producing

(D) minimizing

14. In the deception technique described in paragraph 2, the plover tries to

(A) stay close to her nest

(B) attract the predator's attention

(C) warn other plovers of danger

(D) frighten the approaching predator

15. The word "spanning" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) covering

(B) selecting

(C) developing

(D) explaining

16. According to paragraph 4, which of the following aspects of the plover's behavior gives the appearance that it is frightened?

(A) Abnormal body position

(B) Irregular escape route

(C) Unnatural wing movement

(D) Unusual amount of time away from the nest

17. The word "pursue" in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) catch

(B) notice

(C) defend

(D) chase

18. According to the passage, a female plover utilizes all of the following deception techniques EXCEPT

(A) appearing to be injured

(B) sounding like another animal

(C) pretending to search for prey

(D) pretending to sit on her eggs

19. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

(A) A description of the sequence of steps involved in plovers nest building

(B) A generalization about plover behavior followed by specific examples

(C) A comparison and contrast of the nesting behavior of plovers and other ground nesting birds

(D) A cause-and-efleet analysis of the relationship between a prey and a Predator.

Questions 20-28

The interrelationship of science, technology, and industry is taken for granted today—summed up, not altogether accurately, as "research and development." Yet historically this widespread faith in the economic virtues of science is a relatively recent phenomenon, dating back in the United States about 150 years, and in the Western world as a whole not over 300 years at most. Even in this current era of large scale, intensive research and development, the interrelationships involved in this process are frequently misunderstood. Until the coming of the Industrial Revolution, science and technology evolved for the most part independently of each other. Then as industrialization became increasingly complicated, the craft techniques of preindustrial society gradually gave way to a technology based on the systematic application of scientific knowledge and scientific methods. This changeover started slowly and progressed unevenly. Until late in the nineteenth century, only a few industries could use scientific techniques or cared about using them. The list expanded noticeably after 1870, but even then much of what passed for the application of science was "engineering science" rather than basic science.

(18)  Nevertheless, by the middle of the nineteenth century, the rapid expansion of scientific knowledge and of public awareness-if not understanding-of it had created a belief that the advance of science would in some unspecified manner automatically generate economic benefits. The widespread and usually uncritical acceptance of this thesis led in turn to the assumption that the application of science to industrial purposes was a linear process, starting with fundamental science, then proceeding to applied science or technology, and through them to industrial use. This is probably the most common pattern, but it is not invariable. New areas of science have been opened up and fundamental discoveries made as a result of attempts to solve a specific technical or economic problem. Conversely, scientists who mainly do basic research also serve as consultants on projects that apply research in practical ways.

(31)  In sum, the science-technology-industry relationship may flow in several different ways, and the particular channel it will follow depends on the individual situation. It may at times even be multidirectional.

20. What is the author's main purpose in the passage?

(A) To show how technology influenced basic science

(B) To describe the scientific base of nineteenth-century American industries

(C) To correct misunderstandings about the connections between science, technology, and industry

(D) To argue that basic science has no practical application

21. The word "altogether" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) completely

(B) realistically

(C) individually

(D) understandably

22. The word "intensive" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) decreased

(B) concentrated

(C) creative

(D) advanced

23. The "list" mentioned in line 13 refers to

(A) types of scientific knowledge

(B) changes brought by technology

(C) industries that used scientific techniques

(D) applications of engineering science

24. The understanding of research and development in the late nineteenth century is based on which of the following?

(A) Engineering science is not very important.

(B) Fundamental science naturally leads to economic benefits.

(C) The relationship between research

and development should be criticized.

(D) Industrial needs should determine what areas fundamental science focuses on.

25. The word "it" in line 16 refers to

(A) understanding

(B) public awareness

(C) scientific knowledge

(D) expansion

26. The word "assumption" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) regulation

(B) belief

(C) contract

(D) confusion

27. Why does the author mention

"consultants" in line 29 ?

(A) To show how new areas of science have given rise to new professions

(B) To distinguish between scientists who work in industry and those who do not

(C) To explain the ways in which scientists find financial support for their work

(D) To show how scientists who work in basic research contribute to applied science

28. Which of the following statements does the passage support?

(A) The development of science and of industry is now interdependent.

(B) Basic scientific research cannot generate practical applications.

(C) Industries should spend less money on research and development.

(D) Science and technology are becoming more separate.

Questions 29-39

The economic depression in the late-nineteenth-century United States contributed significantly to a growing movement in literature toward realism and naturalism. After the 1870' s, a number of important authors began to reject the romanticism that had prevailed.

(6)     Immediately following the Civil War of 1861-1865 and turned instead to realism. Determined to portray life as it was, with fidelity to real life and accurate representation without idealization, they studied local dialects, wrote stories which focused on life in specific regions of the country, and emphasized the "true" relationships between people. In doing so, they reflected broader trends in the society, such as industrialization, evolutionary theory which emphasized the effect of the environment on humans, and the influence of science.

(14)  Realists such as Joel Chandler Harris and Ellen Glasgow depicted life in the South; Hamlin Garland described life on the Great Plains; and Sarah One Jewett wrote about everyday life in rural New England. Another realist, Bret Harte, achieved fame with stories that portrayed local life in the California mining camps.

(19)  Samuel Clemens, who adopted the pen name Mark Twain, became the country's most outstanding realist author, observing life around him with a humorous and skeptical eye. In his stories and novels, Twain drew on his own experiences and used dialect and common speech instead of literary language, touching off a major change in American prose style.

(24)  Other writers became impatient even with realism. Pushing evolutionary theory to its limits, they wrote of a world in which a cruel and merciless environment determined human fate. These writers, called naturalists, often focused on economic hardship, studying people struggling with poverty, and other aspects of urban and industrial life.

(29)  Naturalists brought to their writing a passion for direct and honest experience. Theodore Dreiser, the foremost naturalist writer, in novels such as Sister Carrie, grimly portrayed a dark world in which human beings were tossed about by forces beyond their understanding or control. Dreiser thought that writers should tell the truth about human affairs, not fabricate romance, and Sister Carrie, he said, was "not intended as a piece of literary craftsmanship, but was a picture of conditions."

29. Which aspect of late-nineteenth-century United States literature does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The influence of science on literature

(B) The importance of dialects for realist writers

(C) The emergence of realism and naturalism

(D) The effects of industrialization on romanticism

30. The word "prevailed" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) dominated

(B) transformed

(C) entered

(D) generalized

31. The word "they" in line 9 refers to

(A) authors

(B) dialects

(C) stories

(D) relationships

32. According to the passage, a highly significant factor in the development of realist and naturalist literature was

(A) the Civil War

(B) a recognition that romanticism was unpopular

(C) an increased interest in the study of common speech

(D) an economic depression

33. Realist writers took an interest in all of the following EXCEPT

(A) human relationships

(B) characteristics of different regions

(C) the idealization of life

(D) social and historical theories

34. The word "depicted" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) emphasized

(B) described

(C) criticized

(D) classified

35. Why does the author mention mining camps in line 17 ?

(A) To contrast the themes of realist and naturalist writers

(B) To illustrate how Bret Harte differed from other authors

(C) As an example of a topic taken up by realist writers

(D) As an example of how setting can influence literary style

36. Which of the following wrote about life in rural New England?

(A) Ellen Glasgow

(B) Sarah Orne Jewett

(C) Hamlin Garland

(D) Mark Twain

37. Mark Twain is considered an important literary figure because he

(A) was the first realist writer in the United States

(B) rejected romanticism as a literary approach

(C) wrote humorous stories and novels

(D) influenced American prose style through his use of common speech

38. The word "foremost" in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) most difficult

(B) interesting

(C) most focused

(D) leading

39. Which of the following statements about Theodore Dreiser is supported by the passage?

(A) He mainly wrote about historical subjects such as the Civil War.

(B) His novels often contained elements of humor.

(C) He viewed himself more as a social commentator than as a literary artist.

(D) He believed writers should emphasize the positive aspects of life.

Questions 40-50

In 1900 the United States had only three cities with more than a million residents- New York, Chicago, and Philadelphia. By 1930, it had ten giant metropolises. The newer ones experienced remarkable growth, which reflected basic changes in the economy.

(5)     The population of Los Angeles (114,000 in 1900) rose spectacularly in the early decades of the twentieth century, increasing a dramatic 1,400 percent from 1900 to 1930.

(8)     A number of circumstances contributed to the meteoric rise of Los Angeles. The agricultural potential of the area was enormous if water for irrigation could be found, and the city founders had the vision and dating to obtain it by constructing a 225-mile aqueduct, completed in 1913, to tap the water of the Owens River. The city had a superb natural harbor, as well as excellent rail connections. The climate made it possible to shoot motion pictures year-round; hence Hollywood. Hollywood not only supplied jobs; it disseminated an image of the good life in Southern California on screens all across the nation. The most important single industry powering the growth of Los Angeles, however, was directly linked to the automobile. The demand for petroleum to fuel gasoline engines (15) led to the opening of the Southern California oil fields, and made Los Angeles North America's greatest refining center.

(21)  Los Angeles was a product of the auto age in another sense as well: its distinctive spatial organization depended on widespread private ownership of automobiles. Los Angeles was a decentralized metropolis, sprawling across the desert landscape over an area of 400 square miles. It was a city without a real center. The downtown business district did not grow apace with the city as a whole, and the rapid transit system designed to link the center with outlying areas withered away from disuse. Approximately 800,000 cars were registered in Los Angeles County in 1930, one per 2.7 residents. Some  visitors from the east coast were dismayed at the endless urban sprawl and dismissed Los Angeles as a mere collection of suburbs in search of a city. But the freedom and mobility of a city built on wheels attracted floods of migrants to the city.

40. What is the passage mainly about?

(A) The growth of cities in the United States in the early 1900's

(B) The development of the Southern California oil fields

(C) Factors contributing to the growth of Los Angeles

(D) Industry and city planning in Los Angeles

41. The author characterizes the growth of new large cities in the United States after 1900 as resulting primarily from

(A) new economic conditions

(B) images of cities shown in movies

(C) new agricultural techniques

(D) a large migrant population

42. The word "meteoric" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) rapid

(B) famous

(C) controversial

(D) methodical

43. The word "it" in line 11 refers to

(A) aqueduct

(B) vision

(C) water

(D) agricultural potential

44. According to the passage, the most important factor in the development of agriculture around Los Angeles was the

(A) influx of "new residents to agricultural areas near the city

(B) construction of an aqueduct

(C) expansion of transportation facilities

(D) development of new connections to the city's natural harbor

45. According to the passage, the initial success of Hollywood' s motion picture industry was due largely to the

(A) availability of many skilled workers

(B) beauty of the countryside

(C) region's reputation for luxurious lifestyles

(D) region's climate and good weather

46. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1930 the greatest number of people in the Los Angeles area were employed in

(A) farming

(B) oil refining

(C) automobile manufacturing

(D) the motion picture industry

47. According to the passage, the Southern California oil fields were initially exploited due to

(A) the fuel requirements of Los

Angeles' rail system

(B) an increase in the use of gasoline engines in North America

(C) a desire to put unproductive desert land to good use

(D) innovative planning on the part of the city founders

48. The phrase "apace with" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) anew with

(B) apart from

(C) as fast as

(D) at the middle of

49. It can be inferred from the passage that the spatial organization of Los Angeles contributed to the relative decline there of

(A) public transportation

(B) industrial areas

(C) suburban neighborhoods

(D) oil fields

50. The visitors from the east coast mentioned in the passage thought that Los Angeles

(A) was not accurately portrayed by Hollywood images

(B) lacked good suburban areas in which to live

(C) had an excessively large population

(D) was not really a single city.

2001年10月TOEFL试题

Section Two: Structure and Written Expression

1. Most geologists believe—from the remains of tiny marine plants and animals that died millions of years ago.

(A) what was formed petroleum

(B) that petroleum was formed

(C) when petroleum formed

(D) petroleum that formed

2. The seat of France's North American holdings in the eighteenth century was Quebec, and the French heritage ____ dominant there.

(A) to remain

(B) remaining

(C) by remaining

(D) has remained

3. If Earth did not rotate, differences in air pressure would be —, with winds blowing from high-pressure to low-pressure areas.

(A) primary air flow to cause

(B) the primary cause of air flow

(C) they primarily cause air flow

(D) air flow has a primary cause

4. A mobile is a sculpture constructed of pans so delicately connected and balanced—the entire suspended structure may be moved by vibration or manual manipulation.

(A) in order

(B) making

(C) with

(D) that

5. The ice of a glacier that reaches the sea breaks off—.

(A) and forming icebergs

(B) to form icebergs

(C) icebergs have-formed

(D) when the formation of icebergs

6. Migraine headaches are more frequent among women— among men.

(A) than

(B) however

(C) except for

(D) as air

7. South American flamingos can survive in temperatures—above the freeing point.

(A) that fewer degrees

(B) if few degrees

(C) only a few degrees

(D) when fewer degrees

8. Made of hard wood, the boomerang is roughly V-shaped, with arms— skewed

(A) of slightly

(B) are slightly

(C) slightly

(D) that those are slightly

9. Not until the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries—as a unified science.

(A) did ecology emerge

(B) when ecology emerged

(C) ecology emerged

(D) when did ecology emerge

10. The ancient Egyptian water clock required sophisticated calibration, since water dripped faster from its bowl when — and the pressure was greater.

(A) the full bowl

(B) was the bowl full

(C) bowl full

(D) the bowl was full

11. Enid, Oklahoma, —a stopping place on die Chisholm Trail in the 1800's, is now the site of the fourth largest wheat storage space in the world

(A) originally

(B) which originally

(C) was originally

(D) originally where

12. The common barn owl, one of ten species of barn owls found in North America, is also called the monkey-faced owl because its heart-shaped face looks — of a monkey.

(A) like much that

(B) like that much

(C) much like that

(D) that much like

13. All the planets in the solar system except Mercury and Venus have natural satellites, — objects that revolve around the planets.

(A) which

(B) which are

(C) of which

(D) and which

14. Some subsistence activities such as hunting large animals or netting fish require — to work together.

(A) groups are

(B) groups which

(C) groups

(D) that groups

15. The Expressionistic artist was concerned not with the reality of the subject matter but with — inner nature and the emotions that it aroused

(A) it has

(B) its

(C) what its

(D) is it whether.

16. By the end of the nineteenth century, organic chemistry had develop new methods for the  synthesis of dyes, perfumes, explosives, and medicines.

17. The Dinee, a Native American people of the southwestern United States, were once seminomadic hunters who practiced a few agriculture.

18. The earliest successful sewing machines were powered by turn a hand crank.

19. Early signs characteristic of the acute phase of viral hepatitis in adults are abdominal pain, nausea, and feverish often accompanied by chills.

20. The Guggenheim Museum in New York City is one of the major center for the collection  and display of works of abstract art in the United State.

21. With the discovery of gold in the Klondike in Canada’s Yukon Territory in 1896, people flocked soon there from all parts of the world.

22. The right side of the brain is mostly concerned with pictorial, intuitive, musically and spatial abilities.

23. A uniform mingling of molecules, which it occurs in homogeneous chemical compounds, results from the chemical constituents melting, dissolving, or diffusing into one another.

24. Many dinosaurs were so much heavy that they spent most of their lives in swamps and shallow lakes where water could support them.

25. With little nor no mass and no electric charge, neutrinos can penetrate a solid object  such as the Earth as if it were not there.

26. Georgia O’Keeffe is known for hers use of organic, abstract forms painted in clear, strong colors.

27. Until the George Washington Bridge was built, modern suspension bridges were stiffened with steel trusses and beams to limited their motion in traffic and wind.

28. First reported by Spanish explorers in 1796, the asphalt in California’s La Brea Tar Pit was mined commercial for many years.

29. Independence political of newspapers became a common feature of journalism in the United States of the 1840’s and 1850’s.

30. Transistors exhibit a high amplification factor, operate without distorted over a wide frequency range, and can be made extremely small.

31. In most cases of epilepsy, cerebral electrical activity, also known as brain waves, demonstrates a characteristically abnormal rhythms.

32. New York City’s theatrical district was concentrated the Bowery from 1860 to 1875, and around 1900 the avenue became a center for the Yiddish theater.

33. Most female lizards lay eggs, but the females of a number of lizard species bear her young alive.

34. Recently archaeologists have strived to develop theories, based on archaeological evident, that explain societal changes such as the development of farming.

35. One of the most impressive cultural achievements of the United State during the 1920’s was a vastly outpouring of serious literature.

36. The chemical element chlorine is a corrosive, greenish-yellow gas that has sharp odor and has 21/2 times heavier than air.

37. Hair grows more quickly in summer than in winter and more slowly at the night than during the day.

38. Different fourteen crops were being grown 8,600 years ago by some of the world’s earliest farmers.

39. Between 1905 and 1907, floodwaters from the Colorado River poured into a salt-covered depression and creating the Salton Sea.

40. Saturn takes almost 30 Earth years to make one trip around the Sun, during Jupiter takes about twelve Earth years to complete one solar revolution.

Question 1-9

Composers today use a wider variety of sounds than ever before, including many that were once considered undesirable noises. Composer Edgard Varese (1883-1965) called thus the "liberation of sound...the right to make music with any and all sounds."

(5)     Electronic music, for example—made with the aid of computers, synthesizers, and electronic instruments—may include sounds that in the past would not have been considered musical. Environmental sounds, such as thunder, and electronically generated hisses and blips can be recorded, manipulated, and then incorporated into a musical composition. But composers also draw novel sounds from voices and nonelectronic instruments. Singers may be asked to scream, laugh, groan, sneeze, or to sing phonetic sounds rather than words. Wind and string players may lap or scrape their instruments.

(14)  A brass or woodwind player may hum while playing, to produce two pitches at once; a pianist may reach inside the piano to pluck a string and then run a metal blade along it. In the music of the Western world, the greatest expansion and experimentation have involved percussion instruments, which outnumber strings and winds in many recent compositions.

(19)  Traditional percussion instruments are struck with new types of beaters; and instruments that used to be couriered unconvennonal in Western music—tom-toms, bongos, slapsticks, maracas—are widelv used.

In the search for novel sounds, increased use has been made in Western music of Microtones.Non-Western music typically divides and interval between two pitches more finely than Western music does, thereby producing a greter number of distinct tones, or micro tones, within the same interval. Composers such as Krzysztof Pmderecki create sound that borders on electronic noise through tone clusters—closely spaced tones played together and heard as a mass, block, or band of sound. The directional aspect of sound has taken on new importance as well Loudspeakers or groups of instruments may be placed at opposite ends of the stage, in the balcony, or at the back and sides of the auditorium.

(32)  Because standard music notation makes no provision for many of these innovations, recent music scores may contain graphlike diagrams, new note shapes and symbols, and novel ways of arranging notation on the page.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The use of nontraditional sounds in contemporary music

(B) How sounds are produced electronically

(C) How standard musical notation has beer, adapted for nontraditional sounds

(D) Several composers who have experimented with the electronic production of sound

2. The word "wider" in one 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) more impressive

(B) more distinctive

(C) more controversial

(D) more extensive

3. The passage suggests that Edgard Varese is an example of a composer who

(A) criticized electronic music as too noiselike

(B) modified sonic of the electronic instruments he used in his music

(C) believed that any sound could be used in music

(D) wrote music with environmental themes

4. The word "it" in line 16 refers to

(A) piano

(B) string

(C) blade

(D) music

5. According to the passage, which of the following types of instruments has played a role in much of the innovation in Western music?

(A)String

(B) Percussion

(C) Woodwind

(D) Brass

6. The word "thereby" m line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) in return for

(B) in spite of

(C) by the way

(D) by that means

7. According to the passage, Krzysziof Pendereckj is known for which of the following practices?

(A) Using tones that are clumped together

(B) Combining traditional and nontradinonal instruments

(C) Seating musicians in unusual areas of an auditorium

(D) Playing Western music for non-Western audiences

8. According to the passage, which of the following would be considered traditional elements of Western music?

(A) Microtones

(B) Tom-toms and bongos

(C) Pianos

(D) Hisses

9. In paragraph 3, the author mentions diagrams as an example of a new way to

(A) chart the history of innovation in musical notation

(B) explain the logic of standard musical notation

(C) design and develop electronic instruments

(D) indicate how particular sounds should be produced.

Questions 10-19

What unusual or unique biological train led to the remarkable diversification and unchallenged success of the ants for ever 50 million years? The answer appears to be that they were the first group of predatory ensocial insects that both lived and foraged.

(5)     Primarily in the soil and in rotting vegetation on the ground. Eusocial refers tc a form of insect society characterized by specialization of tasks and cooperative care of the young; it is rare among insects. Richly organized colonies of the land made possible by eusociality enjoy several key advantages over solitary individuals.

(10)  Under most circumstances groups of workers arc better able to forage for food and defend the nest, because they can switch from individual to group response and back again swiftly and according to need. When a food object or nest intruder is too large for one individual to handle, nestmates can be quickly assembled by alarm or recruitment signals. Equally important is the fact that the execution of multiple-step tasks is accomplished in a series-parallel sequence. That is, individual ants can specialize in particular steps, moving from one object (such as a larva to be fed) to another (a second larva to be fed). They do not need to carry each task to completion from start to finish—. for example, to check the larva first, then collect the food, then feed the larva. Hence, if each link in the chain has many workers in attendance, a senes directed at any particular object is less likely to fail. Moreover, ants specializing in particular labor categories typically constitute a caste specialized by age or body form or both. There has bees some documentation of the superiority in performance and net energetic yield of various castes for their modal tasks, although careful experimental studies are still relatively few.

(27)  What makes ants unusual in the company of eusocial insects is the fact that they are the only eusocial predators (predators are animals that capture and feed on other animals) occupying the soil and ground litter. The eusocial termites live in the same places as ants and also have wingless workers, but they feed almost exclusively on dead vegetation.

l0. Which of the following questions does the passage primarily answer?

(A) How do individual ants adapt to

specialized tasks?

(B) What are the differences between social and solitary insects?

(C) Why are ants predators?

(D) Why have ants been able to thrive for such a long time?

11. The word "unique" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) inherited

(B) habitual

(C) singular

(D) natural

12. The word "rotting" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) decaying

(B) collected

(C) expanding

(D) cultivated

13. The word "key" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) uncommon

(B) important

(C) incidental

(D) temporary

14. According to the passage, one thing eusocial insects can do is rapidly switch from

(A) one type of food consumption to another

(B) one environment to another

(C) a solitary task to a group task

(D) a defensive to an offensive stance

15. The task of feeding larvae is mentioned in thepassage to demonstrate

(A) the advantages of specialization

(B) the type of food that larvae are fed

(C) the ways ant colonies train their young for adult tasks

(D) the different stages of ant development

16. The author uses the word "Hence" in line 20 to indicate

(A) a logical conclusion

(B) the next step in a senes of steps

(C) a reason for further study

(D) the relationship among ants

17. All of the following terms art defined in the passage EXCEPT

(A) eusocial (line 6)

(B) series-parallel sequence (line 16)

(C) caste (line 23)

(D) predators (line 28)

18. The word "they" in line 26 refers to

(A) termites

(B)ants

(C) places

(D) predators

19. It can be inferred from the passage that one main difference between termites and ants is that termites

(A) live above ground

(B) are eusocial

(C) protect their nests

(D) eat almost no animal substances.

Questions 20-29

Glaciers are large masses of ice on land that show evidence of past or present movement. They grow by the gradual transformation of snow into glacier ice.

(4)     A fresh snowfall is a fluffy mass of loosely packed snowflakes, small delicate ice constals grown in the atmosphere. As the snow ages on the ground for weeks or months, the crystals shrink and become more compact, and the whole mass becomes squeezed together into a more dense form, granular snow. As new snow falls and buries the older snow, the layers of granular snow further compact to form firm, a much denser kind of snow, usually a year or more old, which has little pore space. Further burial and slow cementation—a process by which crystals become bound together in a mosaic of intergrown ice crystals—finally produce solid glacial ice. In this process of recrystallization, the growth of new crystals at the expense of old ones, the percentage of air is reduced from about 90 percent for snowflakes to less than 20 percent for glacier ice.

(16)  The whole process may take as little as a few years, but more likely ten or twenty years or longer. The snow is usually many meters deep by the time the lower layers art converted into ice.

(19)  In cold glaciers those formed in the coldest regions of the Earth, the entire mass of ice is at temperatures below the melting point and no free water exists. In temperate glaciers, the ice is at the melting point at every pressure level within the glacier, and free water is present as small drops or as larger accumulations in tunnels within or beneath the ice.

(24)  Formation of a glacier is complete when ice has accumulated to a thickness (and thus weight) sufficient to make it move slowly under pressure, in much the same way that solid rock deep within the Earth can change shape without breaking. Once that point is reached, the ice flows downhill, either as a tongue of ice filling a valley or as thick ice cap that flows out in directions from the highest central area where the most snow accumulates. The up down leads to the eventual melting of ice.

20. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The effect of glaciers on climate

(B) Damage from glaciers

(C) Glacier formation

(D) The location of glaciers

21. Which of the following will cause density within the glacier to increase?

(A) Increased water and air content

(B) Pressure from the weight of new snow

(C) Long periods of darkness and

temperature variations

(D) Movement of the glacier

22. The word "bound" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) covered

(B) chosen

(C) planned

(D) held

23. Which of the following will be lost is a glacier forms?

(A) Air

(B) Pressure

(C) Weight

(D) Rocks

24. According to the passage, which of the following is the LEAST amount of time necessary for glacial ice to form?

(A) Several months

(B) Several years

(C) At least fifty years

(D) A century

25. The word "converted" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) changed

(B) delayed

(C) promoted

(D) dissolved

26. What is the purpose of the material in paragraph three (lines 19-21)

(A) To define two types of glaciers

(B) To contrast glacier ice with non-glacier ice

(C) To present theories of glacier formation

(D) To discuss the similarities between glacial types

27. In temperate glaciers, where is water found?

(A) Only near the surface

(B) In pools a: various depths

(C) In a thin layer below the firm

(D) In tunnels

28. The word "it" in line 25 refers to

(A) formation

(B) ice

(C) thickcess

(D) weight

29. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that a glacier

(A) can revert to a fluffy mass

(B) maintains the same shape throuthout the glacial process

(C) is too cold to be thoroughly studied

(D) can contribute water to lakes, rivers, or Oceans.

Questions 30-39

The lack of printing regulations and the unenforceability of British copyright law in the American colonies made it possible for colonial printers occasionally to act as publishers. Although they rarely undertook major publishing project because it was difficult to sell books as cheaply as they could be imported from Europe, printers in Philadelphia did publish work that required only small amounts of capital, paper, and type. Broadsides could be published with minimal financial risk. Consisting of only one sheet of paper and requiring small amounts of type, broadsides involved lower investments of capital than longer works. Furthermore, the broadside format lent itself to subjects of high, if temporary, interest, enabling them to meet with ready sale. If the broadside printer miscalculated, however, and produced a sheet that did not sell, it was not likely to be a major loss, and the printer would know this immediately, There would be no agonizing wait with large amounts of capital tied up, books gathering dust on the shelves, and creditors impatient for payment

(16)  In addition to broadsides, books and pamphlets, consisting mainly of political tracts, catechisms, primers, and chapbooks were relatively inexpensive to print and to buy.

(19)  Chapbook were pamphlet-sized books, usually containing popular tales, ballads, poems, short plays, and jokes, small, both in formal and number of pages, they were generally bound simply, in boards (a form of cardboard) or merely stitched in paper wrappers (a sewn antecedent of modern-day paperbacks). Pamphlets and chapbooks did not require fine paper or a great deal of type to produce they could thus be printed in large, cost-effective editions and sold cheaply.

(26)  By far, the most appealing publishing investments were to be found in small books that had proven to be steady sellers, providing a reasonably reliable source of income for the publisher. They would not, by nature, be highly topical or political, as such publications would prove of fleeting interest. Almanacs, annual publications that contained information on astronomy and weather patterns arranged according to the days, week, and months of a given year, provided the perfect steady seller because their information pertained to the locale in which they would be used.

30. Which aspect of colonial printing does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Laws governing the printing industry

(B) Competition among printers

(C) Types of publications produced

(D) Advances in printing technology

31.According to the passage, why did colonial printers avoid major publishing projects?

(A) Few colonial printers owned printing machinery tha was large enough to handle major projects.

(B) There was inadequate shipping available in the colonies.

(C) Colonial printers could not sell their work for a competitive price.

(D) Colonial printers did not have the skills necessary to undertake large publishing projects.

32. Broadsides could be published with little risk to colonial printers because they

(A) required a small financial investment and sold quickly

(B) were in great demand in European markets

(C) were more popular with colonists than chapbooks and pamphlets

(D) generally dealt with topics of long-term interest to many colonists

33.The word "they" in line 21 refers to

(A) chapbooks

(B) tales

(C) jokes

(D) pages

34.The word "antecedent" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) predecessor

(B)format

(C) imitation

(D) compontent

35. Chapbooks produced in colonial America were characterized by

(A) fine paper

(B) cardboard covers

(C) elaborate decoration

(D) a large number of pages

36. Thc word "appealing" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) dependable

(B) respectable

(C) enduring

(D) attractive

37. What were "steady sellers" (line 27)?

(A) Printers whose incomes were quite large

(B) People who traveled from town to town selling Books and pamphlets

(C) Investors who provided reliable financial Support for new printers

(D) Publications whose sales were usually consistent from year to year

38. The word "locale" in line 33 is closest in meaning to

(A) topic

(B) season

(C) interest

(D) place

39. All of the following are defined in the passage EXCEPT

(A) "Broadsides" (line 7)

(B) "catechisms" (line 17)

(C) "chapbooks"(line 19)

(D)"Almanacs" (line 30).

Questions 40-50

Industrialization came to the United State after 1790 as North American entrepreneurs increased producuvity by reorganizing work and building factories. These innovations in manufacturing boosted output and living standards to an unprecedented extent; the average per capita wealth increased by nearly 1 percent per year—30 percent over the course of a generation. Goods that had once been luxury items became part of everyday life.

(8)     The impressive gain in output stemmed primarily from the way in which workers made goods, since the 1790's, North American entrepreneurs—even without technological improvements—had broadened the scope of the outwork system that mace manufacturing more efficient by distributing materials to a succession of workers who each performed a single step of the production process. For example, during the 1820's and 1830's the shoe industry greatly expanded the scale and extend of me outwork system. Tens of thousands of rural women, paid according to the amount they produced, fabricated the "uppers" of shoes, which were bound to the soles by wage-earning journeymen shoemakers in dozens of massachusetts towns, whereas previously journeymen would have made the enure shoe. This system of production made the employer a powerful "shoe boss" and eroded workers' control over the pace and conditions of labor. However, it also dramatically increased the output of shoes while cutting their price.

(23)  For tasks that were not suited to the outwork system, entrepreneurs created an even more important new organization, the modem factory, which used power-driven machines and assembly-line techniques to turn out large quantities of well-made goods. As early as 1782 the prolific Delaware inventor Oliver Evans had built a highly automated, laborsaving flour mill driven by water power. His machinery lifted the grain to the top of the mill, cleaned it as it fell into containers known as hoppers, ground the grain into flour, and then conveyed the flour back to the top of the mill to allow it to cool as it desended into barrels. Subsequently, manufacturers made use of new improved stationary steam engines to power their mills. This new technology enabled them to build factories in the nation's largest cities, taking advantage of urban concentrations of inexpensive labor, good transportation networks, and eager customers.

40. What is the passage mainly about?

(A)The difficulties of industrialization in North America

(B)The influence of changes in manufacturing on the growth of urban centers

(C) The rapid speed of industrialization in North America

(D) Improved ways of organizing the manufacturing of goods

41. The word "boosted" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) ensured

(B) raised

(C) arranged

(D) discouraged

42.The word "scope" in line 11 is closest in meaningto

(A) value

(B) popularity

(C) extent

(D) diversity

43. The author mentions the shoe industry in the second paragraph to provide an example of how

(A) entrepreneurs increased output by using an extended outwork system

(B) entrepreneurs used technological improvements to increase output

(C) rural workers responded to "shoe bosses"

(D) changes in the outwork system improved the quality of shoes

44. All of the following are mentioned as effects of changes in the shoe industry during the 1820's and 1830's EXCEPT

(A) an increase in the worker's dependence on entrepreneurs

(B) an increase in the wages paid to journeymen shoemakers

(C) a decline in the workers ability to control the speed of production

(D) a decrease in the price of shoes

45. All of the following are true of the outwork system EXCEPT

(A) It involved stages of production.

(B) It was more efficient than the systems used before 1790.

(C) It made many employers less powerful than they had been before.

(D) It did not necessarily involve any technological improvements.

46. The word "prolific" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) efficient

(B) productive

(C) self-employed

(D) progressive

47. According to the passage, how did later mills differ from the mills differ from the mill built by Oliver Evans?

(A) They were located away from large cities.

(B) They used new technology to produce power.

(C)They did not allow flour to cool before it was placed in Barrels.

(D)They combined technology with the outwork system.

48.The word "it" in line 29 refers to

(A) water power

(B) machinery

(C) grain

(D) mill

49. The passage mentions which of the following asa result of improvements in factory machinery?

(A) It become easier for factory' owners to find workers and customers.

(B) Manufacturers had to employ more highly skilled workers.

(C) The amount of power required for factories operate was reduced.

(D) Factories could operate more than one engin at a time.

50. The word "eager" in line 35 is closest in meaning to

(A) wealthy

(B) knowledgeable

(C) regular

(D) enthusiastic.

2002年1月TOEFL试题

Section Two: Structure and Written Expression

1. When __ from milk, the remainder is called skim milk.

(A) all the butterfat is removed

(B) removing all the butterfat that

(C) is all the butterfat removed

(D) the removal of all the butterfat

2. The Buffalo River in Arkansas was designated __     in 1972.

(A) a national river and

(B) which a national river

(C) a national river

(D) being a national river

3. Much of northern Canada lies within the Arctic Circle, and __ ice or the sparse vegetation known as tundra.

(A) it is permanently covered by

(B) by permanently it is covered

(C) is permanently covered by it

(D) it is covered by permanently

4. Manipulation of the spinal column, massage, and dietary adjustments__ used in chiropractic therapy.

(A) the principal methods are

(B) are the principal methods

(C) how are the principal methods

(D) are there the principal methods

5. Giant corporations __ to dominate the United States economy in the late nineteenth century, grew steadily larger during the 1920%.

(A) which began

(B) in which began

(C) they began

(D) which they began

6. The tradition of the bowhead whale hunt __ back a thousand years and is a vital part of Inuit culture.

(A) goes

(B) if it goes

(C) gone

(D) that went

7. __ the son of an impoverished farmer, was born on Long Island.

(A) The poet was Walt Whitman

(B) When the poet Walt Whitman

(C) The poet Walt Whitman

(D) That the poet Walt Whitman

8. The primary digestive function of the throat and esophagus is __     swallowed materials from the mouth to the stomach.

(A) to transport

(B) transported

(C) for transportation

(D) that transported

9. Insulin is manufactured by specialized cells in the pancreas and released __ glucose reaches a certain concentration in the bloodstream.

(A) which

(B) whenever

(C) how

(D) during

10. One of the basic principles of wildlife conservation involves __      adequate natural food and shelter to maintain populations of each species in a given habitat.

(A) the provision

(B) that provision

(C) to provide

(D) providing

11. In 1974 the space probe Mariner 10 discovered __ Mercury's surface is cratered by meteorite impacts.

(A)that the planet

(B)of the planet

(C)the planet that

(D)which planet is

12. In the diurnal type of tidal oscillation, the alternate rise and fall of sea level, a single high water and a single low water occur __ tidal day.

(A) each

(B) each of

(C) each of the

(D) of each

13. The chief justice of the United States presides over the Supreme Court during oral arguments and in conferences __

(A) of which decisions concern

(B) have important decisions

(C) that important decisions

(D) concerning important decisions

14.By focusing on the interesting, __  the significant, the penny press newspapers of the 1830's helped to change the concept of news.

(A) which does not necessarily

(B) not necessarily

(C) was not necessarily

(D) nor necessarily being

15. Documentary evidence supports claims that __ the New World about AD 1000.

(A) reached the Vikings

(B) the Vikings reached

(C) reaching the Vikings

(D) the Vikings that reached.

16. Fog and mist, like clouds, can formed only in the presence of dust particles.

17. The Spanish claiming title to all of North America and established the oldest city in the United States, St. Augustine, Florida, in 1565.

18. The federal system of government in Canada is similar to it of the United States.

19. It may be argued that genetics, the study of heredity and variation, underwent the most rapid development of any science biological in the twentieth century.

20. Music involves the interaction of three elements: rhythm, melodic, and harmony.

21. The Medicare program was established in 1965 to helping elderly United States citizens pay the increasing cost of health care.

22. Researchers have found subtle neurological differences between the brains of men and women either in physical structure and in the waythey function.

23. Scientists have traditionally classified plants by grouping them according  to similarities in their overall appear, their internal structure, and the form of  their reproductive organs.

24. Geometric figures first appeared more than 15,000 years ago in both  practically and decorative forms, such as shapes of buildings, cave  paintings, and decorations on pottery.

25. In the early nineteenth century, the Cherokee nation of American Indians was adopted a written constitution based on that of the United States.

26. The able of writers to precisely record observations made about others enables them to include in their work a great deal of material outside their own experience.

27. In Connecticut, hundreds of houses dating from the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries are preserved by more as 100 local or national historical societies.

28. In 1899 Mary Elizabeth Brown donated hers collection of over 200 musical instruments to the Metropolitan Museum of art.

29. Four different types of remembering are ordinarily distinguished by psychologists: recollection, recall, recognize, and relearning.

30. Harbors are protected areas of water that can be used the transfer of passengers and cargo between ships shore.

31. Fossil remains reveal that the farther back in time an animal lived, the smaller than was its brain in proportion to the size of its skull.

32. As do all insects, a butterfly has a hard outer covering, called it an exoskeleton, that both supports and protects the body.

33. In the early 1900's Pennsylvania's industries grew rapidly, a growth sometimes  accompanied by disputes labor.

34. Also known as a movie or a film, the motion picture is one of the most popular form of art and entertainment throughout the world.

35. The soil in which coffee is grown must be rich, moisture, and absorbent enough to accept water readily, but sufficiently loose to allow rapid drainage.

36. A merger is achieved when a company purchased the property of other firms, thus absorbing them into one corporate structure that retain its original identity.

37. Under the certain conditions, a rainbow appears at the end of a rain shower  in the quarter of the sky opposite the Sun.

38. During the nineteenth century the molecular theory of matter was developed, which considered all matter to be composed of tiny, indivisible entity called molecules.

39. A cardinal role for players of the lute, a stringed instrument, are that every note is sustained for as long as possible.

40. It was the split of eleven southern states from the Union in 1861 that leading to the Civil War in the United States.

Questions 1-9

In 1903, the members of the governing board of the University of Washington in Seattle engaged a firm of landscape architects, specialists in the design of outdoor environments--OImsted Brothers of Brookline, Massachusetts-to advise them on an appropriate layout for the university grounds. The plan impressed the university officials, and in time many of its recommendations were implemented. City officials in Seattle, the largest city in the northwestern United States, were also impressed, for they employed the same organization to study Seattle's public park needs. (9)   John Olmsted did the investigation and subsequent report on Seattle's parks. He and his brothers believed that parks should be adapted to the local topography, utilize the area's trees and shrubs, and be available to the entire community. They especially emphasized the need for natural, serene settings where hurried urban dwellers could periodically escape from the city. The essence of the Olmsted park plan was to develop a continuous driveway, twenty miles long, that would tie together a whole series of parks, playgrounds, and parkways. There would be local parks and squares, too, but all of this was meant to supplement the major driveway, which was to remain the unifying factor for the entire system.

(19)  In November of 1903 the city council of Seattle adopted the Olmsted Report, and it automatically became the master plan for the city's park system. Prior to this report, Seattle's park development was very limited and funding meager. All this changed after the report. Between 1907 and 1913, city voters approved special funding measures amounting to $4,000,000. With such unparalleled sums at their disposal, with the Olmsted guidelines to follow, and with the added incentive of wanting to have the city at its best for the Alaska-Yukon-Pacific Exposition of 1909, the Parks Board bought aggressively.

(28)  By 1913 Seattle had 25 parks amounting to 1,400 acres, as well as 400 acres in playgrounds, pathways, boulevards, and triangles. More lands would be added in the future, but for all practical purposes it was the great land surge of 1907-1913 that established Seattle's park system.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The planned development of Seattle's public park system

(B) The organization of the Seattle city government

(C) The history of the OImsted Brothers architectural firm

(D) The design and building of the University of Washington campus

2. The word "engaged" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) trained

(B) hired

(C) described

(D) evaluated

3. The word "subsequent" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) complicated

(B) alternate

(C) later

(D) detailed

4. Which of the following statements about parks does NOT reflect the views of the Olmsted Brothers firm?

(A) They should be planted with trees that grow locally.

(B) They should provide a quiet, restful environment.

(C) They should be protected by limiting the number of visitors from the community.

(D) They should be designed to conform to the topography of the area.

5. Why does the author mention "local parks and squares" in lines 13-14 when talking about the Olmsted plan?

(A) To emphasize the difficulties facing adoption of the plan

(B) To illustrate the comprehensive nature of the plan

(C) To demonstrate an omission in the plan

(D) To describe Seattle's landscape prior to implementation of the plan

6. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about how citizens of Seattle received the Olmsted Report?

(A) They were hostile to the report's conclusions.

(B) They ignored the Olmsteds' findings.

(C) They supported the Olmsteds' plans.

(D) They favored the city council's seeking advice from another firm.

7. According to the passage, when was the Olmsted Report officially accepted as the master plan for the Seattle public park system?

(A) 1903

(B) 1907

(C) 1909

(D) 1913

8. The word "sums" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) problems

(B) amounts

(C) services

(D) debts

9. According to the passage, which of the following was most directly influenced by the Alaska-Yukon- Pacific Exposition?

(A) The University of Washington

(B) Brookline, Massachusetts

(C) The mayor of Seattle

(D) The Seattle Parks Board.

Questions 10-19

No two comets ever look identical, but they have basic features in common, one of the most obvious of which is a coma. A coma looks like a misty, patch of light with one or more tails often streaming from it in the direction away from the Sun.

(5)     At the heart of a comet's coma lies a nucleus of solid material, typically no more than 10 kilometers across. The visible coma is a huge cloud of gas and dust that has escaped from the nucleus, which it then surrounds like an extended atmosphere. The coma can extend as far as a million kilometers outward from the nucleus. Around the coma there is often an even larger invisible envelope of hydrogen gas.

(11)  The most graphic proof that the grand spectacle of a comet develops from a relatively small and inconspicuous chunk of ice and dust was the close-up image obtained in 1986 by the European Giotto probe of the nucleus of Halley's Comet. It turned out to be a bit like a very dark asteroid, measuring 16 by 8 kilometers. Ices have evaporated from its outer layers to leave a crust of nearly black dust all over the surface. Bright jets of gas from evaporating ice burst out on the side facing the Sun, where the surface gets heated up, carrying dust with them. This is how the coma and the tails are created.

(20)  Comets grow tails only when they get warm enough for ice and dust to boil off. As a comet's orbit brings it closer to the Sun, first the coma grows, then two distinct tails usually form. One, the less common kind, contains electrically charged (i.e., ionized) atoms of gas, which are blown off directly in the direction away from the Sun by the magnetic field of the solar wind. The other tail is made of neutral dust particles, which get gently pushed back by the pressure of the sunlight itself. Unlike the ion tail, which is straight, the dust tail becomes curved as the particles follow their own orbits around the Sun.

10. The passage focuses on comets primarily in terms of their

(A) orbital patterns

(B) coma and tails

(C) brightness

(D) size

11. The word "identical" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) equally fast

(B) exactly alike

(C) near each other

(D) invisible

12. The word "heart" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) center

(B) edge

(C) tail

(D) beginning

13. Why does the author mention the Giotto probe in paragraph 3?

(A) It had a relatively small and inconspicuous nucleus.

(B) It was very similar to an asteroid.

(C) It was covered with an unusual black dust.

(D) It provided visual evidence of the makeup of a comet's nucleus.

14. It can be inferred from the passage that the nucleus of a comet is made up of

(A) dust and gas

(B) ice and dust

(C) hydrogen gas

(D) electrically charged atoms

15. The word "graphic" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) mathematical

(B) popular

(C) unusual

(D) vivid

16. Which of the following occurred as the ices from Halley's Comet evaporated?

(A) Black dust was left on the comet's surface.

(B) The nucleus of the comet expanded.

(C) The tail of the comet straightened out.

(D) Jets of gas caused the comet to increase its speed.

17. All of the following statements about the tails of comets are true EXCEPT:

(A) They can contain electrically charged or neutral particles.

(B) They can be formed only when there is sufficient heat.

(C) They are formed before the coma expands.

(D) They always point in the direction away from the Sun.

18. The word "distinct" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) visible

(B) gaseous

(C) separate

(D) new

19. Compared to the tail of electrically charged atoms, the tail of neutral dust particles is relatively

(A) long

(B) curved

(C) unpredictable

(D) bright.

Questions 20-29

Many prehistoric people subsisted as hunters and gatherers. Undoubtedly, game animals, including some very large species, provided major components of human diets.

(4)     An important controversy centering on the question of human effects on prehistoric wildlife concerns the sudden disappearance of so many species of large animals at or near the end of the Pleistocene epoch. Most paleontologists suspect that abrupt changes in climate led to the mass extinctions. Others, however, have concluded that prehistoric people drove many of those species to extinction through overhunting. In their "Pleistocene overkill hypothesis," they cite what seems to be a remarkable coincidence between the arrival of prehistoric peoples in North and South America and the time during which mammoths, giant ground sloths, the giant bison, and numerous other large mammals became extinct.

(14)  Perhaps the human species was driving others to extinction long before the dawn of history. Hunter-gatherers may have contributed to Pleistocene extinctions in more indirect ways. Besides overhunting, at least three other kinds of effects have been suggested: direct competition, imbalances between competing species of game animals, and early agricultural practices. Direct competition may have brought about the demise of large carnivores such as the saber-toothed cats. These animals simply may have been unable to compete with the increasingly sophisticated hunting skills of Pleistocene people.

(23)  Human hunters could have caused imbalances among game animals, leading to the extinctions of species less able to compete. When other predators such as the gray wolf prey upon large mammals, they generally take high proportions of each year s crop of young. Some human hunters, in contrast, tend to take the various age-groups of large animals in proportion to their actual occurrence. If such hunters first competed with the larger predators and then replaced them. they may have allowed more young to survive each year, gradually increasing the populations of favored species As these populations expanded, they in turn may have competed with other game species for the same environmental niche, forcing the less hunted species into extinction. This theory, suggests that human hunters played an indirect role in Pleistocene extinctions by hunting one species more than another.

20. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The effects of human activities on prehistoric wildlife

(B) The origins of the hunter-gatherer way of life

(C) The diets of large animals of the Pleistocene epoch

(D) The change in climate at the end of the Pleistocene epoch

21. The word "Undoubtedly" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) occasionally

(B) unexpectedly

(C) previously

(D) certainly

22. The word "components" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) parts

(B) problems

(C) changes

(D) varieties

23. Which of the following is mentioned as supporting the Pleistocene overkill hypothesis?

(A) Many of the animals that became extinct were quite large.

(B) Humans migrated into certain regions around the time that major extinctions occurred.

(C) There is evidence that new species were arriving in areas inhabited by humans.

(D) Humans began to keep and care for certain animals.

24. The word "Besides" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) caused by

(B) whereas

(C) in addition to

(D) in favor of

25. The author mentions saber-toothed cats in line 20 as an example of a carnivore that

(A) became extinct before the Pleistocene epoch

(B) was unusually large for its time

(C) was not able to compete with humans

(D) caused the extinction of several species

26. The word "they" in line 20 refers to

(A) human hunters

(B) game animals

(C) other predators

(D) large mammals

27. According to the passage, what is one difference between the hunting done by some humans and the hunting done by gray wolves?

(A) Some humans hunt more frequently than gray wolves.

(B) Gray wolves hunt in larger groups than some humans.

(C) Some humans can hunt larger animals than gray wolves can hunt.

(D) Some humans prey on animals of all ages, but gray wolves concentrate their efforts on young animals.

28. The word "favored" in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) large

(B) escaping

(C) preferred

(D) local

29. According to the passage, the imbalances discussed in paragraph 3 may have resulted from

(A) the effect of climate changes on large game animals

(B) large animals moving into a new environment

(C) humans hunting some species more than others

(D) older animals not being able to compete with younger animals

Questions 30-39

Tulips are Old World, rather than New World, plants, with the origins of the species lying in Central Asia. They became an integral part of the gardens of the Ottoman Empire from the sixteenth century onward, and, soon after, part of European life as well. Holland, in particular, became famous for its cultivation of the flower.

(6)     A tenuous line marked the advance of the tulip to the New World, where it was unknown in the wild. The first Dutch colonies in North America had been established in New Netherland by the Dutch West India Company in 1624, and one individual who settled in New Amsterdam (today's Manhattan section of New York City) in 1642 described the flowers that bravely colonized the settlers' gardens. They were the same flowers seen in Dutch still-life paintings of the time: crown imperials, roses, carnations, and of course tulips. They flourished in Pennsylvania too, where in 1698 William Penn received a report of John Tateham's "Great and Stately Palace," its garden full of tulips.

(16)  By 1760, Boston newspapers were advertising 50 different kinds of mixed tulip "roots." But the length of the journey between Europe and North America created many difficulties. Thomas Hancock, an English settler, wrote thanking his plant supplier for a gift of some tulip bulbs from England, but his letter the following year grumbled that they were all dead.

(21)  Tulips arrived in Holland, Michigan, with a later wave of early nineteenth-century Dutch immigrants who quickly colonized the plains of Michigan. Together with many other Dutch settlements, such as the one at Pella. Iowa, they established a regular demand for European plants. The demand was bravely met by a new kind of tulip entrepreneur, the traveling salesperson. One Dutchman, Hendrick van der Schoot, spent six months in 1849 traveling through the United States taking orders for tulip bulbs. While tulip bulbs were traveling from Europe to the United States to satisfy the nostalgic longings of homesick English and Dutch settlers, North American plants were traveling in the opposite direction. In England, the enthusiasm for American plants was one reason why tulips dropped out of fashion in the gardens of the rich and famous.

30. Which of the following questions does the passage mainly answer?

(A) What is the difference between an Old World and a New World plant?

(B) Why are tulips grown in many different parts of the world?

(C) How did tulips become popular in North America?

(D) Where were the first Dutch colonies in North America located?

31. The word "integral" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) interesting

(B) fundamental

(C) ornamental

(D) overlooked

32. The passage mentions that tulips were first found in which of the following regions?

(A) Central Asia

(B) Western Europe

(C) India

(D) North America

33. The word "flourished" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) were discovered

(B) were marketed

(C) combined

(D) thrived

34. The author mentions tulip growing in New Netherland Pennsylvania and Michigan in order to illustrate how

(A) imported tulips were considered more valuable than locally grown tulips

(B) tulips were commonly passed as

gifts from one family to another

(C) tulips grew progressively more

popular in North America

(D) attitudes toward tulips varied from one location to another

35. The word "grumbled" in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) denied

(B) warned

(C) complained

(D) explained

36. The passage mentions that one reason English and Dutch settlers planted tulips in their gardens was that tulips

(A) were easy to grow

(B) had become readily available

(C) made them appear fashionable

(D) reminded them of home

37. The word "they" in line 24 refers to

(A) tulips

(B) plains

(C) immigrants

(D) plants

38. According to the passage, which of the following changes occurred in English gardens during the European settlement of North America?

(A) They grew in size in order to provide enough plants to export to the New World.

(B) They contained a wider variety of tulips than ever before.

(C) They contained many new types of North American plants.

(D) They decreased in size on the estates of wealthy people.

39. The passage mentions which of the following as a problem associated with the importation of tulips into North America?

(A) They were no longer fashionable by the time they arrived.

(B) They often failed to survive the journey.

(C) Orders often took six months or longer to fill.

(D) Settlers knew little about how to cultivate them.

Questions 40-50

Pheromones are substances that serve as chemical signals between members of the same species. They are secreted to the outside of the body and cause other individuals of the species to have specific reactions. Pheromones, which are sometimes called "social hormones," affect a group of individuals somewhat like hormones do an individual animal. Pheromones are the predominant medium of communication among insects (but rarely the sole method).

(7)     Some species have simple pheromone systems and produce only a few pheromones, but others produce many with various functions. Pheromone systems are the most complex in some of the so-called social insects, insects that live in organized groups.

(11)  Chemical communication differs from that by sight or sound in several ways. Transmission is relatively slow (the chemical signals are usually airborne), but the signal can be persistent, depending upon the volatility of the chemical, and is sometimes effective over a very long range. Localization of the signal is generally poorer than localization of a sound or visual stimulus and is usually effected by the animal's moving upwind in response to the stimulus. The ability to modulate a chemical signal is limited, compared with communication by visual or acoustic means, but some pheromones may convey different meanings and consequently result in different behavioral or physiological responses, depending on their concentration or when presented in combination. The modulation of chemical signals occurs via the elaboration of the number of exocrine glands that produce pheromones. Some species, such as ants, seem to be very articulate creatures, but their medium of communication is difficult for humans to study and appreciate because of our own olfactory, insensitivity and the technological difficulties in detecting and analyzing these pheromones.

(27)  Pheromones play numerous roles in the activities of insects. They may act as alarm substances, play a role in individual and group recognition, serve as attractants between sexes, mediate the formation of aggregations, identify foraging trails, and be involved in caste determination. For example, pheromones involved in caste determination include the "queen substance" produced by queen honey bees. Aphids, which are particularly vulnerable to predators because of their gregarious habits and sedentary nature, secrete an alarm pheromone when attacked that causes nearby aphids to respond by moving away.

40. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) How insects use pheromones to communicate

(B) How pheromones are produced by insects

(C) Why analyzing insect pheromones is difficult

(D) The different uses of pheromones among various insect species

41. The word "serve" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) improve

(B) function

(C) begin

(D) rely

42. The purpose of the second mention of "hormones" in line 4 is to point out

(A) chemical signals that are common among insects

(B) specific responses of various species to chemical signals

(C) similarities between two chemical substances

(D) how insects produce different chemical substances

43. The word "sole" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) obvious

(B) best

(C) only

(D) final

44. The passage suggests that the speed at which communication through pheromones occurs is dependent on how quickly they

(A) lose their effectiveness

(B) evaporate in the air

(C) travel through the air

(D) are produced by the body

45. According to the passage, the meaning of a message communicated through a pheromone may vary when the

(A) chemical structure of the pheromone is changed

(B) pheromone is excreted while other pheromones are also being excreted

(C) exocrine glands do not produce the pheromone

(D) pheromone is released near certain specific organisms

46. The word "detecting" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) controlling

(B) storing

(C) questioning

(D) finding

47. According to paragraph 2, which of the following has made the study of pheromones difficult?

(A) Pheromones cannot be easily reproduced in chemical laboratories.

(B) Existing technology cannot fully explore the properties of pheromones.

(C) Pheromones are highly volatile.

(D) Pheromone signals are constantly changing.

48. The word "They" in line 27 refers to

(A) pheromones

(B) roles

(C) activities

(D) insects

49. The word "sedentary" in line 33 is closest in meaning to

(A) inactive

(B) inefficient

(C) unchangeable

(D) unbalanced

50. Pheromone systems are relatively complex in insects that

(A) also communicate using sight and sound

(B) live underground

(C) prey on other insects

(D) live in organized groups.

2002年05月语法题

1.__of pottery is dependent on the durability of clay after firing.

(A) To make

(B) The making

(C) When to make

(D) It is making

2. Pig iron, wrought iron, and steel contain iron carbides made up of __ of carbon.

(A) amounts are different

(B) different amounts that

(C) different amounts

(D) which amounts are different

3. The Arctic fox is found throughout the Arctic, usually on tundra or mountains __ the sea.

(A) by which near

(B) near of

(C) because near

(D) near

4. The midge __ to any of several species of small flies, refers to a mosquito-like insect with slender wings and body, long legs, and antennae.

(A) which a term applied

(B) a term applied

(C) is a term applied

(D) applied a term

5. The face is the most __ of a human being.

(A) part is distinctly

(B) distinction in part

(C) distinctive part

(D) part of distinction

6. The chemical facts __ as a by-product of their search for gold became the basis for modem chemistry.

(A) that had been accumulated by alchemists

(B) were accumulated by alchemists

(C) alchemists accumulating them

(D) had been accumulated by alchemists

7. The fluoroscope makes __ for medical doctors to view a silhouette of the bones and internal organs of a patient’s body.

(A) being possible

(B) possibly

(C) it is possible

(D) it possible

8. The second-oldest continuously occupied governor’s mansion in the United States __ Jackson, Mississippi.

(A) the location in

(B) is the location

(C) is located in

(D) located in

9. A television camera produces an image by convening __ receives into a series of bright and dark dots.

(A) and it

(B) it

(C) what it

(D) that it

10. In so-called nonfiction novels, a documentary style is combined with fictional techniques __actual events and people.

(A) that they describe

(B) to describe

(C) and in describing

(D) are describing

11. Managers often receive considerable training in the “technical” aspects of their jobs ________ very little in the “people management” aspects.

(A) so

(B) just as

(C) yet

(D) and that

12. Areas of fertile soil called deltas, usually __ are formed by mud deposited at the mouth of a river.

(A) triangular in shape

(B) their shape is triangular

(C) they have a triangular shape

(D) triangular shape

13. Though a respected educator, Alexander Graham Bell __ the inventor of the telephone.

(A) as is best known

(B) best known as is

(C) is best known as

(D) best is known as

14. Not until the First World War __ to improve the road system in the United States.

(A) a determined effort was made

(B) made a determined effort

(C) when a determined effort was made

(D) was a determined effort made

15. Often invisible, always in motion, gas is __ of matter.

(A) the state is most energetic

(B) stating the most energetic

(C) the most energetic state

(D) the state that most energetic

16. Some fish have whiskers, which are sensory organs used for touching and tasting, and which are helpful when are they searching for food in sand and mud.

17. Cement is produced commercially by to heat a mixture of limestone and clay in a large, slowly rotating cylindrical furnace.

18. In addition to appropriating the subject matter of mass culture, the pop art movement of the 1950’s utilized various technique of mass production.

19. Practical problems limit the ability of astronomers to determine the mass of asteroids, who are small planetary bodied orbiting the Sun.

20. An accomplished saxophonist and composer, John Coltrane begun his career playing in the big bands of the early 1950’s.

21. Bacteria and similar one-celled organisms reproduce by cell division, each of the daughter cell then beginning a new life as a distinct organism.

22. Many species of birds that breed in temperate latitudes often show particular patterns of migration while the year.

23. Quebec, the most oldest city in Canada, lies on the north bank of the St. Lawrence River.

24. Because of the need to maintain the correct balance of salts and minerals in the water, keeping saltwater fish in aquariums requires more work that keeping freshwater fish.

25. Addressing themes that were unique American, the poet Walt Whitman celebrated the lives of ordinary people.

26. Many museums have been founded by private benefactors, and a few have received endowments that help to support theirs routine operations.

27. The Bessemer process for converting iron to steel was invention of enormous importance because it led to many significant changes in industrial processes.

28. Painters have been portraying the sea for centuries, and in the United States a rich tradition of marine painting been developed during the nineteenth century.

29. The city of Memphis, Tennessee, was a important Confederate military center during the American Civil War and served as the temporary state capital in 1862.

30. Although all sedimentary rocks contain iron, but the deposits that are richest in iron consist predominantly of minerals such as iron oxides, carbonates, silicates, and sulfides.

31. In the United States, the attorney general is a cabinet member in charge with the administration of the Department of Justice.

32. The Atlantic cable, which began to operating in 1866,linked the United States to London and to another cable stretching eastward to India and beyond.

33. Many folk songs were originated to accompany manual work or to mark a specific ceremonies.

34. The shell of the abalone, a marine snail, is especially suited by its hardness and various of colors for the manufacture of jewelry.

35. Geraldine Farrar, who debuted as an opera singer in 1901, later appeared both on stage and in several silent film.

36. The migration of African Americans from the rural South to the industrial North in the early 1900’s were the biggest internal migration in American history.

37. Searching for alternate forms of energy does not necessary mean the abandonment of fossil fuels as an energy source.

38. The flamingo constructs a cylindrical mud nest for its egg, which both parents care for it.

39. Due to persistent inbreeding, self-pollinating plants have genetically more uniform than cross-pollinated plants, which harbor more genetic variability.

40. Metaphysical philosophy is concerned with the principles, structures, and meaningful that underlie all observable reality.

Questions 1-9

The term "folk song" has been current for over a hundred years, but there is still a good deal of disagreement as to what it actually means. The definition provided by the International Folk Music Council states that folk music is the music of ordinary people, which is passed on from person to (5) person by being listened to rather than learned from the printed page. Other factors that help shape a folk song include: continuity (many performances over a number of years); variation (changes in words and melodies either through artistic interpretation or failure of memory); and selection (the acceptance of a song by the community in which it evolves).

(10) When songs have been subjected to these processes their origin is usually impossible to trace. For instance, if a farm laborer were to make up a song and sing it to a-couple of friends who like it and memorize it, possibly when the friends come to sing it themselves one of them might forget some of the words and make up new ones to fill the gap, while" the (15) other, perhaps more artistic, might add a few decorative touches to the tune and improve a couple of lines of text. If this happened a few times there would be many different versions, the song's original composer would be forgotten, and the song would become common property. This constant reshaping and re-creation is the essence of folk music. (20)Consequently, modem popular songs and other published music, even though widely sung by people who are not professional musicians, are not considered folk music. The music and words have been set by a printed or recorded source, limiting scope for further artistic creation. These songs' origins cannot be disguised and therefore they belong primarily to the (25)composer and not to a community.

The ideal situation for the creation of folk music is an isolated rural community. In such a setting folk songs and dances have a special purpose at every stage in a person's life, from childhood to death. Epic tales of heroic deeds, seasonal songs relating to calendar events, and occupational songs are also likely to be sung.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Themes commonly found in folk music

(B) Elements that define folk music

(C) Influences of folk music on popular music

(D) The standards of the International Folk Music Council

2. Which of the following statements about the term "folk song" is supported by the passage?

(A) It has been used for several centuries.

(B) The International Folk Music Council invented it.

(C) It is considered to be out-of-date.

(D) There is disagreement about its meaning.

3. The word "it" in line 9 refers to

(A) community

(B) song

(C) acceptance

(D) memory

4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a characteristic of the typical folk song?

(A) It is constantly changing over time.

(B) it is passed on to other people by being performed.

(C) It contains complex musical structures.

(D) It appeals to many people.

5. The word "subjected" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) reduced

(B) modified

(C) exposed

(D) imitated

6. The author mentions the farm laborer and his friends (lines 11-16) in order to do which of the following?

(A) Explain how a folk song evolves over time

(B) Illustrate the importance of music to rural workers

(C) Show how subject matter is selected for a folk song

(D) Demonstrate how a community, chooses a folk song

7. According to the passage, why would the original composers of folk songs be forgotten?

(A) Audiences prefer songs composed by professional musicians.

(B) Singers dislike the decorative touches in folk song tunes.

(C) Numerous variations of folk songs come to exist at the same time.

(D) Folk songs are not considered an important form of music.

8. The word "essence" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) basic nature

(B) growing importance

(C) full extent

(D) first phase

9. The author mentions that published music is not considered to be folk music because

(A) the original composer can be easily identified

(B) the songs attract only the young people in a community

(C) the songs are generally performed by professional singers

(D) the composers write the music in rural communities

Questions 10-20

Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear around them. Within the first month of their lives, babies' responses to the sound of the human voice will be different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli. They will stop crying (5)when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At first, the sounds that an infant notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest emphasis and that often occur at the ends of utterances. By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between syllables pronounced with rising and falling (10) inflections. Very soon, these differences in adult stress and intonation can influence babies' emotional states and behavior. Long before they develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is playful or angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of cues such as the rate, volume, and melody of (15) adult speech.

Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such cues. One researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in all six languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and nonsense sounds, and (20)transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have noted that when mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity of their words. They also exaggerate their facial expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words. More significant for language development than their (25)response to general intonation is observation that tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds. other words, babies enter the world with the ability to make precisely those perceptual discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language.

Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as (30)young as nine months they will listen to songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to prosaic meaning that it often is for adults.

10. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds

(B) The differences between a baby's and an adult's ability to comprehend language

(C) How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language development

(D) The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice

11. Why does the author mention a bell and a rattle in lines 4-5 ?

(A) To contrast the reactions of babies to human and nonhuman sounds

(B) To give examples of sounds that will cause a baby to cry

(C) To explain how babies distinguish between different nonhuman sounds

(D) To give examples of typical toys that babies do not like

12. Why does the author mention syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflections in lines 8-9?

(A) To demonstrate how difficult it is for babies to interpret emotions

(B) To illustrate that a six-week-old baby can already distinguish some language differences

(C) To provide an example of ways adults speak to babies

(D) To give a reason for babies' difficulty in distinguishing one adult from another

13. The word "diverse" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) surrounding

(B) divided

(C) different

(D) stimulating

14. The word "noted" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) theorized

(B) requested

(C) disagreed

(D) observed

15. The word "They" in line 22 refers to

(A) mothers

(B) investigators

(C) babies

(D) words

16. The passage mentions all of the following as ways adults modify their speech when talking to babies EXCEPT

(A) giving all words equal emphasis

(B) speaking with shorter sentences

(C) speaking more loudly than normal

(D) using meaningless sounds

17. The word "emphasize" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) stress

(B) repeat

(C) explain

(D) leave out

18. Which of the following can be inferred about the findings described in paragraph 2 ?

(A) Babies who are exposed to more than one language can speak earlier than babies exposed to a single language.

(B) Mothers from different cultures speak to their babies in similar ways.

(C) Babies ignore facial expressions in comprehending aural language.

(D) The mothers observed by the researchers were consciously teaching their babies to speak.

19. What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to acquire language?

(A) Babies begin to understand words in songs.

(B) Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions.

(C) Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults.

(D) Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds.

20. According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they cannot understand them?

(A) They understand the rhythm.

(B) They enjoy the sound.

(C) They can remember them easily.

(D) They focus on the meaning of their parents' words.

Questions 21-29

Under the Earth's topsoil, at various levels, sometimes under a layer of rock, there are deposits of clay. Look at cuts where highways have been built to see exposed clay beds; or look at a construction site, where pockets of clay may be exposed. Rivers also reveal clay Line along their banks, and erosion on a hillside may make clay easily accessible.

(6)   What is clay made of? The Earth's surface is basically rock, and it is this rock that gradually decomposes into clay. Rain, streams, alternating freezing and thawing, roots of trees and plants forcing their way into cracks, earthquakes, volcanic action, and glaciers--all of these forces slowly break down the Earth's exposed rocky crust into smaller and smaller pieces that eventually become clay.

(12) Rocks are composed of elements and compounds of elements. Feldspar, which is the most abundant mineral on the Earth's surface, is basically made up of the oxides silica and alumina combined with alkalies like potassium and some so-called impurities such as iron. Feldspar is an essential component of granite rocks, and as such it is the basis of clay. When it is wet, clay can be easily shaped to make a variety of useful objects, which can then be fired to varying degrees of hardness and covered with impermeable decorative coatings of glasslike material called glaze. Just as volcanic action, with its intense heat, fuses the elements in certain rocks into a glasslike rock called obsidian, so can we apply heat to earthen materials and change them into a hard, dense material. Different clays need different heat levels to fuse, and some, the low-fire clays, never become nonporous and watertight like highly fired stoneware. Each clay can stand only a certain amount of heat without losing its shape through sagging or melting. Variations of clay composition and the temperatures at (27)   which they are fired account for the differences in texture and appearance between a china teacup and an earthenware flowerpot.

21. The author's main point in paragraph 1 is that clay deposits

(A) conceal layers of rock

(B) can be found in various places

(C) are usually small

(D) must be removed from construction sites

22. It can be inferred from the passage that clay is LEAST likely to be plentiful in which of the following areas?

(A) In desert sand dunes

(B) In forests

(C) On hillsides

(D) Near rivers

23. The word "accessible" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) buried

(B) improved

(C) available

(D) workable

24. According to the passage, rock breaks down into clay under all of the following conditions EXCEPT when

(A) it is exposed to freezing and thawing

(B) roots of trees force their way into cracks

(C) it is combined with alkalies

(D) natural forces wear away the Earth's crust

25. Why does the author mention feldspar in line 14?

(A) It is often used as a substitute for clay.

(B) It is damaged by the oxides in clay.

(C) Its presence indicates inferior clay.

(D) It is a major component of clay.

26. The word "it" in line 16 refers to

(A) iron

(B) feldspar

(C) granite

(D) clay

27. Based on the information in the passage, it can be inferred that low-fire clays are MOST appropriate for making objects that

(A) must be strong

(B) can be porous

(C) have a smooth texture

(D) are highly decorated

28. The phrase "account for" in line 27 is closest in meaning to

(A) reduce

(B) explain

(C) combine with

(D) list all of

29. The passage supports which of the following conclusions?

(A) Clay deposits are only found deep in the Earth.

(B) If clay contains too much iron it will melt when fired.

(C) Only certain types of clay are appropriate for making china teacups.

(D) If sufficient heat is applied, all clay will become nonporous.

Questions 30-40

The smooth operation of an ant colony depends on ten to twenty different signals, most of which are pheromones (chemical signals triggering behavioral responses). It is estimated that red fire ants employ at least twelve different chemical signals. The simples of these is the carbon dioxide from the respiration of an ant cluster, a chemical that acts as a pheromone to promote aggregation. Workers move toward a source of carbon dioxide, resulting in solitary ants moving to join a group. At the other extreme, the most complex of the fire ants' signals is probably colony odor, by which the workers of a particular colony or nest identify another worker as local or foreign. Each ant nest has its own odor as a result of its location, history, and local food supply. The resident ants pick up this odor on their bodies, so that ants of the same species, but from different nests, have different colony odors. This allows ants to identify intruders and maintain colony integrity.

(15)  Fire ants also make use of an alarm pheromone to alert workers to an emergency, and their scouts lay down a trail pheromone as a guide during mass migrations. A fire ant queen emits a chemical signal that identifies her to the colony's workers. They respond by scurrying to gather around her. The decomposing corpse of a dead ant also generates a signal, to which workers respond by eliminating the corpse from the nest.

(21)  Ants provide examples of both public (accessible to other species) and private messages. One of their most important private messages concerns food, for a food source is worth keeping secret. Each species marks its trails with signals that are meaningless to others, so that an ant crossing a trail left by another ant species typically notices nothing.

(26)  On the other hand, a secret signal to mark a dead body is unnecessary. Many kinds of ants perceive a natural decomposition product of dead insects as a signal to remove a corpse. If an outsider recognizes this message and moves the body, no harm is done.

30. What aspect of ants does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The relationship between the queen and the worker ants

(B) Ways in which ants use chemical signals

(C) Methods ants use to identify food sources

(D) The importance of respiration in the production of ant pheromones

31. The phrase "smooth operation" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) daily activity

(B) effective functioning

(C) delicate balance

(D) permanent location

32. According to the passage, carbon dioxide serves which of the following functions for fire ants?

(A) It protects the queen.

(B) It attracts other ant species.

(C) It informs workers of possible danger.

(D) It encourages the ants to gather together.

33. The word "cluster" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) organ

(B) activity

(C) group

(D) cycle

34. According to the passage, each nest has a distinct odor that allows its inhabitants to

(A) find the location of the nest in the dark

(B) distinguish worker ants from other ants

(C) distinguish foreign ants from resident ants

(D) signal other inhabitants when foreign ants attack

35. The word "alert" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) allow

(B) transport

(C) ware

(D) provide

36. What is the role of pheromones in the mass migrations of ants?

(A) Pheromones are used to create a trail that directs the ants during migrations.

(B) Pheromones signal the ants that the nest has been invaded and must be abandoned.

(C) Pheromones control the speed at which ants move from one location to another.

(D) Pheromones enable scouts to identify suitable areas for establishing a new nest.

37. The word "scurrying" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) agreeing

(B) appearing

(C) competing

(D) rushing

38. The word "others" in line 24 refers to

(A) private messages

(B) species

(C) trails

(D) signals

39. Why does the author mention "dead insects" in line 28 ?

(A) To compare the social behaviors of ants with those of other insects

(B) To emphasize the dangers that all insects encounter

(C) To argue the superiority of ants over other insects

(D) To indicate a behavior that is common among various kinds of ants

40. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A) pheromones (line 2)

(B) colony integrity (lines 14)

(C) mass migrations (line 17)

(D) private messages (lines 22).

Questions 41-50

The Homestead Act of 1862 gave beads of families or individuals aged twenty-one or older the right to own 160 acres of public land in the western United States after five years of residence and improvement. This law was intended to provide land for small farmers and to prevent land from being bought for resale at a profit or being owned by large landholders. An early amendment to the act even prevented husbands and wives from filing separate claims. The West, land reformers had assumed, would soon contain many160-acre family farms.

(9)     They were doomed to disappointment. Most landless Americans were too poor to become farmers even when they could obtain land without cost. The expense of moving a family to the ever-receding frontier exceeded the means of many, and the cost of tools, draft animals, a wagon, a well, fencing, and of building the simplest house, might come to $1,000---a formidable barrier. As for the industrial workers for whom the free land was supposed to provide a "safety valve," they had neither the skills nor the inclination to become farmers. Homesteaders usually came from districts not far removed from frontier conditions. And despite the intent of the law, speculators often managed to obtain large tracts. They hired people to stake out claims, falsely swear that they had fulfilled the conditions laid down in the law for obtaining legal title, and then deed the land over to their employers.

(22)  Furthermore, 160 acres were not enough for raising livestock or for the kind of commercial agriculture that was developing west of the Mississippi. The national government made a feeble attempt to make larger holdings available to homesteaders by passing the Timber Culture Act of 1873, which permitted individuals to claim an additional 160 acres if they would agree to plant a quarter of it in trees within ten years. This law proved helpful to some farmers in the largely treeless states of Kansas, (25) Nebraska, and the Dakotas. Nevertheless, fewer than 25 percent of the 245,000 who took up land under the Act obtained final title to the property.

41. Which aspect of the Homestead Act of 1862 does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) How it transformed the western United States into a place of small farms

(B) Why it was an improvement over previous attempts at land reform

(C) Why it did not achieve its aim to provide land for small farmers

(D) How it failed in the largely treeless states of Kansas, Nebraska, and the Dakotas

42. An amendment added to the Homestead Act of 1862 specified that

(A) five years of residence was required for landownership

(B) husbands and wives could not file separate claims

(C) the price of 160 acres of land was $1,000

(D) land could not be resold for a profit

43. The word "formidable" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) obvious

(B) predictable

(C) difficult

(D) manageable

44. It can be inferred that the "safety valve" in line 15 refers to

(A) a new kind of machinery

(B) an alternative for urban workers

(C) an area in a factory

(D) a procedure designed to protect workers

45. The word "intent" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) purpose

(B) power

(C) effect

(D) invention

46. According to the passage, why did the government pass the Timber Culture Act of 1873 ?

(A) To make larger tracts of land available to small farmers

(B) To settle Kansas, Nebraska, and the Dakotas

(C) To encourage land speculation west of the Mississippi

(D) To increase the variety of trees growing in the western states

47. The word "they" in line 27 refers to

(A) larger holdings

(B) individuals

(C) 160 acres

(D) trees

48. According to the passage, how many of the farmers who settled land under the Timber Culture Act of 1873 received final title to the property?

(A) Fewer than 25%

(B) More than 160

(C) 10% per year

(D) 245,000

49. The passage mentions all of the following as reasons the Homestead Act of 1862 did not achieve its aims EXCEPT:

(A) Most landless Americans could not afford the necessary tools and provisions.

(B) Industrial workers lacked the necessary fanning skills.

(C) The farms were too large for single families to operate successfully.

(D) Homesteaders usually came from areas relatively close to the frontier.

50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the Timber Culture Act of 1873?

(A) It especially helped farmers with large holdings of land.

(B) It was most important to farmers living in states that had plenty of trees.

(C) The majority of farmers did not benefit significantly from it.

(D) The majority of farmers did not need the extra 160 acres it provided.

2002年08月语法题

1. Over the centuries, ____ that try to explain the origins of the university.

(A) although many theories

(B) many theories

(C) have many theories been

(D) there have been many theories

2. The planet Venus is almost exactly the same size and mass ____ Earth, with a similar interior, including a nickel-iron core.

(A) to

(B) as

(C) is

(D) than

3. George Washington Carver ____ international fame for revolutionizing agriculture research in the southern United States during the early twentieth century.

(A) won

(B) winning

(C) who has won

(D) the winner of

4. Constituting one of the earliest engineering techniques, ______ in Paleolithic time was done in order to extend natural caves.

(A) tunnels were built

(B) which built tunnels

(C) the building of tunnels

(D) tunnels whose building

5. The tulip tree is native to the eastern United States, _____ the tallest and largest broadleaf tree.

(A) where

(B) where it is

(C) it is where

(D) is where

6. Elementary schools in the United states provide formal education ___ arithmetic, science, social science, and communication skills that including reading, writing, spelling, and speaking.

(A) such subjects as basic in

(B) as basic subjects in such

(C) in such basic subjects as

(D) as in such basic subjects

7. ______ land and money enabled construction of the Union Pacific railroad to begin from Council Bluffs, Iowa, in 1865.

(A) By the government granting of

(B) Government grants of

(C) For the government to grant

(D) Government grants so that

8. Appointments to the United States Supreme Court and all lower federal courts ____ by the President with the advice and consent of the Senate.

(A) making

(B) to make

(C) are made

(D) have made

9. The name “squirrel” is commonly used for those forms of the family Sciuridae that live in trees, _____ it is equally accurate for ground dwelling types.

(A) whether

(B) that

(C) although

(D) in spite of

10. Green plants combine _____ with water and carbon dioxide to make food.

(A) energy derived from light

(B) energy, derived it from light

(C) energy is derived from light

(D) from light, and energy derived

11. From the archeologist’s perspective, understanding the past is vitally important and requires ______ of earlier cultures.

(A) the ruins examined

(B) examining the ruins

(C) of the ruins to be examined

(D) that the examined ruins

12. The Texas Legislature selected Vassar Miller _____ in 1982, and again in 1988.

(A) was the state’s poet laureate

(B) as the state’s poet laureate

(C) the state’s poet laureate

(D) become the state’s poet laureate

13. The distinguishing feature of a fluid, in contrast to a solid, is the ease _____ .

(A) that a deformed fluid

(B) to deform a fluid

(C) when a fluid that is deformed

(D) with which a fluid may be deformed

14. Oxygen and nutrients reach the body’s tissues ____ from the blood through the capillary wall.

(A) pass

(B) by passing

(C) to be passing

(D) have passed

15. _____ important development of the Neolithic age was not in the manufacture of stone tools but in the production of food.

(A) The most

(B) Most

(C) Most of

(D) Of the most

16. By 1899 Ransom olds had establish in Detroit, Michigan, the first factory in the United States for the manufacture of automobiles.

17. The progressive Movement is an umbrella tern refer to a number of reform efforts that emerged in the early 1900’s.

18. The pelican is a water bird with a large pouch attached to its bill, which it uses as a scoop for catch small fish.

19. The invention of reinforced concrete, plate glass, and steel in the mid-1800’s was enabled architects to design and build extremely tall constructions, or “skyscrapers.”

20. Acoustics, the study of sounds, is one of the oldest of the physically sciences.

21. Each of functions of the body, even thinking, requires the expenditure of energy.

22. Gourds were introduced to what is now the southwestern United States by earliest peoples who migrated north from Mesoamerica about 7000 years ago.

23. The economic heart of Canada, Ontario accounts for more than 40 percentage of the nation’s productive capacity.

24. Virtually all parts moving of an automobile need to be lubricated because, without lubrication, friction would increase power consumption and damage the parts.

25. Rarely has a technological development had as great an impact on society as the rapid grow of electronics.

26. The North American Review, a magazine was first published in 1815, was one of the leading literary journals of the past woe centuries.

27. Fuel is any substance or material that reacts chemically with another substance or material to produce hot.

28. Glint was a favored material of prehistoric humans, which used it to make tools and weapons, because it would chip into shapes with sharp edges.

29. Mutiny of a ship’s crew against the captain signifies the breakdown of the obedience and discipline required to deal effectively to perils at eat.

30. Of all the art-related reference and research library in North America, that of the Metropolitan Museum of a Art in New York City is among the largest and most complete.

31. Acclimatization is the process by which an organism adjusts to living in an environment to which it normally unsuited.

32. Glaciers, mass of ice that flow outward from ice caps, cover about one-tenth of earth’s land area.

33. Some species of bacteria and fungi thrive on such simply compounds as alcohol.

34. In 1923 Alice Paul began campaign to promote the adoption of an amendment to the United States Constitution mandating equal rights for women.

35. Perhaps more than any other United States city, San Francisco is a collection of neighborhood.

36. Almost every the hereditary material of an individual organism resides in the chromosomes.

37. Only with early seventeenth-century observers did the music of the original inhabitants of the United States and Canada entered recorded history.

38. Perhaps the most distinctive features of sharks and undoubtedly one of the most important reasons for their success is their well-developed sensory system.

39. The major economic activities of Cheyenne, Wyoming, include transportation, chemicals, tourism, but governmental activities.

40. The fiction writer, poetry, and critic Edgar Allan Poe is among the most familiar of American writers and one of the most enigmatic.

Question 1-9

Often enough the craft worker’s place of employment in ancient Greece was set in rural isolation. Potter, for instance, found it convenient to locate their workshops near their source of clay, regardless of its relation to the center of settlement, At Corinth and Athens, however, two (5) of the best-known potters’ quarters were situated on the cities’ outskirts, and potters and makers of terra-cotta figurines were also established well within the city of Athens itself. The techniques of pottery manufacture had evolved well before the Greek period, but marked stylistic developments occurred in shape and in decoration, for example, in (10) the interplay of black and other glazes with the red surface of the fired pot. Athenian black-figure and red-figure decoration, which emphasized human figures rather than animal images, was adopted between 630 and 530 B.C.  its distinctive color and luster were the result of the skillful adjustments of the kiln’s temperature during an extended three-stage (15)period if firing the clayware. Whether it was the potters or the vase-painters who initiated changes in firing is unclear; the functions of making and decorating were usually divided between them, but neither group can have been so specialized the they did not share in the concerns of the other.

(20) The broad utility of terra-cotta was such that workers in clay could generally afford to confine themselves to either decorated ware and housewares like cooking pots and storage Jars or building materials like roof tiles and drainpipes. Some sixth-and fifth-century B.C. Athenian pottery establishments are known to have concentrated on a limited range (25) of fine ware, but a rural pottery establishment on the island of Thasos produced many types of pottery and roof tiles too, presumably to meet local demand. Molds were used to create particular effects for some products, such as relief-decorated vessels and figurines; for other products such as roof tiles, which were needed in some quantity, they were used to (30) facilitate mass production. There were also a number of poor-quality figurines and painted pots produced in quantity by easy, inexpensive means- as numerous featureless statuettes and unattractive cases testify.

1. The passage mainly discusses ancient Greek pottery and its

(A) production techniques

(B) similarity to other crafts

(C) unusual materials

(D) resemblance to earlier pottery

2. The phrase “regardless of” in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) as a result of

(B) no matter what

(C) proud of

(D) according to

3. It can be inferred from the passage that most pottery establishments in ancient Greece were situated

(A) in city centers

(B) on the outskirts of cities

(C) where clay could be found

(D) near other potters’ workshops

4. The word “marked” in line 8 is closest in  meaning to

(A) original

(B) attractive

(C) noticeable

(D) patterned

5. The word “confine” in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) adapt

(B) train

(C) restrict

(D) organize

6. It can be inferred from the passage that terra-cotta had which of the following advantages”

(A) It did not break during the firing process.

(B) It was less expensive than other available materials.

(C) Its surface had a lasting shine.

(D) It could be used for many purposes.

7. The word “presumably” in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) frequently

(B) practically

(C) preferably

(D) probably

8. The word “they” in line 29 refers to

(A) molds

(B) particular effects

(C) products

(D) vessels and figurines

9. According to the passage, all of the following are true of ancient Greek potters and vase painters

EXCEPT:

(A) Their functions were so specialized that they lacked common concerns.

(B) They sometimes produced inferior ware.

(C) They produced pieces that had unusual color and shine.

(D) They decorated many of their works with human images.

Question 10-19

Geographers say that what defines a place are four properties: soil, climate, altitude, and aspect, or attitude to the Sun. Florida’s ancient scrub demonstrates this principle. Its soil is pure silica, so barren it supports only lichens as ground cover. (It does, however, sustain a sand-swimming lizard (5) that cannot live where there is moisture or plant matter the soil.) Its climate, despite more than 50 inches of annual rainfall, is blistering desert plant life it can sustain is only the xerophytic, the quintessentially dry. Its altitude is a mere couple of hundred feet, but it is high ground on a peninsula elsewhere close to sea level, and its drainage is so critical that a (10) difference of inches in elevation can bring major changes in its plant communities. Its aspect is flat, direct, brutal—and subtropical.

Florida’s surrounding lushness cannot impinge on its desert scrubbiness.

This does not sound like an attractive place. It does not look much like (15) one either; Shrubby little oaks, clumps of scraggly bushes, prickly pear, thorns, and tangles. “It appear Said one early naturalist,” to desire to display the result of the misery through which it has Passed and is passing.” By our narrow standards, scrub is not beautiful; neither does it meet our selfish utilitarian needs. Even the name is an epithet, a synonym (20) for the stunted, the scruffy, the insignificant, what is beautiful about such a place?

The most important remaining patches of scrub lie along the Lake Wales Ridge, a chain of paleoislands running for a hundred miles down the center of Florida, in most places less than ten miles wide. It is relict (25) seashore, tossed up millions of years ago when ocean levels were higher and the rest of the peninsula was submerged. That ancient emergence is precisely what makes Lake Wales Ridge so precious: it has remained unsubmerged, its ecosystems essentially undisturbed, since the Miocene era. As a result, it has gathered to itself one of the largest (30)collections of rare organisms in the world. Only about 75 plant species survive there, but at least 30 of these are found nowhere else on Earth.

10. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) How geographers define a place

(B) The characteristics of Florida’s ancient scrub

(C) An early naturalist’s opinion of Florida

(D)The history of the Lake Wales Ridge

11. The author mentions all of the following as factors that define a place EXCEPT

(A) aspect

(B) altitude

(C) soil

(D) life-forms

12. It can be inferred from the passage that soil composed of silica

(A) does not hold moisture

(B) is found only in Florida

(C) nourishes many kinds of ground cover

(D) provides food for many kinds of lizards

13. The word “sustain” in line 7 is closets in meaning to

(A) select

(B) strain

(C) support

(D) store

14. The author mentions the prickly pear (line 15) as an example of

(A) valuable fruit-bearing plants of the scrub area

(B) unattractive plant life of the scrub area

(C) a pant discovered by an early naturalist

(D) plant life that is extremely are

15. The author suggests that human standards of beauty are

(A) tolerant

(B) idealistic

(C) defensible

(D) limited

16. The word “insignificant” in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) unimportant

(B) undisturbed

(C) immature

(D) inappropriate

17. According to the passage, why is the Lake Wales Ridge valuable?

(A) It was originally submerged in the ocean.

(B) It is less than ten miles wide.

(C) It is located near the seashore.

(D) It has ecosystems that have long remained unchanged

18. The word “it” in line 29 refer to

(A) Florida

(B) the peninsula

(C) the Lake Wales Ridge

(D) the Miocene era

19. The passage probably continues with a discussion of

(A) ancient scrub found in other areas of the country

(B) geographers who study Florida’s scrub

(C) the climate of the Lake Wales Ridge

(D) the unique plants found on the Lake Wales Ridge

Question 20-30

It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish. The exact causes of a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change (5)may render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be able to adapt. Food resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, (10) ultimately, in the death of a species.

The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time—a mass extinction. One of the best-known examples of mass extinction occurred (15) 65 million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago, When approximately 95 percent of all species died, Mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many (20) species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction.

One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during (25) the past 250 million years have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the Earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated tat extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no (30) particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.

20. The word “it” in line 3 refers to

(A) environment

(B) species

(C) extinction

(D) 99 percent

21. The word “ultimately” in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) exceptionally

(B) dramatically

(C) eventually

(D) unfortunately

22. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history

(A) They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms.

(B) They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.

(C) They have caused rapid change in the environment.

(D) They are no longer in existence.

23. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change?

(A) Temperature changes

(B) Availability of food resources

(C) Introduction of new species

(D) Competition among species

24. The word “demise” in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) change

(B) recovery

(C) help

(D) death

25. Why is “plankton” mentioned in line 21?

(A) To demonstrate the interdependence of different species

(B) To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction.

(C) To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in the ocean

(D) To point out that certain species could never become extinct.

26. According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that

(A) extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history.

(B) Extinctions on Earth have generally been massive

(C) there has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history.

(D) dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed.

27. The word “finding” in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) published information

(B) research method

(C) ongoing experiment

(D) scientific discovery

28. Which of the following can be in

(A) Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it

(B) evidence to support the theory has recently been found.

(C) The theory is no longer seriously considered.

(D) Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate.

29. In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species’ survival?

(A) It reflects the interrelationship of may species.

(B) It may depend on chance events.

(C) It does not vary greatly from species to species

(D) It is associated with astronomical conditions.

30. According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of a species occurred

(A) 26 million years ago

(B) 65 million years ago

(C) 225 million years ago

(D) 250 million years ago

Question 30-40

Because the low latitudes of the Earth, the areas near the equator, receive more heat than the latitudes near the poles, and because the nature of heat is to expand and move, Heat is transported from the tropics to the middle and high latitudes. Some of this heat is moved by winds and some (5) by ocean currents, and some gets stored in the atmosphere in the form of latent heat. The term “latent heat” refers to the energy that has to be used to convert liquid water to water vapor. We know that if we warm a pan of water on a stove, it will evaporate, or turn into vapor, faster than if it is allowed to sit at room temperature. We also know that if we hang wet (10) clothes outside in the summertime they will dry faster than in winter, when temperatures are colder. The energy used in both cases to change liquid water to water vapor is supplied by heat—supplied by the stove in the first case and by the Sun in the latter case. This energy is not lost. It is stored in water vapor in the atmosphere as latent heat. Eventually, the (15)water stored as vapor in the atmosphere will condense to liquid again, and the energy will be released to the atmosphere.

In the atmosphere, a large portion of the Sun’s incoming energy is used to evaporate water, primarily in the tropical oceans. Scientists have tried to quantify this proportion of the Sun’s energy. By analyzing (20)temperature, water vapor, and wind data around the globe, they have estimated the quantity to be about 90 watts per square meter, or nearly 30 percent of the Sun’s energy. Once this latent heat is stored within the atmosphere, it can be transported, primarily to higher latitudes, by prevailing, large-scale winds. Or it can be transported vertically to higher (25) levels in the atmosphere, where it forms clouds and subsequent storms, which then release the energy back to the atmosphere.

31. The passage mainly discusses how heat

(A) is transformed and transported in the Earth’s atmosphere

(B) is transported by ocean currents

(C) can be measured and analyzed by scientists

(D) moves about the Earth’s equator

32. The passage mentions that the tropics differ from the Earth’s polar regions in which of the following ways?

(A) The height of cloud formation in the atmosphere

(B) The amount of heat they receive from the Sun

(C) The strength of their largescale winds.

(D) The strength of their oceanic currents

33. The word “convert” line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) mix

(B) change

(C) adapt

(D) reduce

34. Why does the author mention “the stove” in line 12?

(A) To describe the heat of the Sun

(B) To illustrate how water vapor is stored

(C) To show how energy is stored

(D) To give an example of a heat source

35. According to the passage, most ocean water evaporation occurs especially

(A) around the higher latitudes

(B) in the tropics

(C) because of large-scale winds

(D) because of strong ocean currents

36. According to the passage, 30 percent of the Sun’s incoming energy

(A) is stored in clouds in the lower latitudes

(B) is transported by ocean currents

(C) never leaves the upper atmosphere

(D) gets stored as latent heat

37. The word “it” in line 23 refers to

(A) square meter

(B) the Sun’s energy

(C) latent heat

(D) the atmosphere

38. The word “primarily” in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) chiefly

(B) originally

(C) basically

(D) clearly

39. The word “prevailing” in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) essential

(B) dominant

(C) circular

(D) closest

40. All of the following words are defined in the passage EXCEPT

(A) low latitudes (line 1)

(B) latent heat (line 6)

(C) evaporate (line 8)

(D) atmosphere (line17)

Question 41-50

The Moon, which has undergone a distinct and complex geological history, presents a striking appearance. The moon may be divided into two major terrains: the maria (dark lowlands) and the terrace (bright highlands). The contrast in the reflectivity (the capability of reflecting light) of these two terrains suggested to many early observers that the two terrains might have different compositions, and this supposition was confirmed by missions to the Moon such as Surveyor and Apollo. One of the most obvious differences between the terrains is the smoothness of the maria in contrast to the roughness of the highlands. This roughness is (10)mostly caused by the abundance of craters; the highlands are completely covered by large craters (greater than 40-50 km in diameter), while the craters of the maria tend to be much smaller. It is now known that the vast majority of the Moon’s craters were formed by the impact of solid bodies with the lunar surface.

(15) Most of the near side of the Moon was thoroughly mapped and studied from telescopic pictures years before the age of space exploration. Earth-based telescopes can resolve objects as small as a few hundred meters on the lunar surface. Close observation of craters, combined with the way the Moon diffusely reflects sunlight, led to the understanding that (20) the Moon is covered by a surface layer, or regolith, that overlies the solid rock of the Moon. Telescopic images permitted the cataloging of a bewildering array of land forms. Craters were studied for clues to their origin; the large circular maria were seen. Strange, sinuous features were observed in the maria. Although various land forms were catalogued, the majority of astronomers’ attention was fixed on craters and their origins.

(26) Astronomers have known for a fairly long time that the shape of craters changes as they increase in size. Small craters with diameters of less than 10-15 km have relatively simple shapes. They have rim crests that are elevated above the surrounding terrain, smooth, bowl-shaped interiors, and depths that are about one-fifth to one-sixth their diameters. The complexity of shape increases for larger craters.

41. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) What astronomers learned from the Surveyor and Apollo space missions

(B) Characteristics of the major terrains of the Moon

(C) The origin of the Moon’s craters

(D) Techniques used to catalogue the Moon’s land forms

42. The word “undergone” in line1 is closest in meaning to

(A) altered

(B) substituted

(C) experienced

(D) preserved

43. According to the passage, the maria differ from the terrace mainly in terms of

(A) age

(B) manner of creation

(C) size

(D) composition

44. The passage supports which of the following statements about the Surveyor and Apollo missions?

(A) They confirmed earlier theories about the Moon’s surface.

(B) They revealed that previous ideas about the Moon’s craters were incorrect.

(C) They were unable to provide detailed information about the Moon’s surface.

(D) They were unable to identify how the Moon’s craters were made.

45. The word “vast” in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) special

(B) known

(C) varied

(D) great

46. All of the following are true of the maria EXCEPT:

(A) They have small craters.

(B) They have been analyzed by astronomers.

(C) They have a rough texture.

(D) They tend to be darker than the terrace.

47. All of the following terms are defined in the passage EXCEPT

(A) Moon (line1)

(B) reflectivity (line 4)

(C) regolith (line 20)

(D) array (line 22)

48. The author mentions “wispy marks” in line 23 as an example of

(A)  an aspect of the lunar surface discovered through lunar missions

(B)  a characteristic of large craters

(C)  a discovery made through the use of Earth-based telescopes

(D) features that astronomers observed to be common to Earth and the Moon

49. According to the passage, lunar researchers have focused mostly on

(A) the possibility of finding water on the Moon

(B) the lunar regolith

(C) cataloging various land formations

(D) craters and their origins

50. The passage probably continues with a discussion of

(A) the reasons craters are difficult to study

(B) the different shapes small craters can have

(C) some features of large craters

(D) some difference in the ways small and large craters were formed

2002年09月语法题

1. Many scientists believe __ as a result of a collision between the newly formed Earth and a large asteroid.

A. that the Moon was formed

B. in that the Moon was formed

C. that the Moon formed was

D. when the Moon was formed

2. The organ-pipe cactus is _____ in the United States.

A. Rare that

B. It rare

C. so that rare

D. rare

3. Willa Cather,_____, gained recognition for her books concerning the American frontier.

A. a novelist and Pulitzer prizewinning

B. a Pulitzer prizewinning novelist

C. a Pulitzer prizewinning novelist who

D. was a PUlitzer prizewinning novelist

4. The average wavelength of visible light is 2,000 times _____ the diameter of an atom.

A. much as

B. as great

C. greater than

D. more than that

5. __ ants live in nests, which may be located in the ground, under a rock, or built above ground and may be made of twigs, sand, or gravel.

A. Most

B. The most of

C. Most of

D. Of the most

6. The banking systems of the world have many similarities, _____ they also differ, sometimes in quite material respects.

A. of which

B. in spite of

C. but

D. how

7. Learning that takes place in infancy provides the____ for the eventual transformation of a child into an adult.

A. foundation is necessary

B. necessary foundation is

C. necessary in the foundation

D. foundation necessary

8. In the late 1930’s and early 1940’s, Jacob Lawrence created many paintings _____ the lives of famous African American activists.

A. portrayed

B. portrayed them

C. that they portrayed

D. that portrayed

9. The Centennial Exposition, _____ in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania, in 1876, celebrated the one-hundredth anniversary of the Declaration of Independence.

A. was held

B. to be held

C. held

D. by holding

10. In the dark abyss of the deep sea _____ is produced by luminescent fish.

A. because the only light

B. the only light

C. the only light that

D. is the only light

11. classic American novel Moby Dick____ an account of the conflict between human beings and their fate.

A. may be regarded as

B. as may be regarded

C. regarded as may be

D. regarded may as be

12. In the metals industry, hydrogen is used to prevent metals from tarnishing while undergoing _____.

A. treated by heat

B. heat treatments

C. by heat treatments

D. heat-treated

13. （暂缺）

14. （暂缺）

15. （暂缺）

16. The Executive Mansion, constructed in the 1790’s and now popularly called the White House, is oldest public edifice in Washington, D.C.

17. Inventor Elisha Graves Otis designed the first elevator that it incorporated an automatic brake, which in turn led to the development of the skyscraper.

18. Although the term “corrosion” applies mostly to metals and particularly to their reaction to oxygen, all material are subject to surface deterioration.

19. The chief commercial source of bromine is ocean water, from what the element is extracted by means of chemical replacement by chlorine.

20. Like Jupiter and Earth, Saturn is flattened at a poles.

21. All living things are made up of one or more cells, and each of these cells were produced by an already existing cell.

22. It is believed that some dinosaurs were intelligent, ability to perform complex activities, and perhaps even capable of social behavior.

23. Unique among bivalves, scallops swim extremely well, propelled by jets of water expelled while snapped the shell shut.

24. In the period between 1918 and 1939, various political, economic, and geographic factors combined in determine the extent to which a country developed civil aviation.

25. The main attractive at Sequoia National Park is thirty-five groves of giant sequoias, the largest living things in the world.

26. In films, optical printing can be combined with blue-screen photography for produce such special effects as characters seeming to fly through the air.

27. The developed countries of the world are using up valuable resources at a rate unprecedented human history.

28. An activist for women’s rights, Leonora O’Reilly promoted women’s vocational training besides fought for increased wages for garment workers.

29. Cameras of one type or another have been using for more than a hundred years.

30. Electricity is the phenomenon associated with positively and negatively particles charged of matter at rest and in motion, either individually or in great numbers.

31. Air, which it is a mixture of elements oxygen and nitrogen and compounds water and carbon dioxide, also contains small quantities of many other substances.

32. The planets far from the Sun are so remote from any heat source that their temperatures are thought to be much near absolute zero.

33. Some claim that vegetarian diets may to be more healthful than a diet that includes meat, since they generally contain less fat and more fiber.

34—40 暂缺

Question 1-10

Hunting is at best a precarious way of procuring food, even when the diet is supplemented with seeds and fruits. Not long after the last Ice Age, around 7,000 B.C. (during the Neolithic period), some hunters and gatherers began to rely chiefly on agriculture for their sustenance. Others (5) continued the old pastoral and nomadic ways. Indeed, agriculture itself evolved over the course of time, and Neolithic peoples had long known how to grow crops. The real transformation of human life occurred when huge numbers of people began to rely primarily and permanently on the grain they grew and the animals they domesticated.

(10) Agriculture made possible a more stable and secure life. With it Neolithic peoples flourished, fashioning an energetic, creative era. They were responsible for many fundamental inventions and innovations that the modern world takes for granted. First, obviously, is systematic agriculture---that is, the reliance of Neolithic peoples on agriculture as their primary, not merely subsidiary, source of food.

(16) Thus they developed the primary economic activity of the entire ancient world and the basis of all modern life. With the settled routine of Neolithic farmers came the evolution of towns and eventually cities. Neolithic farmers usually raised more food than they could consume, and (20) their surpluses permitted larger, healthier populations. Population growth in turn created an even greater reliance on settled farming, as only systematic agriculture could sustain the increased numbers of people. Since surpluses o food could also be bartered for other commodities, the Neolithic era witnessed the beginnings of large-scale exchange of goods. (25) In time the increasing complexity of Neolithic societies led to the development of writing, prompted by the need to keep records and later by the urge to chronicle experiences, learning, and beliefs.

The transition to settled life also had a profound impact on the family. The shared needs and pressures that encourage extended-family ties are (30) less prominent in settled than in nomadic societies. Bonds to the extended family weakened. In towns and cities, the nuclear family was more dependent on its immediate neighbors than on kinfolk.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A). Why many human societies are dependent on agriculture

B). the changes agriculture brought to human life

C). How Neolithic peoples discovered agriculture

D). Why the first agricultural societies failed

2. The word "precarious" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

A). uncertain

B). humble

C). worthy

D). unusual

3. The author mentions "seeds and fruits" in line 2 as examples of

A). the first crops cultivated by early agricultural societies

B). foods eaten by hunters and gatherers as a secondary food source

C). types of food that hunters and gatherers lacked in their diets

D). the most common foods cultivated by early agricultural societies

4. The word "settled" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

A). advanced

B). original

C). involved

D). stable

5. According to the passage, agricultural societies produced larger human populations because agriculture

A). created more varieties of food

B). created food surpluses

C).  resulted in increases in leisure time

D). encouraged bartering

6. According to the passage, all of the following led to the development of writing EXCEPT the

A). need to keep records

B). desire to write down beliefs

C). extraction of ink from plants

D). growth of social complexity

7. The word "chronicle" in line 27 is closest in meaning to

A). repeat

B). exchange

C). understand

D). describe

8.  According to the passage, how did the shift to agricultural societies impact people's family relationships?

A). the extended family became less important.

B). Immediate neighbors often became family members.

C). the nuclear family became self-sufficient.

D). Family members began to wok together to raise food.

9. The author mentions all of the following as results of the shift to agricultural societies EXCEPT

A). an increase in invention and innovation

B). emergence of towns and cities

C).  development of a system of trade

D). a decrease in warfare

10. Which of the following is true about the human diet prior to the Neolithic period?

A). It consisted mainly of agricultural products

B). It varied according to family size.

C). It was based on hunting and gathering.

D). It was transformed when large numbers of people no longer depended on the grain they grew themselves.

Question 11-21

In the North American colonies, red ware, a simple pottery fired at low temperatures, and stone ware, a strong, impervious grey pottery fired at high temperatures, were produced from two different native clays. These kind of pottery were produced to supplement imported European pottery. (5) When the American Revolution (1775-1783) interrupted the flow of the superior European ware, there was incentive for American potters to replace the imports with comparable domestic goods. Stoneware, which had been simple, utilitarian kitchenware, grew increasingly ornate throughout the nineteenth century, and in addition to the earlier scratched (10) and drawn designs, three-dimensional  molded relief decoration became popular. Representational motifs largely replaced the earlier abstract decorations. Birds and flowers were particularly evident, but other subjects---lions,  flags, and clipper ships--- are found. Some figurines, mainly of dogs and lions, were made in this medium. Sometimes a name, usually that of the potter, was die-stamped onto a piece.

(16) As more and more large kilns were built to create the high-fired stoneware, experiments revealed that the same clay used to produce low-fired red ware could produce a stronger, paler pottery if fired at a hotter temperature. The result was yellow ware, used largely for serviceable (20)items; but a further development was Rockingham ware--- one of the most important American ceramics of the nineteenth century. (The name of the ware was probably derived from its resemblance to English brown-glazed earthenware made in South Yorkshire.) It was created by adding a brown glaze to the fired clay, usually giving the finished product a mottled (25) appearance. Various methods of spattering or sponging the glaze onto the ware account for the extremely wide variations in color and add to the interest of collecting Rockingham. An advanced form of Rockingham was flint enamel, created by dusting metallic powders onto the Rockingham glaze to produce brilliant varicolored streaks.

(30) Articles for nearly every household activity and ornament could be bought in Rockingham ware: dishes and bowls, of course; also bedpans, foot warmers, cuspidors, lamp bases, doorknobs, molds, picture frames, even curtain tiebacks. All these items are highly collectible today and are eagerly sought. A few Rockingham specialties command particular affection among collectors and correspondingly high prices.

11. Why did the potters discussed in the passage change the kind of pottery they made?

A). They discovered a new kind of clay.

B). They were compensation for the loss of an overseas supplier.

C). They studied new techniques in Europe

D). The pottery they had been producing was not very strong.

12. The word "ornate" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

A). elaborate

B). puzzling

C). durable

D). common

13. The passage suggests that the earliest stoneware

A). was decorated with simple, abstract designs

B). used three-dimensional  decorations

C). was valued for its fancy decorations

D). had no decoration

14. How did yellow ware achieve its distinctive color?

A). By sponging on a glaze

B). By dusting on metallic powders

C). By brown-glazing

D). By firing at a high temperature

15. The phrase "derived from" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

A). ruined by

B). warned against

C). based on

D). sold by

16. The word "It" in line 23 refers to

A). red ware

B). yellow ware

C). Rockingham ware

D). English brown-glazed earthenware

17. The word “Various" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

A). complicated

B). accepted

C). careful

D). different

18. The phrase "account for" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

A). explain

B). restrict

C). finance

D). supplement

19. What was special about flint enamel?

A). Its even metallic shine

B). Its mottled appearance

C). Its spattered effect

D). Its varicolored streaks

20. Which of the following kinds of Rockingham ware were probably produced in the greatest quantity?

A). Picture frames

B). Dishes and bowls

C). Curtain tiebacks

D). Doorknobs

21. The passage would most probably continue with a discussion of

A). what bedpans, foot warmers, and cuspidors were used for

B). well-known, modern-day potters who make Rockingham ware

C). examples of Rockingham ware that collectors especially want

D). pieces of Rockingham ware that are inexpensive in today's market

Question 22-31

Archaeological discoveries have led some scholars to believe that the first Mesopotamian inventors of writing may have been a people the later Babylonians called Siberians. According to tradition, they came from the north and moved into Uruk in the south. By about 3100B.C, They were (5)apparently subjugated in southern Mesopotamia by the Sumerians, whose name became synonymous with the region immediately north of the Persian Gulf, in the fertile lower valleys of the Tigris and Euphrates. Here the Sumerians were already well established by the year 3000B.C. They had invented bronze, an alloy that could be cast in molds, out of which (10) they made tools and weapons. They lived in cities, and they had begun to acquire and use capital. Perhaps most important, the Sumerians adapted writing (probably from the Siberians) into a flexible tool of communication.

Archaeologists have known about the Sumerians for over 150 years. (15) Archaeologists working at Nineveh in northern Mesopotamia in the mid-nineteenth century found many inscribed clay tablets. Some they could decipher because the language was a Semitic one (Akkadian), on which scholars had already been working for a generation. But other tablets were inscribed in another language that was not Semitic and (20)previously unknown. Because these inscriptions mad reference to the king of Sumer and Akkad, a scholar suggested that the mew language be called Sumerian.

But it was not until the 1890's that archaeologists excavating in city-states well to the south o f Nieveh found many thousands of tablets (25)inscribed in Sumerian only. Because the Akkadians thought of Sumerian as a classical language (as ancient Greek and Latin are considered today), they taught it to educated persons and they inscribed vocabulary, translation exercised, and other study aids on tablets. Working from known Akkadian to previously unknown Sumerian, scholars since (30)the 1890's have learned how to read the Sumerian language moderately well. Vast quantities of tablets in Sumerian have been unearthed during the intervening years from numerous sites.

22. According to the passage, the inventors of written language in Mesopotamia were probably the

A). Babylonians

B). Siberians

C). Acadians

D). Sumerians

23. The word "subjugated" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

A). distinguished

B). segregated

C). Concentrated

D). conquered

24. The phrase "synonymous with" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

A). equivalent to

B). important for

C). respected in

D). familiar with

25. According to the passage, by the year 3000 B.C. the Sumerians had already done all of the following EXCEPT:

A). They had abandoned the area north of the Persian Gulf.

B). They had established themselves in cities.

C). They had started to communicate through

D). They had created bronze tools and weapons.

26. The word "some" in line 16 refers to

A). Archaeologists

B). Sumerians

C). years

D). clay tablets

27. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage concerning the Sumerians?

A). They were descendants of the Persians.

B). They were the first people to cultivate the valley of the Tigris.

C). They were accomplished musicians.

D). They had the beginnings of an economy.

28. According to the passage, when did archaeologists begin to be able to understand tablets inscribed in Sumerian?

A). In the early nineteenth century

B). More than 150 years ago

C). After the 1890's

D). In the mid-eighteenth century

29. According to the passage, in what way did the Sumerian language resemble ancient Greek and Latin?

A). It was invented in Mesopotamia.

B). It became well established around 3000 B.C.

C). It became a classical language.

D). It was used exclusively for business transactions.

30. The word "excavating" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

A). Living

B). digging

C). assembling

D). building

31. According to the passage, how did archaeologists learn to read the Sumerian language?

A). By translating the work of the Siberians

B). By using their knowledge of spoken Semitic languages

C). By comparing Sumerian to other classical languages

D). By using their knowledge of Acadian

Question 32-40

Generally, in order to be preserved in the fossil record, organisms must possess hard body parts such as shells or bones. Soft, fleshy structures are quickly destroyed by predators pr decayed by bacteria. Even hard parts left on the surface for and length of time will be destroyed (5)Therefore, organisms must be buried rapidly to escape destruction by the elements and to be protected agents of weathering and erosion Marine organisms thus are better candidates for fossilization than those living on the land because the ocean is typically the site of sedimentation, whereas the land is largely the site of erosion.

(10) The beds of ancient lakes were also excellent sites for rapid burial of skeletal remains of freshwater organisms and skeletons of other animals, including those of early humans Ancient swamps were particularly plentiful with prolific growths of vegetation, which fossilized in abundance. Many animals became trapped in bogs overgrown by (15)vegetation. The environment of the swamps kept bacterial decay to a minimum, which greatly aided in the preservation of plants and animals. The rapidly accumulating sediments in flood plains, deltas, and stream channels buried freshwater organisms, along with other plants and animals that happened to fall into the water.

(20) Only a small fraction of all the organisms that have ever lived are preserved as fossils. Normally, the remains of a plant or animal are completely destroyed through predation and decay. Although it seems that fossilization is common for some organisms, for others it is almost impossible. For the most part, the remains of organisms are recycled in the (25) earth, which is fortunate because otherwise soil and water would soon become depleted of essential nutrients. Also, most of the fossils exposed on Earth’s surface are destroyed by weathering processes. This makes for an incomplete fossil record with poor or no representation of certain species.

The best fossils are those composed of unaltered remains. Generally, it (30) is the inorganic hard parts, composed mostly of calcium carbonate, that form the vast majority of unaltered fossils. Calcite and aragonite also contributed to a substantial number of fossils of certain organisms.

32. According to the passage, an organism without hard body parts

(A) is not likely to appear in the fossil record

B). is not heavy enough to sink below the surface

C). is not attractive to predators

D). takes a long time to decay

33. The word "agents" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

A). dangers

B). examples

C). areas

D). causes

34. Why are marine organisms good candidates for fossilization?

A). they have more fleshy structures than land organisms.

B). It is likely that they will be buried rapidly

C). The water environment speeds the decay caused by bacteria.

D). It takes longer for them to be preserved.

35. The fact that the "land is largely the site of erosion" (line 9) is significant because

A). erosion is less destructive than sedimentation

B). fossils are most common in areas subject to erosion

C). erosion contributes to the destruction of skeletal remains

D). few organisms live in areas that experience extensive erosion

36. According to the passage, why were the remains of organisms trapped in swamps better preserved for the fossil record than those that were not?

A). The swamp environment reduced the amount of bacterial decay.

B). Swamp waters contained higher amounts of materials such as calcium carbonate.

C). There were fewer sediments in swamps than in other bodies of water.

D). Swamp vegetation accelerated the decomposition of organisms.

37. The word "aided" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

A). reversed

B). helped

C). reformed

D). counted

38. It can be inferred that flood plains, deltas, and stream channels (lines 17-18) are similar in which of the following ways?

A). Animals rather than plants have been preserved at such locations.

B). Such locations are likely to be rich sources of fossils.

C). Fossilized human remains are only rarely found in such locations.

D). Rapid sedimentation in such locations makes it difficult to locate fossils.

39. What is the author's main point in paragraph 3?

A). Weathering makes it impossible to identify many fossils.

B). Many fossils have been buried forever under the soil.

C). Fossils provide a limited sample of ancient organisms.

D). It is easier to find the remains of plants than animals.

40. Why does the author mention "aragonite" in line 26

A). To explain why fossils are rare

B). To compare aragonite fossils and calcite fossils

C). To argue that certain fossils are more informative than others

D). To illustrate the kinds of inorganic hard parts that can form fossils

Question 41-50

Naturalists and casual observers alike have been struck by the special relationship between squirrels and acorns (the seeds of oak trees). Ecologists, though, cannot observe These energetic mammals scurrying up and down oak trees and eating and burying acorns without wondering (5)about their complex relationship with trees. Are squirrels dispersers and planters of oak forests or pesky seed predators? The answer is not simple. Squirrels may devour many acorns, but by storing and failing to recover up to 74 percent of them (as they do when seeds are abundant), these arboreal o\rodents can also aid regeneration and dispersal of the oaks.

(10) Their destructive powers are well documented. According to one report, squirrels destroyed tens of thousands of fallen acorns from an oak stand on the University of Indiana campus. A professor there estimated that each of the large while oaks had Produced between two and eight thousand acorns, but within weeks of seed maturity, Hardly an intact acorn (15) could be found among the fallen leaves.

Deer, turkey, wild pigs, and bears also feed heavily on acorns, but do not store them, And are therefore of no benefit to the trees. Flying squirrels, chipmunks, and mice are also unlikely to promote tree dispersal--- whose behavior of caching (hiding) acorns below The leaf litter often (20) promotes successful germination of acorns --- and perhaps blue jays, Important long-distance dispersers, seem to help oaks spread and reproduce.

Among squirrels, though, there is a particularly puzzling behavior pattern. Squirrels pry off the caps of acorns, bite through the shells to get (25) at the nutritious inner kernels, and then discard them half-eaten. The ground under towing oaks is often littered with thousands of half -eaten acorns, each one only bitten from the top. Why would any animal waste so much time and energy and risk exposure to such predators as red-tail hawks only to leave a large part of each acorn uneaten? While research is (30) not conclusive at this point, one thing that is certain is that squirrels do hide some of the uneaten portions, and these acorn halves, many of which contain the seeds, may later germinate.

41. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A). The ecology of oak trees

B). Factors that determine the feeding habits of Squirrels

C). Various species of animals that promote the dispersal of tree seeds

D). The relationship between squirrels and oak trees

42. The word "they" in line 8 refers to

A). oak forests

B). acorns

C). squirrels

D). predators

43. According to the passage, what do squirrels do when large quantities of acorns are available?

A). They do not store acorns.

B). They eat more than 74 percent of available acorns.

C). They do not retrieve all the acorns that they have stored.

D). They hide acorns in tree cavities.

44. The word "estimated" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

A). commented

B). judged

C). observed

D). discovered

45. Why does the author mention “the University of Indiana campus" in line 10-12

A). To provide evidence that intact acorns are hard to find under oak trees

B). To indicate a place where squirrels can aid seed dispersal of oaks

C). To argue in favor of additional studies concerning the destructive force of squirrels

D). To support the claim that squirrels can do great damage to oak stands

46. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that chipmunks do not aid in the dispersal of oak trees because

A). they store their acorns where they cannot germinate

B). they consume most of their stored acorns

C). their stored acorns are located and consumed by other species

D). they cannot travel the long distance required for dispersal

47. According to the passage, which of the following do squirrels and blue jays have in common?

A). They travel long distances to obtain acorns.

B). They promote the reproduction of oak trees.

C). They bury acorns under fallen leaves.

D). They store large quantities of acorns.

48. The phrase “pry off" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

A). swallow

B). remove

C). squeeze

D). locate

49. The word "littered" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

A). covered

B). displayed

C). fertilized

D). planted

50. According to the passage, scientists cannot explain which of the following aspects of squirrel

behavior?

A). Where squirrels store their acorn caches

B). Why squirrels prefer acorns over other seeds

C). Why squirrels eat only a portion of each acorn they retrieve

D). Why squirrels prefer acorns from a particular species of oak trees

2002年10月语法题

1. Among the 450 artworks in the White House art collection __

(A) as is Mary Cassatt’s Young Mother and Two Children

(B) is Mary Cassatt’s Young Mother and Two Children

(C) which is Mary Cassatt’s Young Mother and Two Children

(D) Mary Cassatt’s Young Mother and Two Children

2. An unconsolidated aggregate of silt particles is also termed silt, __ a consolidated aggregate is called siltstone.

(A) which

(B) why

(C) whereas

(D) whether

3. In 1864 the American Shakespearean actor Edwin Booth gained critical acclaim when he __ Hamlet at the Winter Garden Theatre in New York City.

(A) perform

(B) performed

(C) had been performing

(D) having performed

4. ----are chiefly derived from petroleum.

(A) Plastics today

(B) There are plastics today

(C) Because today plastics today

(D) Due to plastics today

5. Most tangerine trees and their flowers and fruits resemble __ the orange, although tangerines are generally smaller.

(A) of those

(B) which of those

(C) those of

(D) which are of

6. Ohio. the center of __ the Hopewen culture, has the greatest concentration of ancient burial mounds in the United States.

(A) called

(B) what is called

(C) that is called

(D) is called

7. __, such as jazz, are often played from memory rather than from a written score.

(A) Of some types music

(B) Music some of types

(C) Some types of music

(D) Types of music some

8. During the 1850’, reform movements __ temperance and the abolition of slavery gained strength in the United States.

(A) advocating

(B) they had advocated

(C) to advocating

(D) to advocate when

9. Many meteorites are thought to have originated from __ that once existed between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.

(A) where a planet or planets

(B) a planet or planets so

(C) which a planet or planets

(D) a planet or planets

10. The modem automobile is a __ composed of more than 14,000 parts.

(A) complex technical system

(B) system of complex technical

(C) complex technical system that

(D) system is technically complex

11. __ over 100 years since the invention of the square-bottomed paper bag.

(A) Now is

(B) Now it has

(C) There is now

(D) It is now

12. The novelist John Dos Passos developed a style of fiction incorporating several documentary devices __ to his works.

(A) lent realism

(B) that lending realism

(C) to lend realism

(D) of whose realism lent

13. In Earth’s infancy, its surface was warm enough for life __ the young Sun was fainter than it is today.

(A) in spite of

(B) whether

(C) neither of which

(D) even though

14. The invention of the compound microscope (which allowed much higher magnification through multiple lenses) made __ the great strides in life sciences.

(A) it possible

(B) possibly

(C) possible

(D) it was possible

15. Hares generally have longer ears and hind legs than rabbits and move by jumping __ running

(A) rather to be

(B) rather than

(C) are rather

(D) as rather

16. Lake trout, fish usually finding in deep, cool lakes, are greenish gray and are covered with pale spots.

17. During the first 20 years of the space age, the United States spent more than 90 billion dollars onto its civilian and military space programs.

18. Vitamin A and C and most of the B vitamins are retain in foods that have been canned.

19. Ella Baker spent her adult life working for social change by lecturing, writing, teacher, and organizing adult literacy programs.

20. Gold can combined with silver in any proportion, but alloys with 50 to 60 percent silver are the strongest.

21. The camera obscure, a lensless precursor of the photographic camera, consists of a darkened chamber, with light pass into it through a single tiny hole.

22. Lumber production was the main industry in Michigan until the early 1900`s, which the automobile industry was established in Detroit.

23. Twenty minutes of vigorous exercise every day is very effect in helping a person to maintain physical fitness.

24. It was not until after Emily Dickenson’ s death in 1886 that, hidden away in her bureau, overly one thousand unpublished poems were discovered.

25. Rocks form within Earth are called intrusive or plutonic rocks because the magma form which they form often intrudes into neighboring rock.

26. Most fish swim by moving their tails from side to side, with little relatively body undulation.

27. In its life expectancy, although in most other things, the Sun is a typical star.

28. Machines need energy to function, whether it is animal or human muscle, wind or waters currents, or heat-generated energy, such as steam.

29. The modern violin, the smallest and versatile instrument in the violin family, is tuned in fifths and produces tones ranging over four and a half octaves.

30. Norman Rockwell was a meticulous artist who paintings portrayed family incidents and well-defined characters with a wealth of supporting details.

31. By the late twelve century, stained glass had emerged in Europe as an integral part of Gothic architecture.

32. The United States, a nation with a highly diversified economy, is a major exporter of grain, fruit, chemical, aircraft, and cars.

33. Canada began cultivation wheat intensively in 1910, which led to a demand for tools, machines, housing, and building supplies.

34. Magnesium has little structural strength and must be alloyed with another metals such as aluminum and zinc when it is to be subjected to stress.

35. Orchid seeds take up to eighteen months to mature before they sprout, and the young plants may need another two years to reach at the flowering stage.

36. The oldest public edifice in Washington D.C, the White House was originally constructed in the 1790`s, also has been rebuilt or extensively remodeled three times since.

37. Mitosis is the normal process by which a cell divides, each new cell ending up wich a same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

38. There are a series of large-scale wind patterns all over Earth are called prevailing winds that have a direct effect on weather and climate.

39. In June, 1846, near Sacramento, California, a number of new settlers rebelled in the Bear Flag Revolt and proclaiming California an independent republic.

40. A mutation is result of a definite biochemical change in a gene that causes the offspring to vary in some characteristic from the parents.

Question 1-9

The first birds appeared during late Jurassic times. These birds are known from four very good skeletons, two incomplete skeletons, and an isolated feather, all from the Solnhofen limestone of Bavaria, Germany. This fine-grained rock, which is extensively quarried for lithographic (5)stone, was evidently deposited in a shallow coral lagoon of a tropical sea, and flying vertebrates occasionally fell into the water and were buried by the fine limy mud, to be preserved with remarkable detail in this way, the late Jurassic bird skeletons, which have been named Archaeopteryx, were fossilized. And not only were the bones preserved in these skeletons, (10) but so also were imprints of the feathers. If the indications of feathers had not been preserved in association with Archaeopteryx, it is likely that these fossils would have been classified among the dinosaurs, for they show numerous theropod characteristics.

Archaeopteryx were animals about the size of a crow, with an (15)archeosaurian type of skull, a long neck, a compact body balanced on a pair of strong hind limbs, and a long tail. The forelimbs were enlarged and obviously functioned as wings. Modern birds, who are the descendants of these early birds, are highly organized animals, with a constant body temperature and a very high rate of metabolism. In addition, they are (20)remarkable for having evolved extraordinarily complex behavior patterns such as those of nesting and song, and the habit among many species of making long migrations from one continent to another and back each year.

Most birds also have very strong legs, which allows them to run or (25) walk on the ground as well as to fly in the air. Indeed, some of the waterbirds, such as ducks and geese, have the distinction of being able to move around proficiently in the water, on land, and in the air, a range in natural locomotor ability that has never been attained by any other vertebrate.

1.  According to the author, all of-the following evidence relating to the first birds was found EXCEPT

(A) nesting materials

(B) four skeletons in good condition

(C) two fragmented skeletons

(D) a single feather

2.  The word "preserved" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) confused with others

(B) gradually weakened

(C) protected from destruction

(D) lost permanently

3.  It can be inferred from the passage that the Archaeopteryx were classified as birds on the basis of

(A) imprints of bones

(B) imprints of feathers

(C) the neck structure

(D) skeletons

4.  The word "they" in line 12 refers to

(A) indications

(B) fossils

(C) dinosaurs

(D) characteristics

5. Why does the author mention "a crow" in line 14?

(A) to indicate the size of Archaeopteryx

(B) To specify the age of the Archaeopteryx fossils

(C) To explain the evolutionary history of Archaeopteryx

(D) To demonstrate the superiority of the theropod to Archaeopteryx

6. It can be inferred from the passage that theropods were

(A) dinosaurs

(B) birds

(C) Archaeopteryx

(D) crows

7. The word "constant" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) comfortable

(B) combined

(C) consistent

(D) complementary

8.   The author mentions all of the following as examples of complex behavior patterns evolved by birds EXCEPT

(A) migrating

(B) nesting

(C) singing

(D) running

9. The word "attained" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) required

(B) achieved

(C) observed

(D) merited

Questions 10-19

Newspaper publishers in the United States have long been enthusiastic users and distributors of weather maps. Although some newspapers that had carried the United States Weather Bureau's national weather map in 1912 dropped it once the novelty had passed, many continued to print the (5) daily weather chart provided by their local forecasting office. In the 1930's, when interest in aviation and progress in air-mass analysis made weather patterns more newsworthy, additional newspapers started or resumed the daily weather map. In 1935, The Associated Press (AP) news service inaugurated its WirePhoto network and offered subscribing (10)newspapers morning and afternoon weather maps redrafted by the AP's Washington, B.C., office from charts provided by the government agency. Another news service, United Press  International (UPI), developed a competing photowire network and also provided timely weather maps for both morning and afternoon newspapers. After the (15)United States government launched a series of weather satellites in 1966, both the AP and UPI offered cloud-cover photos obtained from the Weather Bureau.

In the late 1970's and early 1980's, the weather map became an essential ingredient in the redesign of the American newspaper. News (20)publishers, threatened by increased competition from television for readers' attention, sought to package the news more conveniently and attractively. In 1982, many publishers felt threatened by the new USA Today, a national daily newspaper that used a page-wide, (20)full-color weather map as its key design element. That the weather map in USA

(25) Today did not include information about weather fronts and pressures attests to the largely symbolic role it played. Nonetheless, competing local and metropolitan newspapers responded in a variety of ways. Most substituted full-color temperature maps for the standard weather maps, while others dropped the comparatively drab satellite photos or added (30)regional forecast maps with pictorial symbols to indicate rainy, snowy, cloudy, or clear conditions. A few newspapers, notably The New York Times, adopted a highly informative yet less visually prominent weather map that was specially designed to explain an important recent or imminent weather event.

(35) Ironically, a newspaper's richest, most instructive weather maps often are comparatively small and inconspicuous.

10.  What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The differences between government and newspaper weather forecasting in the United States.

(B) The history of publishing weather maps in United States newspapers

(C) A comparison of regional and national weather reporting in the United States.

(D) Information that forms the basis for weather forecasting in the United States

11. The word "resumed" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) began again

(B) held back

(C) thought over

(D) referred to

12. According to the passage, one important reason why newspapers printed daily weather maps during the first half of the twentieth century was

(A) the progress in printing technology

(B) a growing interest in air transportation

(C) a change in atmospheric conditions

(D) the improvement of weather forecasting techniques

13. What regular service did The Associated Press and United Press International begin to offer subscribing newspapers in the 1930's?

(A) A new system of weather forecasting

(B) An air-mass analysis

(C) Twice daily weather maps

(D) Cloud-cover photographs

14. The phrase "attests to" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) makes up for

(B) combines with

(C) interferes with

(D) gives evidence of

15. The word "others" in line 29 refers to

(A) newspapers

(B) ways

(C) temperature maps

(D) weather maps

16. The word "drab" in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) precise

(B) poor

(C) simple

(D) dull

17.  In contrast to the weather maps of USA Today, weather maps in The New York Times tended to be

(A) printed in foil color

(B) included for symbolic reasons

(C) easily understood by the readers

(D) filled with detailed information

18. The word "prominent" in line 32 is closest in meaning to

(A) complex

(B) noticeable

(C) appealing

(D) perfect

19. The author uses the term "Ironically" in line 29 to indicate that a weather map's appearance

(A) is not important to newspaper publishers

(B) does not always indicate how much information it provides

(C) reflects how informative a newspaper can be

(D) often can improve newspaper sales

Question 20-30

Some animal behaviorists argue that certain animals can remember past events, anticipate future ones, make plans and choices, and coordinate activities within a group. These scientists, however, are cautious about the extent to which animals can be credited with conscious processing.

(5) Explanations of animal behavior that leave out any sort of consciousness at all and ascribe actions entirely to instinct leave many questions unanswered. One example of such unexplained behavior: Honeybees communicate the sources of nectar to one another by doing a dance in a figure-eight pattern. The orientation of the dance conveys the (10) position of the food relative to the sun's position in the sky, and the speed of the dance tells how far the food source is from the hive. Most researchers assume that the ability to perform and encode the dance is innate and shows no special intelligence. But in one study, when experimenters kept changing the site of the food source, each time moving (15) the food 25 percent farther from the previous site, foraging honeybees began to anticipate where the food source would appear next. When the researchers arrived at the new location, they would find the bees circling the spot, waiting for their food. No one has yet explained how bees, whose brains weigh four ten-thousandths of an ounce, could have inferred the (20) location of the new site.

Other behaviors that may indicate some cognition include tool use. Many animals, like the otter who uses a stone to crack mussel shells, are capable of using objects in the natural environment as rudimentary tools. One researcher has found that mother chimpanzees occasionally show (25)their young how to use tools to open hard nuts. In one study, chimpanzees compared two pairs of food wells containing chocolate chips. One pair might contain, say, five chips and three chips, the other our chips and three chips. Allowed to choose which pair they wanted, the chimpanzees almost always chose the one with the higher total, showing (30)some sort of summing ability. Other chimpanzees have learned to use numerals to label quantities of items and do simple sums.

20.  What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A)  The role of instinct in animal behavior

(B)  Observations that suggest consciousness in animal behavior

(C) The use of food in studies of animal behavior

(D) Differences between the behavior of animals in their natural environments and in laboratory experiments.

21.  Which of the following is NOT discussed as an ability animals are thought to have?

(A)  Selecting among choices

(B)  Anticipating events to come

(C)  Remembering past experiences

(D)  Communicating emotions

22.  What is the purpose of the honeybee dance?

(A) To determine the quantity of food at a site

(B) To communicate the location of food

(C) To increase the speed of travel to food sources

(D) T identify the type of nectar that is available

23.  The word "yet" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A)  however

(B)  since

(C)  generally

(D)  so far

24. What did researchers discover in the study of honeybees discussed in paragraph 2?

(A) Bees are able to travel at greater speeds than scientists thought.

(B) The bees could travel 25% farther than scientists expected.

(C) The bees were able to determine in advance where scientists would place their food.

(D) Changing the location of food caused bees to decrease their dance activity.

25. It can be inferred from the passage that brain size is assumed to

(A)  be an indicator of cognitive ability

(B) vary among individuals within a species

(C)  be related to food consumption

(D)  correspond to levels of activity

26. Why are otters and mussel shells included in the discussion in paragraph 3?

(A) To provide an example of tool use among animals

(B) To prove that certain species demonstrate greater ability in tool use than other species

(C)  (D)

27.  The word "rudimentary" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A)  superior

(B)  original

(C)  basic

(D)  technical

28.  It can be inferred from the statement about mother chimpanzees and their young (lines 24-25) that young chimpanzees have difficulty

(A)  communicating with their mothers

(B)  adding quantities

(C)  making choices

(D)  opening hard nuts

29.  The phrase "the one" in line 26 refers to the

(A) study

(B) pair

(C) chimpanzee

(D) ability

30.  Scientists concluded from the experiment with chimpanzees and chocolate chips that chimpanzees

(A)  lack abilities that other primates have

(B)  prefer to work in pairs or groups

(C)  exhibit behavior that indicates certain mathematical abilities

(D) have difficulty selecting when given choices

Questions 31-39

In eighteenth-century colonial America, flowers and fruit were typically the province of the botanical artist interested in scientific illustration rather than being the subjects of fine art. Early in the nineteenth century, however, the Peale family of Philadelphia established the still life, (5) a picture consisting mainly of inanimate objects, as a valuable part of the artist's repertoire. The fruit paintings by James and Sarah Miriam Peale are simple arrangements of a few objects, handsomely colored, small in size, and representing little more than what they are. In contrast were the highly symbolic, complex compositions by Charles Bird King, with their (10) biting satire and critical social commentary. Each of these strains comminuted into and well past mid-century.

John F. Francis (1808-86) was a part of the Pennsylvania still-life tradition that arose, at least in part, from the work of the Peales. Most of his still lifes date from around 1850 to 1875. Luncheon Still Life looks like (15) one of the Peales' pieces on a larger scale, kits greater complexity resulting from the number of objects. It is also indebted to the luncheon type of still life found in seventeenth-century Dutch painting. The opened bottles of wine and the glasses of wine partially consumed suggest a number of unseen guests. The appeal of the fruit and nuts to our sense of (20) taste is heightened by the juicy orange, which has already been sliced. The arrangement is additive, that is, made up of many different parts, not always compositionally integrated, with all objects of essentially equal importance.

About 1848, Severin Roesen came to the United States from Germany (25) and settled in New York City, where he began to paint large, lush still lifes of flowers, fruit, or both, often measuring over four feet across. Still Life with Fruit and Champagne is typical in its brilliance of color, meticulous rendering of detail, compact composition, and unabashed abundance. Rich in symbolic overtones, the beautifully painted objects (30) carry additional meanings------butterflies or fallen buds suggest the impermanence of life, a bird's nest with eggs means fertility, and so on. Above all, Roesen's art expresses the abundance that America symbolized to many of its citizens.

31.  What does the passage mainly discuss

(A)  The artwork of James and Sarah Miriam Peale

(B)  How Philadelphia became a center for art in the nineteenth century

(C)  Nineteenth-century still-life paintings in the United States

(D) How botanical art inspired the first still-life paintings

32.  Which of the following is mentioned as a characteristic of the still lifes of James and Sarah Miriam Peale?

(A)  Simplicity

(B)  Symbolism

(C)  Smooth texture

(D)  Social commentary

33.  The word "biting" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A)  simple

(B)  sorrowful

(B)  frequent

(D)  sharp

34.  The word "It" in line 14 refers to

(A)  Luncheon Still Life

(B)  one of the Peales' pieces

(C)  a larger scale

(D)  the number of objects

35. The word "heightened" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A)  complicated

(B)  directed

(C)  observed

(D)  increased

36. The word "meticulous" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A)  careful

(B)  significant

(C)  appropriate

(D)  believable

37.  Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A)  "repertoire" (line 5)

(B)  "satire" (line 9)

(C)  "additive" (line 19)

(D)  "rendering" (line 24)

38. All of the following are mentioned as characteristics of Roesen's still lifes EXCEPT that they

(A)  are symbolic

(B) use simplified representations of flowers and fruit

(C)  include brilliant colors

(D)  are large in size

39. Which of the following  is mentioned  as the dominant theme in Roesen's painting?

(A)  Fertility

(B)  Freedom

(C)  Impermanence

(D) Abundance

Question 40-50

Scientists have discovered that for the last 160,000 years, at least, there has been a consistent relationship between the amount of carbon dioxide in the air and the average temperature of the planet. The importance of carbon dioxide in regulating the Earth's temperature was (5)confirmed by scientists working in eastern Antarctica. Drilling down into a glacier, they extracted a mile-long cylinder of ice from the hole. The glacier had formed as layer upon layer of snow accumulated year after year. Thus drilling into the ice was tantamount to drilling back through time.

(10) The deepest sections of the core are composed of water that fell as snow 160,000 years ago. Scientists in Grenoble, France, fractured portions of the core and measured the composition of ancient air released from bubbles in the ice. Instruments were used to measure the ratio of certain isotopes in the frozen water to get an idea of the prevailing atmospheric (15) temperature at the time when that particular bit of water became locked in the glacier. The result is a remarkable unbroken record of temperature and of atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide. Almost every time the chill of an ice age descended on the planet, carbon dioxide levels dropped. When the global temperature dropped 9°F (5 °C), carbon dioxide (20) levels dropped to 190 parts per million or so. Generally, as each ice age ended and the Earth basked in a warm interglacial period, carbon dioxide levels were around 280 parts per million. Through the 160,000 years of that ice record, the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere fluctuated between 190 and 280 parts per million, but never rose much (25) higher-until the Industrial Revolution beginning in the eighteenth century and continuing today.

There is indirect evidence that the link between carbon dioxide levels and global temperature change goes back much further than the glacial record. Carbon dioxide levels may have been much greater than the current (30) concentration during the Carboniferous period, 360 to 285 million years ago. The period was named for a profusion of plant life whose buried remains produced a large fraction of the coal deposits that are being brought to the surface and burned today.

40.  Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Chemical causes of ice ages

(B) Techniques for studying ancient layers of ice in glaciers

(C) Evidence of a relationship between levels of carbon dioxide and global temperature

(D) Effects of plant life on carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere

41. The word “accumulated” in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) spread out

(B) changed

(C) became denser

(D) built up

42. According to the passage, the drilling of the glacier in eastern Antarctica was important because it

(A) allowed scientists to experiment with new drilling techniques

(B) permitted the study of surface temperatures in an ice-covered region of Earth

(C) provided insight about climate conditions in earlier periods

(D) confirmed earlier findings about how glaciers are formed

43. The phrase "tantamount to" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) complementary to

(B) practically the same as

(C) especially well suited to

(D) unlikely to be confused with

44. According to the passage, Grenoble, France, is the place where

(A) instruments were developed for measuring certain chemical elements

(B) scientists first recorded atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide

(C) scientists studied the contents of an ice core from Antarctica

(D)

45. According to the passage, scientists used isotopes from the water of the ice core to determine which of following?

(A) The amount of air that had bubbled to the surface since the ice had formed

(B) The temperature of the atmosphere when the ice was formed

(C) The date at which water had become locked in the glacier

(D) The rate at which water had been frozen in the glacier

46. The word "remarkable" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) genuine

(B) permanent

(C) extraordinary

(D) continuous

47. The word "link" in line 27 is closest in meaning to

(A) tension

(B) connection

(C) attraction

(D) distance

48.  The passage implies that the warmest temperatures among the periods mentioned occurred

(A) in the early eighteenth century

(B) 160,000 years ago

(C) at the end of each ice age

(D) between 360 and 285 million years ago

49. According to the passage, the Carboniferous period was characterized by

(A) a reduction in the number of coal deposits

(B) the burning of a large amount of coal

(C) an abundance of plants

(D) an accelerated rate of glacier formation

50. The passage explains the origin of which of the following terms?

(A) Glacier (line 6)

(B) Isotopes (line 14)

(C) Industrial Revolution (line 25)

(D) Carboniferous period (lines 30)

2003年01月语法题

1. .........crumbles readily when exposed to a moist, acid atmosphere, but the stone is durable in a dry atmosphere.

(A) The surface of marble is

(B) The surface of marble, which

(C) Although the surface of marble

(D) The surface of marble

2. By using their trunks, elephants can tell the shape of an object and ..... is rough or smooth, or hot or cold.

(A) it

(B) whether it

(C) how

(D) since it

3. In 1989 Carret Hongo was chosen as ........ for the Pulitzer Prize in poetry.

(A) his being one of the finalists

(B) to be one of the finalists

(C) one of the finalists

(D) the one finalist who

4. The Moon is much closer to Earth ...... is the Sun, and thus it had greater influence on the tides.

(A) unlike

(B) than

(C) but

(D) where

5. The brain of an average adult is one of the largest organs of the body, ........about three pounds.

(A) weighs

(B) is weighed

(C) weighing

(D) to weigh it

6. Throughout history ........different representations for numbers and for the basic process of counting.

(A) have been many

(B) there have been many

(C) many

(D) when many

7. Democratic governments constantly face the problem of balancing …..... the individual with the needs of society.

(A) the rights of

(B) to the rights for

(C) for the rights to

(D) with the rights by

8. Connecticut was the fifth of the original thirteen states …..... the Constitution of the United States.

(A) ratified

(B) ratify

(C) to ratify

(D) have ratified

9. The chemical composition of sandstone is the same as ….....

(A) that of sand

(B) that sand is

(C) sand is that

(D) what of sand

10. Hydrofoils can exceed 75 miles per hour, as compared with conventional watercraft, whose maximum speeds .......... approach 50 miles per hour.

(A) are rarely

(B) rarely

(C) of rarely

(D) they rarely

11. It was novelist and poet ….... in 1968 founded Jackson State University's Institute for the Study of the History, Life, and Culture of Black People.

(A) Margaret Walker did

(B) Margaret Walker

(C) Margaret Walker who

(D) Margaret Walker and

12. Before the Europeans arrived, American Indians were using virgin copper …... into ornaments, knives, and other artifacts.

(A) which was hammering

(B) which hammered

(C) was hammered

(D) hammered

13. In western North America, …...... form the Great Divide, which separates the areas from which waters flow either eastward to the Atlantic or westward to the Pacific.

(A) the Rocky Mountains

(B) where the Rocky Mountains

(C) the Rocky Mountains in which

(D) there are the Rocky Mountains

14. Some ecologists believe ….... more than 50 percent of existing species will be lost in the next 100 years.

(A) because

(B) that

(C) while there is

(D) that there are

15. Almost ….... substances expand in volume when heated and contract when cooled.

(A) all

(B) they all

(C) all of

(D) all are

16. A children's librarian often conducts story hours and other activities to help children enjoy herself while developing an interest in reading and the library's resources.

17. Titanium has the strength of steel but weighs half only as much, hence its advantage for use in aircraft.

18. Protective behaviors of amphibians include hiding in the presence of danger and having coloration such closely matching the environment that the animal is not obvious.

19. As the highest-paid star of the silent screen, earning a reputedly income of $20, 000 a week, Gloria Swanson epitomized the glamour of Hollywood in the 1920's.

20. Candles may be made by repeatedly dipping wicks in tallow, by molding, nor by pouring melted wax over the wicks and rolling them into shape.

21. While models of automobiles date back as far as the late 1600's, the 1880's seen the first commercial interest in the vehicle.

22. The conceptual of musical harmony is generally traced to the ninth century because it is first mentioned in treatises of that period.

23. Paleontologists have examined fossil embryos and hatchlings from three type of duck-billed dinosaurs to figure out how they matured.

24. Lightning tends to strike the nearest good conductor, and hence often strikes in same place more than once.

25. When study different cultures and societies, anthropologists often focus on marriage as a contractual agreement between different parties.

26. The first piloted balloon flight across the Atlantic Ocean took place at 1978.

27. The Arts and Crafts Movement of the late nineteenth century strove to revitalizing handicrafts and applied arts during an era of increasing mass production.

28. When canned using proper methods, food suffers no loss in vitamins or another nutritive elements.

29. Heat exhaustion is causing by excessive loss of body fluids and body salts.

30. Primitive humans probably did not deliberately cook food until long after they had learned to use fire for light and warm.

31. The poor condition of prisoners are what concerned Dorothea Dix, an American social worker and director of a school in Boston.

32. Found in the shells of lobsters, shrimp, and crabs, glucosamine is also present in human cartilage, which covering the bones in joints.

33. Between 1871 until 1891, the population of Toronto more than tripled, increasing from 56,000 to 181,000.

34. In the nineteenth century, Montreal grew into an important transportation and industrial center, aided by its many natural resources and an abundant of hydroelectric power.

35. In the initial planning for theaters, auditoriums, but any room intended primarily for listening, acoustics is a major consideration.

36. The pulse that may be felt wherever an artery passes over a solid structure, such as a bone or cartilage.

37. Through his essays, poems, and lectures, Ralph Waldo Emerson established himself as a major thinker of his time and as a figure leading of American literature.

38. The "method", which is both a style of acting a system of training for the actor, stresses inner motivation and psychological truth.

39. On September 6, 1996, civil rights activist Rosa Parks was awarded the Presidential Medal of Freedom, the highest honor the United States government gives to civilian.

40. Basalt, which composes most of the ocean floor, is a dark-grey rock rich in iron and magnesium than most surface rocks.

Questions 1-10

By far the most important United States export product in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries was cotton, favored by the European textile industry over flax or wool because it was easy to process and soft to tile touch. Mechanization of spinning and weaving allowed significant (5)centralization and expansion in the textile industry during this period, and at the same time the demand for cotton increased dramatically. American producers were able to meet this demand largely because of tile invention of the cotton gin by Eli Whitney in 1793. Cotton could be grown throughout the South, but separating the fiber---or lint--from the seed was (10) a laborious process. Sea island cotton was relatively easy to process by hand, because its fibers were long and seeds were concentrated at the base of the flower, but it demanded a long growing season, available only along the nation's eastern seacoast. Short-staple cotton required a much shorter growing season, but the shortness of the fibers and their mixture (15) with seeds meant that a worker could hand-process only about one pound per day. Whitney's gin was a hand-powered machine with revolving drums and metal teeth to pull cotton fibers away from seeds. Using the gin, a worker could produce up to '50 pounds of lint a day. The later development of larger gins, powered by horses, water, or steam, multiplied (20) productivity further. The interaction of improved processing and high demand led to the rapid spread of the cultivation of cotton and to a surge in production. It became the main American export, dwarfing all others. In 1802, cotton composed 14 percent of total American  exports by value. Cotton had a 36 percent share by 1810 and over a 50 percent share in (25)1830. In 1860, 61 percent of the value of American exports was represented by cotton.

In contrast, wheat and wheat flour composed only 6 percent of the value of American exports in that year. Clearly, cotton was king in the trade of the young republic. The growing market for cotton and other (30)American agricultural products led to an unprecedented expansion of agricultural settlement, mostly in the eastern half of the United States---west of the Appalachian Mountains and east of the Mississippi River.

1. The main point of the passage is that the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries were a time when

(A) the European textile industry increased its demand for American export products

(B) mechanization of spinning and weaving dramatically changed the textile industry

(C) cotton became a profitable crop but was still time-consuming to process

(D) cotton became the most important American export product

2. The word "favored" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) preferred

(B) recommended

(C) imported

(D) included

3. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as reasons for the increased demand for cotton EXCEPT

(A) cotton's softness

(B) cotton's ease of processing

(C) a shortage of flax and wool

(D) the growth that occurred in the textile industry.

4. The word "laborious" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) unfamiliar

(B) primitive

(C) skilled

(D) difficult

5. According to the passage, one advantage of sea island cotton was its

(A) abundance of seeds

(B) long fibers

(C) long growing season

(D) adaptability to different climates

6. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about cotton production in the United States after the introduction of Whitney's cotton gin?

(A) More cotton came from sea island cotton plants than before.

(B) More cotton came from short-staple cotton plants than before.

(C) Most cotton produced was sold domestically.

(D) Most cotton produced was exported to England.

7. The word "surge" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) sharp increase

(B) sudden stop

(C) important change

(D) excess amount

8. The author mentions "wheat and wheat flour" in line 27 in order to

(A) show that Americans exported more agricultural products than they imported.

(B) show the increase in the amount of wheat products exported.

(C) demonstrate the importance of cotton among American export  products.

(D) demonstrate that wheat farming was becoming more profitable.

9. The word "unprecedented" in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) slow

(B) profitable

(C) not seen before

(D) never explained

10. According to the passage, the Mississippi River was

(A) one of the boundaries of a region where new agricultural settlement took place

(B) a major source of water for agricultural crops

(C) the primary route by which agricultural crops were transported

(D) a main source of power for most agricultural machinery

Questions 11-19

The origins of nest-building remain obscure, but current observation of nest-building activities provide evidence of their evolution. Clues to this evolutionary process can be found in the activities of play and in the behavior and movements of birds during mating, such as incessant pulling (5) at strips of vegetation or scraping of the soil. During the early days of the reproductive cycle, the birds seem only to play with the building materials. In preparation for mating, they engage in activities that resemble nest-building, and continue these activities throughout and even after the mating cycle. Effective attempts at construction occur only after mating.

(10) Although nest-building is an instinctive ability, there is considerable adaptability in both site selection and use of materials, especially with those species which build quite elaborate constructions. Furthermore, some element of learning is often evident since younger birds do not build as well as their practiced elders. Young ravens, for example, first attempt to (15) build with sticks of quite unsuitable size, while a jackdaw's first nest includes virtually any movable object. The novelist John Steinbeck recorded the contents of a young osprey nest built in his garden, which included three shirts, a bath towel, and one arrow.

Birds also display remarkable behavior in collecting building (20)materials. Crows have been seen to tear off stout green twigs, and sparrowhawks will dive purposefully onto a branch until it snaps and then hang upside down to break it off. Golden eagles, over generations of work, construct enormous nests. One of these, examined after it had been dislodged by high winds, weighed almost two tons and included (25)foundation branches almost two meters long. The carrying capacity of the eagles, however, is only relative to their size ant1 most birds are able to carry an extra load of just over twenty percent of their body weight.

11. The word "obscure" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) interesting

(B) unclear

(C) imperfect

(D) complex

12. According to the passage, which of the following activities is characteristic of the early part of the reproductive cycle of birds?

(A) Selecting a mate

(B) Collecting nest-building materials

(C) Playing with nest-building materials

(D) Building a nest

13. The word "display" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) communicate

(B) imitate

(C) initiate

(D) exhibit

14. The novelist John Steinbeck is mentioned in line 14 because he

(A) conducted a scientific study on the behavior of ospreys

(B) was the first to describe where ospreys built their nests

(C) described the materials ospreys can use to build their nests

(D) compared the size of osprey nests with the nests of other species

15. Which of the following birds are mentioned as those that build nests that include unusual objects?

(A) Ravens

(B) Ospreys

(C) Crows

(D) Sparrow hawks

16. According to the passage, when gathering materials to build their nests, sparrowhawks do which of the following?

(A) Hang upside down

(B) Select only green twigs

(C) Use objects blowing in the wind

(D) Collect more branches than necessary

17. The word "these" in line 20 refers to

(A) golden eagles

(B) generations

(C) winds

(D) nests

18. The word "load" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) weight

(B) number

(C) section

(D) level

19. The author mentions twenty percent in line 23 to indicate that

(A) eagles are twenty percent bigger than most birds

(B) twenty percent of all nests include foundation branches

(C) the nests of eagles are twenty percent of larger than those of other birds

(D) birds can carry twenty percent of their own weight

Questions 20-30

A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, that provides information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys are the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during presidential (5)campaigns knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in the United States.

North Americans are familiar with the many "person on the street? interviews on local television news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate indication of (10)public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-class shoppers, or factory workers, depending On which area the news people select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on the air, while they (15) frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.

In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of questions. An effective survey question must be simple (20) and clear enough for people to understand it. It must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even questions that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the sampling is done properly and the (25)questions are worded accurately.

There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these forms of survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate because people find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw away a written questionnaire. (30) In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and probe for a subject's underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.

20. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The history of surveys in North America

(B) The principles of conducting surveys

(C) Problems associated with interpreting surveys

(D) The importance of polls in American political life

21. The word "they" in line 10 refers to

(A) North Americans

(B) news shows

(C) interviews

(D) opinions

22. According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person-on-the-street interviews is that they

(A) are not based on a representative sampling

(B) are used only on television

(C) are not carefully worded

(D) reflect political opinions

23. The word "precise" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) planned

(B) rational

(C) required

(D) accurate

24. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey?

(A) A high number of respondents

(B) Carefully worded questions

(C) An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings

(D) A sociologist who is able to interpret the results

25. The word "exercise" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) utilize

(B) consider

(C) design

(D) defend

26. The word "elicit" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) compose

(B) rule out

(C) predict

(D) bring out

27. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become frustrated with questionnaires is that

(A) respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires

(B) questionnaires are often difficult to read

(C) questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute

(D) respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions

28. According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is that live interviews

(A) cost less

(B) can produce more information

(C) are easier to interpret

(D) minimize the influence of the researcher

29. The word "probe" in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) explore

(B) influence

(C) analyze

(D) apply

30. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A) Survey (line 1)

(B) Public opinion (line 10)

(C) Representative sampling (line 16)

(D) Response rate (line 28)

Questions 31-39

Perhaps one of the most dramatic and important changes that took place in the Mesozoic era occurred late in that era, among the small organisms that populate the uppermost, sunlit portion of the oceans--the plankton. The term "plankton" is a broad one, designating all of the small (5) plants and animals that float about or weakly propel themselves through the sea. In the late stages of the Mesozoic era. during the Cretaceous period, there was a great expansion of plankton that precipitated skeletons or shells composed of two types of mineral: silica and calcium carbonate. This development radically changed the types of (10) sediments that accumulated on the seafloor, because, while the organic parts of the plankton decayed after the organisms died, their mineralized skeletons often survived and sank to the bottom. For the first time in the Earth's long history, very large quantities of silica skeletons, which would eventually harden into rock, began to pile up in parts of the (15) deep sea. Thick deposits of calcareous ooze made up of the tiny remains of the calcium carbonate-secreting plankton also accumulated as never before. The famous white chalk cliffs of Dover, in the southeast of England, are just one example of the huge quantities of such material that amassed during the Cretaceous period; there are many more. Just why the (20) calcareous plankton were so prolific during the latter part of the Cretaceous period is not fully understood. Such massive amounts of chalky sediments have never since been deposited over a comparable period of time.

The high biological productivity of the Cretaceous oceans also led to (25) ideal conditions for oil accumulation. Oil is formed when organic material trapped in sediments is slowly buried and subjected to increased temperatures and pressures, transforming it into petroleum. Sediments rich in organic material accumulated along the margins of the Tethys Seaway, the tropical east-west ocean that formed when Earth's single landmass (30)(known as Pangaea) split apart during the Mesozoic era. Many of today's important oil fields are found in those sediments--in Russia, the Middle East, the Gulf of Mexico, and in the states of Texas and Louisiana in the United States.

31. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) How sediments were built up in oceans during the Cretaceous period

(B) How petroleum was formed in the Mesozoic era

(C) The impact of changes in oceanic animal and plant life in the Mesozoic era

(D) The differences between plankton found in the present era and Cretaceous plankton

32. The passage indicates that the Creiaceous period occurred

(A) in the early part of the Mesozoic era

(B) in the middle part of the Mesozoic era

(C) in the later part of the Mesozoic era

(D) after the Mesozoic era

33. The passage mentions all of the following aspects of plankton EXCEPT

(A) the length of their lives

(B) the level of the ocean at which they are found

(C) their movement

(D) their size

34. The word "accumulated" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) depended

(B) matured

(C) dissolved

(D) collected

35. According to the passage, the most dramatic change to the oceans caused by plankton during the Cretaceous period concerned

(A) the depth of the water

(B) the makeup of the sediment on the ocean floor

(C) the decrease in petroleum-producing sediment

(D) a decline in the quantity of calcareous ooze on the seafloor

36. The "white chalk cliffs of Dover" are mentioned in line 16 of the passage to

(A) show where the plankton sediment first began to build up

(B) provide an example of a plankton buildup that scientists cannot explain

(C) provide an example of the buildup of plankton sediment

(D) indicate the largest single plankton buildup on Earth

37. The word "prolific" in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) fruitful

(B) distinct

(C) determined

(D) energetic

38. The word "ideal" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) common

(B) clear

(C) perfect

(D) immediate

39. The word "it" in line 26 refers to

(A) biological productivity

(B) oil

(C) organic material

(D) petroleum

Questions 40-50

Of all modern instruments, the violin is apparently one of the simplest. It consists in essence of a hollow, varnished wooden sound box, or resonator, and a long neck, covered with a fingerboard, along which four strings are stretched at high tension. The beauty of design, shape, and (5)decoration is no accident: the proportions of the instrument are determined almost entirely by acoustical considerations. Its simplicity of appearance is deceptive. About 70 parts are involved in the construction of a violin, Its tone and its outstanding range of expressiveness make it an ideal solo instrument. No less important, however, is its role as an (10)orchestral and chamber instrument. In combination with the larger and deeper-sounding members of the same family, the violins form the nucleus of the modern symphony orchestra.

The violin has been in existence since about 1550. Its importance as an instrument in its own right dates from the early 1600's, when it first became (15) standard in Italian opera orchestras. Its stature as an orchestral instrument was raised further when in 1626 Louis XIII of France established at his court the orchestra known as Les vingt-quatre violons du Roy (The King's 24 Violins), which was to become widely famous later in the century.

In its early history, the violin had a dull and rather quiet tone resulting (20) from the fact that the strings were thick and were attached to the body of the instrument very loosely. During the eighteenth and nineteenth century, exciting technical changes were inspired by such composer-violinists as Vivaldi and Tartini. Their instrumental compositions demanded a fuller, clearer, and more brilliant tone that was produced by (25) using thinner strings and a far higher string tension. Small changes had to be made to the violin's internal structure and to the fingerboard so that they could withstand the extra strain. Accordingly, ,a higher standard of performance was achieved, in terms of both facility and interpretation. Left-hand technique was considerably elaborated, and new fingering patterns on the fingerboard were developed for very high notes.

40. The word "standard" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) practical

(B) customary

(C) possible

(D) unusual

41. "The King’s 24 Violins" is mentioned in line 17 to illustrate

(A) how the violin became a renowned instrument

(B) the competition in the 1600's between French and Italian orchestras

(C) the superiority of French violins

(D) why the violin was considered the only instrument suitable to be played by royalty

42. What is the main idea presented in paragraph 3?

(A) The violin has been modified to fit its evolving musical functions.

(B) The violin is probably the best known and most widely distributed musical instrument in the world.

(C) The violin had reached the height of its popularity by the middle of the eighteenth century.

(D) The technique of playing the violin has remained essentially the same since the 1600's.

43. The author mentions Vivaldi and Tartini in line 22 as examples of composers whose music

(A) inspired more people to play the violin

(B) had to be adapted to the violin

(C) demanded more sophisticated violins

(D) could be played only by their students

44. The word "they" in line 27 refers to

(A) Civaldi and Tartini

(B) thinner strings and a higher string tension

(C) small changes

(D) internal structure and fingerboard

45. The word "strain" in line 27 is closest in meaning to

(A) struggle

(B) strength

(C) strategy

(D) stress

46. The word "Accordingly" in line 27 is closest in meaning to

(A) However

(B) Consequently

(C) Nevertheless

(D) Ultimately

47. According to the passage, early violins were different from modern violins in that early violins

(A) were heavier

(B) broke down more easily

(C) produced softer tones

(D) were easier to play

48. According to the passage, which of the following contributes to a dull sound being produced by a violin?

(A) A long fingerboard

(B) A small body

(C) High string tension

(D) Thick strings

49. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

(A) resonator (line 3)

(B) solo (line 8)

(C) left-hand technique (line 28)

(D) fingering patterns (lines 29-30)

50. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as contributing to the ability to play modern violin music EXCEPT

(A) more complicated techniques for the left hand

(B) different ways to use the fingers to play very high notes

(C) use of rare wood for the fingerboard and neck

(D) minor alterations to the structure of the instrument

2003年08月语法题

1. In 1796 investigations into the chemical nature of diamond concluded __ a form of pure carbon.

(A) that it

(B) is it

(C) that it is

(D) is that

2. The English colonization of Virginia was devised in 1606 by a group of merchants _______ the Virginia Company of London.

(A) who formed

(B) formed

(C) who they formed

(D) they formed

3. The hourglass, an instrument used ____, usually consists of two bulbs united by a narrow neck.

(A) measures time

(B) time is measured

(C) for measuring time

(D) the time for measuring

4. A master is an electronic apparatus that _________ radio and light waves.

(A) generated and was amplified

(B) generating and amplifying

(C) generates and amplifies

(D) to generate and amplify

5. The human skin forms ________ against the action of physical, chemical, and bacterial agents on the deeper tissues.

(A) how protective a barrier is

(B) a protective barrier

(C) a barrier protects

(D) and which a barrier protects

6. Medical research at the cellular level, ___ research on the immune system, has been made possible through twentieth-century advances in techniques of genetic research.

(A) which

(B) whereas

(C) such as

(D) is also

7. Living organisms contain more water _________ substance.

(A) than do any other

(B) does than any other

(C) other than do they any

(D) than they do any other

8. The twentieth century has been a period of enormous growth in mathematical research and in the number of mathematicians and fields _________ them.

(A) they require

(B) requiring

(C) require

(D) as required

9. Columbia University’s School of Public Health is _________ a handful of schools of public health in the United States.

(A) one that

(B) the one

(C) one of

(D) one

10. The United States Department of the interior designated the Brooklyn bridge ________ in 1964.

(A) was a national historic landmark

(B) a national historic landmark

(C) which a national historic landmark

(D) a national historic landmark which

11. In jazz music, a riff is a simple melodic figure, _________ and repeated several times.

(A) usually one or two measures lasted

(B) lasted one measure or two usually

(C) is lasting one or two measures usually

(D) usually lasting one or two measures

12. At its center, the sun has a density of over a hundred times _______ and a temperature of 10 to 20 million degrees centigrade.

(A) that of water

(B) of water

(C) than that of water

(D) water

13. The United States Congress appropriates some four million dollars _________ the upkeep of the White House grounds.

(A) year for a

(B) for a year

(C) a year for

(D) a for year

14. The sea horse uses __ to cling to the seaweed and other plants.

(A) it has a tail

(B) a tail with which it

(C) its tail

(D) as its tail

15.    In the years ahead, health professionals will be able to enhance or restore health far better _________ at present.

(A) whereas

(B) they can

(C) than

(D) that are

16. The constitution of New Hampshire, a second oldest among those of the fifty states, was adopted in 1784.

17. Elinor Wylie’s writings consist of eight books---four novels and four volumes of poem---in which she displayed a knowledge of both history and literature.

18. In addition to their usefulness as scavengers, birds are of enormous value to humans because of they eat insects and control the spread of weeds.

19. When precipitation occurs, some of it evaporates, some runs off the surface it strikes, and some sinking into the ground.

20. The astronauts chosen for fly the first United States spacecraft were selected from military test pilots.

21. Tarantulas inject a paralyzing venom into prey or with their large fangs.

22. Born in New York City in 1891, Preston Dickinson was one of the pioneers of modern artistic in the United States.

23. The water of the Atlantic, Pacific, and Indian Oceans make up 70.8 percent to the Earth’s surface.

24. The three main television networks in the United States account for more advertising dollars than any others medium.

25. In 1913 when he was only 18 year old, Leo Sowerby’s violin concerto was performed by the Chicago Symphony.

26. Fossil records support the assumption which microorganisms were the first forms of life.

27. The St. Louis Post-Dispatch was founded in 1878 and by 1881 had become the most largest evening newspaper in the city.

28. In artifacts from as early as the Stone Age, mathematics and art can be seen to have fused in the geometric patterns decorate pottery, weaving, and carpentry.

29. Despite their common heritage, background, and homogeneity, the original United States consisted of 13 distinct political entities, each commanding considerable loyal from its citizenry.

30. The choreographer George Balanchine created more than 150 works for the New York City Ballet, that which he was a founder.

31. Some ways in which lizards different from snake are in having ear openings, moveable eyelids, and less flexible jaws.

32. Much of the work of the anthropologist Margaret Mead was devoting to a study of patterns of child rearing in various cultures.

33. The feathers of birds not only protect their skin from injury and conserve body heat, but also function in flight, courtship, camouflage, and sensory perceptive.

34. Of the many mushroom species growing wild, the common field mushroom is the one that is most frequently gather for human consumption.

35. Carl Roger’s client-centered therapy is now widely employed and is among the most influential technique in modern United States clinical psychology.

36. Female horseflies transmit a few diseases, but their main significance as pests is in sting of their bite.

37. Despite a lack of navigably waterways, Madison, Wisconsin, developed into a manufacturing center as well as a major trade nucleus during the 1800’s.

38. The food and water that people consume them come from the environment, provided either by nature or through the work of farmers and other producers.

39. Communal dance, as a powerful symbol of mutual regard and cooperation group, underlies enduring traditions in folk dancing.

40. More than 800 major oil company have plants and offices in Tulsa, Oklahoma, the site of the international petroleum exposition.

Questions 12-20

If food is allowed to stand for some time, it putrefies .When the putrefied material is examined microscopically ,it is found to be teeming with bacteria. Where do these bacteria come from , since they are not seen in fresh food? Even until the mid-nineteenth century, many people (5)believed that such microorganisms originated by spontaneous generation, a hypothetical process by which living organisms develop from nonliving matter.

The most powerful opponent of the theory of spontaneous generation was the French chemist and microbiologist Louis Pasteur (1822-1895). (10) Pasteur showed that structures present in air closely resemble the microorganisms seen in putrefying materials .He did this by passing air through guncotton filters, the fibers of which stop solid particles. After the guncotton was dissolved in a mixture of alcohol and ether, the particles that it had trapped fell to the bottom of the liquid and were examined on a (15) microscope slide. Pasteur found that in ordinary air these exists a variety of solid structures ranging in size from 0.01 mm to more than 1.0 mm. Many of these bodies resembled the reproductive structures of common molds, single-celled animals, and various other microbial cells. As many as 20 to 30 of them were found in fifteen liters of ordinary air, (20) and they could not be distinguished from the organisms found in much larger numbers in putrefying materials. Pasteur concluded that the organisms found in putrefying materials originated from the organized bodies present in the air. He postulated that these bodies are constantly being deposited on all objects.

(25) Pasteur showed that if a nutrient solution was sealed in a glass flask and heated to boiling to destroy all the living organisms contaminating it, it never putrefied. The proponents of spontaneous generation declared that fresh air was necessary for spontaneous generation and that the air inside the sealed flask was affected in some way by heating so that it would no (30) longer support spontaneous generation. Pasteur constructed a swan-necked flask in which putrefying materials could he heated to boiling, but air could reenter. The bends in the neck prevented microorganisms from getting in the flask… Material sterilized in such a flask did not putrefy.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Pasteur’s influence on the development of the microscope.

(B) The origin of the theory of spontaneous generation .

(C) The effects of pasteurization on food.

(D) Pasteur’s argument against the theory of spontaneous generation .

2. The phrase “teeming with” in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) full of

(B) developing into

(C) resistant to

(D) hurt by

3. Which of the following questions did the theory of spontaneous generation attempt to answer?

(A) What is the origin of the living organisms are seen on some food?

(B) How many types of organisms can be found on food?

(C) What is the most effective way to prepare living organisms for microscopic examination?

(D) How long can food stand before it putrefies?

4. The word “resemble” in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) benefit from

(B) appear similar to

(C) join together with

(D) grow from

5. The purpose of the “guncotton” mentioned in paragraph 2 was to

(A) trap particles for analysis

(B) slow the process of putrefaction

(C) increase the airflow to the microscopic slide

(D) aid the mixing of alcohol and ether

6. The author mention “1.0mm” in line 16 in describing the

(A) thickness of a layer of organisms that was deposited on an object

(B) diameter of the fibers that were in the guncotton filters

(C) thickness of the microscope slides that were used

(D) size of the particles that that were collected

7. The word “postulated” in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) analyzed

(B) doubted

(C) persuaded

(D) suggested

8. The objects that Pasteur removed from the air in his experiment were remarkable because they were

(A) primarily single-celled organisms

(B) no different from objects found in putrefying materials

(C) fairly rare

(D) able to live in a mixture of alcohol and ether

9. The word “it” in line 26 refers to

(A) a nutrient solution

(B) a glass flask

(C) boiling

(D) spontaneous generation

10. According to paragraph 3, proponents of spontaneous generation believed that which of the following was important for the process to succeed ?

(A) A sealed container

(B) Fresh air

(C) Heat

(D) The presence of nutrients

11. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that Pasteur employed a swam-necked flask to

(A) store sterilized liquids for use in future experiments

(B) prevent heat from building up in a solution

(C) disprove a criticism of his conclusions

(D) estimate the number of organisms in a liter of air

Questions 12-20

In the early decades of the United States, the agrarian movement promoted the farmer as society’s hero. In the minds of agrarian thinkers and writers, the farmer was a person on whose well-being the health of the new country depended. The period between the Revolution, which ended (5) in 1783, and the Civil War, which ended in 1865, was the age of the farmer in the United States. Agrarian philosophers, represented most eloquently by Thomas Jefferson, celebrated farmers extravagantly for their supposed centrality in a good society, their political virtue, and their Superior morality. And virtually all policy makers, whether they (10)subscribed to the tenets of the philosophy held by Jefferson or not, recognized agriculture as the key component of the American economy. Consequently, government at all levels worked to encourage farmers as a social group and agriculture as economic enterprise.

Both the national and state governments developed transportation infrastructure, building canals, roads, bridges, and railroads, deepening harbors, and removing obstructions from navigable streams .The national government imported plant and animal varieties and launched exploring expeditions into prospective farmlands in the West. In addition, government trade policies facilitated the exporting of agricultural products.

(20) For their part, farmers seemed to meet the social expectations agrarian philosophers had for them, as their broader horizons and greater self-respect, both products of the Revolution, were reflected to some degree in their behavior. Farmers seemed to become more scientific, joining agricultural societies and reading the farm newspapers that sprang up throughout the country. They began using improved implements, tried new crops and pure animal breeds, and became more receptive to modern theories of soil improvement.

They also responded to inducements by national and state governments. Farmers streamed to the West, filling frontier lands with (30)stunning rapidity. But farmers responded less to the expectations of agrarians and government inducements than to growing market opportunities. European demand for food from the United States seemed insatiable. War, industrialization, and urbanization all kept demand high in Europe. United States cities and industries grew as well; even industries not directly related to farming thrived because of the market, money, and labor that agriculture provided.

12. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The agrarian philosophy of Thomas Jefferson

(B) The role of the national government in the development of agriculture

(C) Improvements in farming techniques

(D) The impact of the increased importance of the farmer

13. The word “depended” in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) improved

(B) relied

(C) demanded

(D) explained

14. The author mentions Thomas Jefferson in paragraph 1 as an example of

(A) a leader during the Revolution

(B) an inventor of new farming techniques

(C) a philosopher who believed farmers were essential to the creation of a good society

(D) a farmer who guided the agrarian movement toward an emphasis on economic development

15. The phrase “subscribed to” in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) contributed to

(B) agreed with

(C) thought about

(D) expanded on

16. Which of the following statements is supported by the information in paragraph 1?

(A) All government policy makers accepted Jefferson’s views of agriculture and farmers.

(B) Agricultural production declined between 1783 and 1861.

(C) The majority of farmers worked for the government.

(D) Agriculture was a vital part of the nation’s economy.

17. According to the passage , the national and state governments did all of the following EXCEPT

(A) build roads

(B) import new plant varieties

(C) give farmers money for their crops

(D) develop policies that helped farmers export their products

18. All of the following are mentioned as examples of farmers’ meeting the expectations of agrarian philosophers EXCEPT

(A) obtaining information from farm newspapers

(B) accumulating personal wealth

(C) planting new crops

(D) becoming more scientific

19. The word “stunning” in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) predictable

(B) impressive

(C) famous

(D) gradual

20. Which of the following statements is best supported by paragraph 4?

(A) Agricultural development contributed to development in other parts of the economy.

(B) European agricultural products were of a higher quality than those produced in the United States.

(C) The growing settlement of the West led to a decrease in agricultural production.

(D) Farmers were influenced more by government policies than by market opportunities.

Question 21-29

The wide variety of climates in North America has helped spawn a complex pattern of soil regions. In general, the realm’s soils also reflect the broad environmental partitioning into “humid America” and “arid America.” Where annual precipitation exceeds 20 inches (50 centimeters), (5) soils in humid areas tend to be acidic in chemical content, Since crops do best in soils that are neither acidic (higher in acid content) nor alkaline (higher in salt content). Fertilization is necessary to achieve the desired level of neutrality between the two. Arid America’s soils are typically alkaline and must be fertilized back toward neutrality by adding acidic (10) compounds. Although many of these dryland soils, particularly in the Great Plains, are quite fertile, European settlers learned over a century ago that water is the main missing ingredient in achieving their agricultural potential. In the 1970’s, certain irrigation methods were perfected and finally provided a real opportunity to expand more intensive farming west from the Central Lowland into the drier portions of the Great Plains. Glaciations also enhanced the rich legacy of fertile soils in the central United States, both from the deposition of mineral-rich glacial debris left by meltwater and from thick layers of fine wind-blown glacial material, called loess, in and around the middle Mississippi Valley.

(20) Natural vegetation patterns could be displayed on a map of North America, but the enormous human modification of the North American environment in modern times has all but reduced this regionalization scheme to the level of the hypothetical. Nonetheless, the humid America-arid America dichotomy is still a valid generalization: the natural vegetation of areas receiving more than 20 inches of water yearly is forest, whereas the drier climates give rise to a grassland cover. The forests of North America tent to make a broad transition by latitude. In the Canadian North, needle-leaf forests dominate, but these coniferous trees become mixed with broadleaf deciduous trees as one crosses the border into the (30) Northeast United States. As one proceeds toward the Southeast, broadleaf vegetation becomes dominant. Arid America mostly consists of short-grass prairies or stepper. The only areas of true desert are in the Southwest.

21. What aspect of North America does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The wide variety of climates

(B) Soil types and vegetation patterns

(C) Improved irrigation methods and the expansion of agriculture

(D) The change in precipitation patterns

22. The word “spawn ” in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) distinguish

(B) eliminate

(C) protect

(D) create

23. The word “partitioning” in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) division

(B) modification

(C) opening

(D) circulating

24. According to the passage, acidic soils tent to be associated with

(A) a high salt content

(B) an increase in farming

(C) large amounts of rain

(D) glacial meltwater

25. The word “enhanced” in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) implied

(B) increased

(C) indicated

(D) informed

26. How did glacial meltdown affect the soil in North America?

(A) It redistributed the soil types

(B) It added salt to the soil

(C) It made the soil more neutral in content

(D) It added minerals to the soil

27. The phrase “this regionalization scheme” in line 22 refers to the

(A) movements of glacial deposits

(B) patterns of natural vegetation

(C) human modification of the North American environment

(D) distinction between humid America and arid America

28. The word “transition” in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) elevation

(B) change

(C) advantage

(D) condition

29. The passage supports which of the following statements?

(A) Arid America is not necessarily characterized by the presence of deserts

(B) Most of Canada and the northeastern United States consists of short-grass prairies wherever natural vegetation has not been modified by humans

(C) The accumulation of loess is primarily the result of irrigation

(D) Glaciations removed the fertile layer of soil from much of the Mississippi Valley

Questions 30-40

Most sources of illumination generate light over an appreciable period, and indeed if an object is lit for a very brief time (less that 1/25 second), the human eye will not react in time to see the object. A photographic emulsion---that is, a light-sensitive coating on photographic (5) film, paper, or glass---will, however, record much shorter bursts of light. A photographic flash can therefore be used to capture high-speed movement on film as well as to correct deficiencies of the normal surrounding lighting. Photoflash is now enerated electronically, but the earliest form, first used in 1864, was a paper bag containing magnesium (10) wire and some oxygen-rich substance, such as potassium chlorate. When the bag was ignited, the metal burned with an intense flash. A contemporary observer reported that “this quite unsafe device seems to have done nothing worse that engulf the room in dense smoke and lead to pictures of dubious quality and odd poses.”

(15) The evolution of the photoflash was slow, flashbulbs, containing fine wire made of a metal, such as magnesium or aluminum, capable of being ignited in an atmosphere of pure oxygen at low pressure, were introduced only in the 1920’s. In the earliest type, the metal was separated from the oxygen by a thin glass bulb. The flash was fired by piercing the bulb and (20) allowing the oxygen to come into contact with the metal, which ignited spontaneously. Later bulbs were fired by an electric battery, which heated the wire by passing a small current through it. Other combinations, such as the pairing of oxygen difluoride with zirconium, have also been used. In each case enough energy is given out to heat the oxidizable metal (25) momentarily to a white-hot emission of visible light. The smoke particles are so small that they cool rapidly; but since they are white, they contribute to the brilliance by reflecting the light from their still-glowing neighbors. A slightly bigger form of the metal will burn for a longer time.

30. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The history of the photoflash

(B) Theories about how the eye reacts to light

(C) The technology of modern photography

(D) The dangers of using the early photoflash

31. According to the passage, 1/25 second is the minimum amount of time required for the

(A) recording of an image on film

(B) generation of artificial light

(C)  creation of a photographic emulsion

(D) human eye to react to light

32. According to the passage, an advantage of using a photoflash is that it

(A) can produce repeated bursts of light

(B) intensities colors in photographs

(C) is short enough not to bother human eyes

(D) supplements existing lighting

33. The word “ignited” in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) set on fire

(B) cut into

(C) opened

(D) shaken

34. Which of the following phrases is defined in paragraph 1?

(A) “appreciable period” (line 1)

(B) “photographic emulsion” (line 4)

(C) “high-speed movement” (line 6)

(D) “odd poses” (line 14)

35. The word “evolution” in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) publicity

(B) adoption

(C) development

(D) manufacture

36. The function of the glass in the first flashbulbs was to

(A) produce the spark that initiated the flash

(B) magnify the light produced by the flash

(C) protect the photographer from the heat of the flash

(D) keep the metal and oxygen apart before the flash

37. The word “it” in line 22 refers to

(A) oxygen

(B) battery

(C) wire

(D) current

38. The word “momentarily” in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) effortlessly

(B) briefly

(C) electronically

(D) gradually

39. According to the passage, the white color of the smoke particles generated by a flashbulb contributes to

(A) rapid cooling

(B) bright illumination

(C) electrical conductivity

(D) intense heat

40. According to the passage, a flashbulb can be made to burn longer by using

(A) thicker wire

(B) more oxygen

(C) thinner glass

(D) continuous electricity

Questions 41-50

The stylistic innovation in paining known as Impressionism began in the 1870’s. The Impressionists wanted to depict what they saw in nature, but they were inspired to portray fragmentary moments by the increasingly fast pace of modern life. They concentrated on the play of light over (5)objects, people, and nature, breaking up seemingly solid surfaces, stressing vivid contrast between colors in sunlight and shade, and depiction reflected light in all of its possibilities. Unlike earlier artists, they did not want to observe the world from indoors. They abandoned the studio, painting in the open air and recording spontaneous Impressions of their subjects instead of making outside sketches and then moving indoors to complete the work form memory.

(12)  Some of the Impressionists’ painting methods were affected by technological advances. For example, the shift from the studio to the open air was made possible in part by the advent of cheap rail travel, which permitted easy and quick access to the countryside or seashore, as well as by newly developed chemical dyes and oils that led to collapsible paint tubes, which enabled artists to finish their paintings on the spot.

(18) Impressionism acquired its name not from supporters but from angry art lovers who felt threatened by the new painting. The term “Impressionism” was born in 1874, when a group of artists who had been working together organized an exhibition of their paintings in order to draw public attention to their work. Reaction from the public and press was immediate, and derisive. Among the 165 paintings exhibited was one (25) called Impression: Sunrise, by Claude Monet(1840-1926),Viewed through hostile eyes, Monet’s painting of a rising sun over a misty, watery scene seemed messy, slapdash, and an affront to good taste. Borrowing Monet’s title, art critics extended the term “Impressionism” to the entire exhibit. In response, Monet and his 29 fellow artists in the exhibit adopted the same name as a badge of their unity, despite individual differences.

(31) From then until 1886 Impressionism had all the zeal of a “church”, as the painter Renoir put it. Monet was faithful to the Impressionist creed until his death, although many of the others moved on to new styles.

41. What aspect of painting in the nineteenth century does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The impact of some artists’ resistance to the fast pace of life

(B) The differences between two major styles of art

(C) A technological advance in the materials used by artists

(D) A group of artists with a new technique and approach to art

42. The word “depict” in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) reorganize

(B) deform

(C) represent

(D) justify

43. According to the passage, which of the following was one of the distinguishing characteristics of Impressionist painting?

(A) The emphasis on people rather than nature scenes

(B) The way the subjects were presented from multiple angles

(C) The focus on small solid objects

(D) The depiction of the effects of light and color

44. Which of the following is a significant way in which Impressionists were different from the artists that preceded them?

(A) They began by making sketches of their subjects

(B) They painted their subjects out-of-doors

(C) They preferred to paint from memory

(D) They used subjects drawn from modern life

45. The word “advent” in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) achievement

(B) acceptance

(C) arrival

(D) advantage

46. The exhibition of paintings organized in 1874 resulted in all of the following EXCEPT

(A) attracting attention from the public

(B) a negative reaction from the press

(C) an immediate demand for the paintings exhibited

(D) creating a name for a new style of painting

47. The word “affront” in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) insult

(B) encouragement

(C) return

(D) credit

48. The rejection of the Impressionist exhibition by critics was caused by which of the following?

(A) The small number of paintings on display

(B) Lack of interest in exhibitions by young artists

(C) The similarity between all the paintings exhibited

(D) Anger about seemingly poorly painted art

49. The author mentions Renoir in line 30 to give an example of an artist who

(A) became as famous as Monet

(B) was consistently praised by art critics

(C) described the enthusiasm of the Impressionists for their work

(D) was in favor of a traditional style of painting

50. The word “others” in line 33 refers to

(A) art critics

(B) fellow artists

(C) individual differences

(D) new styles

2003年10月语法题

1. The musical comedy Oklahoma did much to expand the potential of the musical stage, and it encouraged others to attempt____

(A) original themes

(B) to original themes

(C) that were original themes

(D) how original themes

2. Despite its fishlike form, the whale is _________ and will drown if submerged too long.

(A) an animal breathes air that

(B) an animal that breathes air

(C) an animal breathes air

(D) that an animal breathes air

3. The saguaro, found in desert regions in the southwestern United States, __ cactus in the world.

(A) is the largest

(B) the largest

(C) that is the largest

(D) the largest that is a

4. It is said that United Stales literature ______ individuality and identity in the twentieth century, after long imitation of European models.

(A) was achieved

(B) achieved

(C) to achieve

(D) achieving

5. Lucy Stone, ____ first feminists in the United States, helped organize the American Woman Suffrage Association in 1869.

(A) the one

(B) who was the

(C) another

(D) one of the

6. ____ including climate, mineral content, and the permanency of surface water, wetlands may be mossy, grassy,  scrubby, or wooded.

(A) Depending on many factors

(B) Many factors depending on

(C) Factors depending on many

(D) On many factors depending

7. Duke Ellington’s orchestra, __ his own often complex compositions, made many innovations in jazz.

(A) he played

(B) playing

(C) that it played

(D) was playing

8. The term “ice age” refers to any of several periods of time when glaciers covered considerably more of Earth’s surface ________.

(A) as is today

(B) than today is

(C) than they do today

(D) that today

9. From colonial times, United States property owners agreed to tax themselves on the theory ______ directly from services that the government could provide.

(A) property owners benefited so that

(B) why property owners benefited

(C) that if property owners benefited

(D) that property owners benefited

10. Helium is not flammable and, next to hydrogen, is__________.

(A) known the lightest gas

(B) lightest the known gas

(C) the lightest gas known

(D) the known gas lightest

11. Wild eagles that survive to adulthood are believed ______ from 20 to 30 years.

(A) live

(B) to live

(C) they live

(D) their living

12. Portland, ______, is located primarily on two hilly peninsulas overlooking Casco Bay and its many islands.

(A) which Maine’s largest city

(B) Maine’s largest city where

(C) is Maine’s largest city

(D) Maine’s largest city

13. __ widely used in the chemical industry, sodium carbonate is principally consumed by the glass industry.

(A) Despite

(B) Whether

(C) Though

(D) Except for

14. Cells, first identified by the early microscopists, began to be considered _________ in the nineteenth century.

(A) them as microcosm of living organisms

(B) the microcosm of living organisms

(C) the microcosm of living organisms to be

(D) as which, the microcosm of living organisms

15. Like Jupiter, Saturn is a large, gaseous planet composed _______ of hydrogen and helium.

(A) it is mostly

(B) mostly

(C) almost

(D) both are almost

16．Bacterial cultures are used commercially in the preparation of food products such that yogurt, sour cream, and vinegar.

17. Anyone with absolute, or perfect, pitch are able to identify by ear any note at some standard pitch or to sing a specified note at will.

18. Sea horses usually live along the shore among seaweed and other plants to which they cling to by their tails.

19. Babies have soft spots between the bones of their skulls, which allowing for further growth.

20. T.S.Elot,  who a poet, playwright, literary critic, and editor, was a leader of the Modemist movement in poetry.

21.The Pacific Ocean comprises almost the entire boundary western of North and South America.

22. Established in 1948, the State University of New York is the singly largest university system in the United States.

23. Photography disseminates information about humanity and nature, records the visible world, and extension human knowledge into areas the eye cannot penetrate.

24. Because of their rapidly changing economically fortunes, many frontier towns of the American West underwent spectacular fluctuations in population in the nineteenth century.

25. Virtually no disease exists today for which there is no drug that can be given, neither to cure the disease or to alleviate its symptoms.

26. Calcium is essential for blood clotting, for the action of certain enzymes, and for the normal contraction and relax of muscles.

27. The large collection of the Williams College Museum of Art includes ancient and medieval art, but much exhibits are modern or contemporary.

28. The technique of spectroscopy allows analyst of incoming light after it has been separated into its component wavelengths by passage through a prism.

29. Today, fifty years after its construction, the Alaska Highway conveys 40,000 vehicles in normal year.

30. Since prehistoric times, artists have been arranged colors on surfaces in ways that express their ideas about people, the world, and religion.

31. Few substances look less alike than coal and diamonds, yet both are fashioned from same elemental carbon.

32. Meteorologists can program their computes to scan for a specific set of weather criteria, such as falling barometric pressure, increase cloud cover, and rising humidity.

33. Obsidian is formed when siliceous lava cools too rapidly to crystallized into rock-forming minerals.

34. European settlers in North America moved from the Atlantic coast across 3,000 miles forests, grasslands, deserts, and mountains until they reached the Pacific Ocean.

35. Philosophy tries to discover the nature of true and knowledge and to find what is of basic value and importance in life.

36. In this world of high technology, it is easy to forget that the most important tools ever developed for learning is still the book.

37. The element potassium makes up less than one half percentage of the human body.

38. Twenty thousand years ago a sheet of ice a thousand meters thick covered the coastal region which the cities of Vancouver and Juneau now are located.

39. The Crow, Blackfoot, and Sioux tribes traditionally adorned they dwellings and costumes with colorful and highly valued beaded decorations.

40. In the late 1800’s, United States painter Thomas Eakins develop a broad, powerful Realist style that became almost expressionistic in his later years.

Questions 1-9:

Europa is the smallest of planet Jupiter’s four largest moons and the second moon out from Jupiter. Until 1979, it was just another astronomy textbook statistic. Then came the close-up images obtained by the exploratory spacecraft Voyager 2, and within days, Europa was (5)transformed-in our perception, at least-into one of the solar system’s most intriguing worlds. The biggest initial surprise was the almost total lack of detail, especially from far away. Even at close range, the only visible features are thin, kinked brown lines resembling cracks in an eggshell. And this analogy is not far off the mark.

(10) The surface of Europa is almost pure water ice, but a nearly complete absence of craters indicates that Europa’s surface ice resembles Earth’s Antarctic ice cap. The eggshell analogy may be quite accurate since the ice could be as little as a few kilometers thick –a true shell around what is (15)likely a subsurface liquid ocean that , in turn, encases a rocky core. The interior of Europa has been kept warm over the eons by tidal forces generated by the varying gravitational tugs of the other big moons as they wheel around Jupiter. The tides on Europa pull and relax in an endless cycle. The resulting internal heat keeps what would otherwise be ice (20)melted almost to the surface. The cracklike marks on Europa’s icy face appear to be fractures where water or slush oozes from below.

Soon after Voyager 2’s encounter with Jupiter in 1979, when the best images of Europa were obtained, researchers advanced the startling idea that Europa’s subsurface ocean might harbor life. Life processes could (25) have begun when Jupiter was releasing a vast store of internal heat. Jupiter’s early heat was produced by the compression of the material forming the giant planet. Just as the Sun is far less radiant today than the primal Sun, so the internal heat generated by Jupiter is minor compared to its former intensity. During this warm phase, some 4.6 billion years ago, (30) Europa’s ocean may have been liquid right to the surface, making it a crucible for life.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The effect of the tides on Europa’s interior

(B) Temperature variations on Jupiter’s moons

(C) Discoveries leading to a theory about one of Jupiter’s moons

(D) Techniques used by Voyager 2 to obtain close-up images.

2. The word “intriguing” in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) changing

(B) perfect

(C) visible

(D) fascinating

3. In line 8, the another mentions “cracks in an eggshell” in order to help readers

(A) visualize Europa as scientists saw it in the Voyager 2 images

(B) appreciate the extensive and detailed information available by viewing Europa from far away

(C) understand the relationship of Europa to the solar system

(D) recognize the similarity of Europa to Jupiter’s other moons

4. It can be inferred from the passage that astronomy textbooks prior to 1979

(A) provided many contradictory statistics about Europa

(B) considered Europa the most important of Jupiter’s moons

(C) did not emphasize Europa because little information of interest was available

(D) did nor mention Europa because it had not yet been discovered

5. What does the author mean by stating in line 9 that “this analogy is not far off the mark”?

(A) The definition is not precise.

(B) The discussion lacks necessary information.

(C) The differences are probably significant.

(D) The comparison is quite appropriate.

6. IT can be inferred from the passage that Europa and Antarctica have in common which of the following?

(A) Both appear to have a surface with many craters.

(B) Both may have water beneath a thin, hard surface.

(C) Both have an ice can that is melting rapidly.

(D) Both have areas encased by a rocky exterior.

7.  The word “endless” in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) new

(B) final

(C) temporary

(D) continuous

8.  According to the passage, what is the effect of Jupiter’s other large moons on Europa?

(A) They prevent Europa’s subsurface waters from freezing.

(B) They prevent tides that could damage Europa’s surface.

(C) They produce the very hard layer of ice that characterizes Europa.

(D) They assure that the gravitational pull on Europa is maintained at a steady level.

9. According to the passage, what is believed to cause the thin lines seen on Europa’s surface?

(A) A long period of extremely high tides

(B) Water breaking through from beneath the surface ice

(C) The continuous pressure of slush on top of the ice

(D) Heat generated by the hot rocky core

Question 10-19

Both in what is now the eastern and the southwestern United States, the peoples of the Archaic era (8,000-1,000 B.C) were, in a way, already adapted to beginnings of cultivation through their intensive gathering and processing of wild plant foods. In both areas, there was a well-established (5) ground stone tool technology, a method of pounding and grinding nuts and other plant foods, that could be adapted to newly cultivated foods. By the end of the Archaic era, people in eastern North America had domesticated certain native plants, including sunflowers; weeds called goosefoot, sumpweed, or marsh elder; and squash or gourds of some kind. (10) These provided seeds that were important sources of carbohydrates and fat in the diet.

The earliest cultivation seems to have taken place along the river valleys of the Midwest and the Southeast, with experimentation beginning as early as 7,000 years ago and domestication beginning 4,000 to 2,000 (15) years ago. Although the term “Neolithic” is not used in North American prehistory, these were the first steps toward the same major subsistence changes that took place during the Neolithic (8,000-2,000 B.C.) period elsewhere in the world.

Archaeologists debate the reasons for beginning cultivation in the (20)eastern part of the continent. Although population and sedentary living were increasing at the time, there is little evidence that people lacked adequate wild food resources; the newly domesticated foods supplemented a continuing mixed subsistence of hunting, fishing, and gathering wild plants, Increasing predictability of food supplies may have been a motive. (25) It has been suggested that some early cultivation was for medicinal and ceremonial plants rather than  for food. One archaeologist has pointed out that the early domesticated plants were all weedy species that do well in open, disturbed habitats, the kind that would form around human settlements where people cut down trees, trample the ground, deposit (30)trash, and dig holes. It has been suggested that sunflower, sumpweed, and other plants almost domesticated themselves, that is , they thrived in human –disturbed habitats, so humans intensively collected them and began to control their distribution. Women in the Archaic communities were probably the main experimenters with cultivation, because (35)ethnoarchaeological evidence tells us that women were the main collectors of plant food and had detailed knowledge of plants.

10. The passage mainly discusses which of the following aspects of the life of Archaic peoples?

(A) The principal sources of food that made up their diet

(B) Their development of ground stone tool technology

(C) Their development of agriculture

(D) Their distribution of work between men and women

11. The word “these” in line 16 refers to

(A)  seeds

(B)  river valleys

(C)  the Midwest and the Southeast

(D) experimentation and domestication

12. According to the passage, when did the domestication of plants begin in North America?

(A) 7,000 years ago

(B) 4,000 to 2,000 years ago

(C) Long after the Neolithic period

(D) Before the Archaic period

13. The word “adequate” in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) sufficient

(B) healthful

(C) varied

(D) dependable

14. According to the passage, which of the following was a possible motive for the cultivation of plants in eastern North America?

(A) Lack of enough wild food sources

(B) The need to keep trees from growing close to settlements

(C) Provision of work for an increasing population

(D) Desire for the consistent availability of food

15. The phrase “rather than” in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) in addition to

(B) instead of

(C) as a replacement

(D) such as

16. The plant “sumpweed” is mentioned in line 30 in order to

(A) contrast a plant with high nutritional value with one with little nutritional value

(B) explain the medicinal use of a plant

(C) clarify which plants grew better in places where trees were not cut down

(D) provide an example of a plant that was easy to domesticate

17. The word “thrived” in line 31 is closest in meaning to

(A) stayed

(B) originated

(C) grew well

(D) died out

18. According to the passage, which of the following is true about all early domesticated plants?

(A) They were varieties of weeds.

(B) They were moved from disturbed areas.

(C) They succeeded in areas with many trees.

(D) They failed to grow in trampled or damaged areas.

19. According to the passage, it is thought that most of the people who began cultivating plants were

(A) medical workers

(B) leaders of ceremonies

(C) women

(D) hunters

Questions 20-29

Many ants forage across the countryside in large numbers and undertake mass migrations; these activities proceed because one ant lays a trail on the ground for the others to follow. As a worker ant returns home after finding a source of food, it marks the route by intermittently touching (5) its stinger to the ground and depositing a tiny amount of trail pheromone – a mixture of chemicals that delivers diverse messages as the context changes. These trails incorporate no directional information and may be followed by other ants in either direction.

Unlike some other messages, such as the one arising from a dead ant, (10) a food trail has to be kept secret from members of other species. It is not surprising then that ant species use a wide variety of compounds as trail pheromones. Ants can be extremely sensitive to these signals. Investigators working with the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant Atta texana calculated that one milligram of this substance would suffice to (15) lead a column of ants three times around Earth.

The vapor of the evaporating pheromone over the trail guides an ant along the way, and the ant detects this signal with receptors in its antennae. A trail pheromone will evaporate to furnish the highest concentration of vapor right over the trail, in what is called a vapor space. In following the (20) trail, the ant moves to the right and left, oscillating from side to side across the line of the trail itself, bringing first one and then the other antenna into the vapor space. As the ant moves to the right, its left antenna arrives in the vapor space.

The signal it receives causes it to swing to the left, and the ant then (25) pursues this new course until its right antenna reaches the vapor space. It then swings back to the right, and so weaves back and forth down the trail.

20. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The mass migration of ants

(B) How ants mark and follow a chemical trail

(C) Different species of ants around the world

(D) The information contained in pheromones

21. The word “forage” in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) look up

(B) walk toward

(C) revolve around

(D) search for food

22. The word “intermittently” in live 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) periodically

(B) incorrectly

(C) rapidly

(D) roughly

23. The phrase “the one” in line 9 refers to a single

(A) message

(B) dead ant

(C) food trail

(D) species

24. According to the passage, why do ants use different compounds as trail pheromones?

(A) To reduce their sensitivity to some chemicals

(B) To attract different types of ants

(C) To protect their trail from other species

(D) To indicate how far away the food is

25. The author mentions the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant in line 11 to point out

(A) how little pheromone is needed to mark a trail

(B) the different types of pheromones ants can produce

(C) a type of ant that is common in many parts of the world

(D) that certain ants can produce up to one milligram of pheromone

26. According to the passage, how are ants guided by trail pheromones?

(A) They concentrate on the smell of food.

(B) They follow an ant who is familiar with the trail

(C) They avoid the vapor spaces by moving in a straight line.

(D) They sense the vapor through their antennae.

27. The word “furnish” in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) include

(B) provide

(C) cover

(D) select

28. The word “oscillating “ in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) falling

(B) depositing

(C) swinging

(D) starting

29. According to the passage, the highest amount of pheromone vapor is found

(A) in the receptors of the ants

(B) just above the trail

(C) in the source of food

(D) under the soil along the trail

Questions 30-39

Native Americans probably arrived from Asia in successive waves over several millennia, crossing a plain hundreds of miles wide that now lies inundated by 160 feet of water released by melting glaciers. For several periods of time, the first beginning around 60,000 B.C. and the last (5) ending around 7,000 B.C., this land bridge was open. The first people traveled in the dusty trails of the animals they hunted. They brought with them not only their families, weapons, and tools but also a broad metaphysical understanding, sprung from dreams and visions and articulated in myth and song, which complemented their scientific and (10)historical knowledge of the lives of animals and of people. All this they shaped in a variety of languages, bringing into being oral literatures of power and beauty.

Contemporary readers, forgetting the origins of western epic, lyric, and dramatic forms, are easily disposed to think of “literature” only as (15)something written. But on reflection it becomes clear that the more critically useful as well as the more frequently employed sense of the term concerns the artfulness of the verbal creation, not its mode of presentation. Ultimately, literature is aesthetically valued, regardless of language, culture, or mode of presentation, because some significant verbal (20)achievement results from the struggle in words between tradition and talent. Verbal art has the ability to shape out a compelling inner vision in some skillfully crafted public verbal form.

Of course, the differences between the written and oral modes of expression are not without consequences for an understanding of Native (25) American literature. The essential difference is that a speech event is an evolving communication, an “emergent form,” the  shape, functions, and aesthetic values of which become more clearly realized over the course of the performance. In performing verbal art , the performer assumes responsibility for the manner as well as the content of the (30)performance, while the audience assumes the responsibility for evaluating the performer’s competence in both areas. It is this intense mutual engagement that elicits the display of skill and shapes the emerging performance. Where written literature provides us with a tradition of texts, oral literature offers a tradition of performances.

30. According to the passage, why did the first people who came to North America leave their homeland?

(A) They were hoping to find a better climate.

(B) They were seeking freedom.

(C) They were following instructions given in a dream.

(D) They were looking for food.

31. The phrase “are easily disposed” in line 14 is closet in meaning to

(A) demonstrate reluctance

(B) readily encourage others

(C) have a tendency

(D) often fail

32. The word “Ultimately” in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) frequently

(B) normally

(C) whenever possible

(D) in the end

33. The word “compelling” in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) joyous

(B) intricate

(C) competing

(D) forceful

34. What is the main point of the second paragraph?

(A) Public performance is essential to verbal art.

(B) Oral narratives are a valid form of literature.

(C) Native Americans have a strong oral tradition in art.

(D) The production of literature provides employment for many artists.

35. What can be inferred about the nature of the Native American literature discussed in the passage?

(A) It reflects historical and contemporary life in Asia.

(B) Its main focus is on daily activities.

(C) It is based primarily on scientific knowledge.

(D) It is reshaped each time it is experienced.

36. According to the passage, what responsibility does the audience of a verbal art performance have ?

(A) They provide financial support for performances.

(B) They judge the quality of the content and presentation.

(C) They participate in the performance by chanting responses.

(D) They determine the length of the performance by requesting a continuation.

37. Which of the following is NOT true of the Native American literature discussed in the passage?

(A) It involves acting.

(B) It has ancient origins.

(C) It has a set form.

(D) It expresses an inner vision.

38. What can be inferred from the passage about the difference between written and oral literature?

(A) Written literature reflects social values better than oral literature does.

(B) Written literature involves less interaction between audience and creator during the creative progress than oral literature does.

(C) Written literature usually is not based on historical events, whereas oral literature is.

(D) Written literature is not as highly respected as oral literature is.

39. What is the author’s attitude toward Native American literature?

(A) Admiring of its form

(B) Critical of the cost of its production

(C) Amused by its content

(D) Skeptical about its origins

Questions 40-50

The cities in the United States have been the most visible sponsors and beneficiaries of projects that place art in public places. They have shown exceptional imagination in applying the diverse forms of contemporary art to a wide variety of purposes. The activities observed in a number of (5)“pioneer” cities sponsoring art in public places—a broadening exploration of public sites, an increasing awareness among both sponsors and the public of the varieties of contemporary artistic practice, and a growing public enthusiasm—are increasingly characteristic of cities across the country. With many cities now undergoing renewed development, (10)opportunities are continuously emerging for the inclusion or art in new or renewed public environments, including buildings, plazas, parks, and transportation facilities. The result of these activities is a group of artworks that reflect the diversity of contemporary art and the varying character and goals of the sponsoring communities.

(15) In sculpture, the projects range from a cartoonlike Mermaid in Miami Beach by Roy Lichtenstein to a small forest planted in New York City by Alan Sonfist. The use of murals followed quickly upon the use of sculpture and has brought to public sites the work of artists as different as the realist Thomas Hart Benton and the Pop artist Robert Rauschenberg. The (20)specialized requirements of particular urban situations have further expanded the use of art in public places: in Memphis, sculptor Richard Hunt has created a monument to Martin Luther King, Jr., who was slain there; in New York, Dan Flavin and Bill Brand have contributed neon and animation works to the enhancement of mass transit facilities. And in (25)numerous cities, art is being raised as a symbol of the commitment to revitalize urban areas.

By continuing to sponsor projects involving a growing body of art in public places, cities will certainly enlarge the situations in which the public encounters and grows familiar with the various forms of contemporary art. (30) Indeed, cities are providing artists with an opportunity to communicate with a new and broader audience. Artists are recognizing the distinction between public and private spaces, and taking that into account when executing their public commissions. They are working in new, often more durable media, and on an unaccustomed scale.

40. What is the passage mainly about?

(A) The influence of art on urban architecture in United States cities

(B) The growth of public art in United States cities.

(C) The increase in public appreciation of art in the United States

(D) The differences between public art in Europe and the United States.

41. The word “exceptional” in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) remarkable

(B) fearless

(C) expert

(D) visible

42. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 1 as results of the trend toward installing contemporary art in public places in the United States EXCEPT

(A) the transfer of artwork from private to public sites

(B) artworks that represent a city’s special character

(C) greater interest in art by the American public

(D) a broader understanding of the varieties of contemporary art

43. According to the passage, new settings for public art are appearing

as a result of

(A) communities that are building more art museums

(B) artists who are moving to urban areas

(C) urban development and renewal

(D) an increase in the number of artists in the United States.

44. The author mentions Roy Lichtenstein and Alan Sonfist in line 14 in order to

(A) show that certain artist are famous mostly for their public art

(B) introduce the subject of unusual works of art

(C) demonstrate the diversity of artworks displayed in public

(D) contrast the cities of Miami Beach and New York

45. It can be inferred from the passage that the city of Memphis sponsored a work by Richard Hunt because the city authorities believed that

(A) the sculpture would symbolize the urban renewal of Memphis

(B) Memphis was an appropriate place for a memorial to Martin Luther Ling, Jr.

(C) the artwork would promote Memphis as a center for the arts

(D) the sculpture would provide a positive example to other artists.

46. The word “enhancement” in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) replacement

(B) design

(C) improvement

(D) decoration

47. The word “revitalize” in line 22 is closest in meaning to

(A) show the importance of

(B) promise to enlarge

(C) bring new life to

(D) provide artworks for

48. The word “that” in line 27 refers to

(A) contemporary art

(B) opportunity

(C) audience

(D) distinction

49. The word “executing” in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) judging

(B) selling

(C) explaining

(D) producing

50. According to paragraph 3, artists who work on public art projects are doing all of the following EXCEPT

(A) creating artworks that are unusual in size

(B) raising funds to sponsor various public projects

(C) exposing a large number of people to works of art

(D) using new materials that are long—lasting.

2004年01月TOEFL真题

Section Two: Structure and Written Expression

1. The ancestors of the horse lived ..... and were about half a meter tall.

(A) years ago 60 million

(B) 60 million years ago

(C) ago 60 million years

(D) million years ago 60

2. The museum on Ellis Island, a former immigration station, contains documents and artifacts......to four centuries of United States immigration.

(A) related them

(B) related

(C) related that

(D) be related

3. ......, particularly the oxides of sulfur, greatly increases the rate at which rust forms.

(A) The presence of air pollutants

(B) Air pollutants are present

(C) Because the presence of air pollutants

(D) Air pollutants whose presence

4. The Sun, the Moon, and Earth have magnetic fields, and ...... evidence that the stellar that extend through vast regions galaxies have fields of space.

(A) which is

(B) is

(C) because

(D) There is

5. The “confederation school” poets of nineteenth-century Canada were primarily nature poets, ----- a wealth of eulogies to Canadian rural life.

(A) and producing

(B) who they produced

(C) producing

(D) whose production of

6. Since prehistoric people first applied natural pigments to cave walls, ---- have painted to express themselves.

(A) when artists

(B) artists

(C) artists who

(D) that artists

7. About 42 million bushels of oats are used annually --- manufacture of breakfast foods in die United States.

(A) the

(B) is the

(C) in the

(D) to

8. Any acid can, in principle, neutralize any base, although

(A) side reactions can occur

(B) the occurrence of side reactions can

(C) can side reactions occur

(D) side reactions that can occur

9. Just over two-thirds of Earth’s surface is covered by wafer, ...... more than 98 percent of this water is contained in the oceans.

(A) with

(B) which

(C) and

(D) resulting

l0. Pleasing to look at and touch, beads come in shapes, colors, and materials .......to handle and to sort them.

(A) that almost compel one

(B) one compels

(C) that compel almost

(D) one is almost compelled

11. In 1978 the united States National Air and Space Administration selected Sally Ride.......the first woman astronaut.

(A) who being

(B) to be

(C) and being

(D) was

12. Adhesions are  .......  formed within the body in response to inflammation or injury.

(A) that thin bands of scar tissue

(B) they thin bands of scar tissue when

(C) thin bands of scar tissue

(D) thin bands of scar tissue able to

13. The planet Neptune is about 30 times  ......  from the Sun as Earth is.

(A) far

(B) as far

(C) more far

(D) far that

14. Not until the 1850's ...... a few public-spirited citizens and state legislatures seek to rescue historic buildings in the United States from destruction or alteration.

(A) both

(B) came

(C) did

(D) when

15. ----- 200 bones forming the framework, or skeleton, of the human body.

(A) Being over

(B) There are over

(C) Where over

(D) Over.

16. The world's water balance is regulated by the constant circulation of water in Liquid and vapor tom among the oceans, the atmospheric, and the land.

17. The major purpose of the United States Department of Education are to ensure equal educational opportunity for all and to improve the quality of education.

18. Massive gains in computer speed, power, and reliably have been largely due to advances in silicon tec~logics and manufacturing processes.

19. The sunflower, the official state flower of Kansas, and is widespread in

the prairies of the western United States.

20. Lake Superior, part of the United States-Canadian boundary, is a largest freshwater lake in the world.

21. The snapper, a large-headed fish with a long dorsal fin, is named to its

characteristic way of suddenly, shutting its mouth.

22. The aim of the decorative arts is to beautiful our surroundings.

23. Modern digital synthesizers, based on microprocessors, are virtually unlimited in the number and range of musical sounds it can produce.

24. During the years he composed, Charles Ives was isolation from the music world; none of his major works was publicly performed.

25. Psychoanalysis is a form of therapy that attempts  to eliminate conflict by alter the personality in a positive way.

26. Globally, the 1990's stood out as the warmest decade for what we have weather records.

27. Silicon chips are reliable and cheap to produce in large numbers and are used them in computers, calculators, programmed household appliances, and most electronic applications.

28. Because its pitch cannot easily be altered, the oboe serves as the standard which by the symphony orchestra is tuned.

29. Bursae are fluid-filled sacs that form cushions between tendons and bones and protect them while movement.

30. In 1916, United States suffragist Alice Paul founded the National Woman’s Patty, a political party dedicate to establishing equal rights for women.

31. The spice cinnamon and the drugs cascara and quinine all come from bark, the protective out layer of stems and roots of woody plants.

32. Tunas migrate long distances over all the world's oceans and occupy tropical, temperate, and even some the cooler waters.

33. Taste buds, small sensory organ located on the tongue and palate, recognize four primary tastes: sweet, sour, salty and bitter.

34. Astronauts receive extensive training to prepare themselves both physically and psychologically for complexity and rigor of a space mission.

35. By 1900 several prominent technical institutions, including the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, fashioned its own educational offerings to meet the industrial needs of the United States.

s

36. Some of the earliest mechanical devices were designed to raise water from streams for the irrigate of crops.

37. The Louisiana Purchase of 1803 increased the territory of the United States by approximate 846,000 square miles, practically doubling the area of The United States.

38. A most useful tool for analyzing the elemental composition of fossils is the electron probe, a modify electron microscope.

39. Few substance on Earth equal the beauty of gemstones such as twinkling diamonds, green emeralds, red rubies, blue sapphires, and multicolored opals.

40. For the purposes of the fine and decorative arts, metals have been used either in their simple state and in uncomplicated alloys.

Section Three: Reading Comprehension

Question 1-10

After 1785, the production of children's books in the Untied States increased but remained largely reprints of British books, often those published by John Newbery, the first publisher to produce books aimed primarily at diverting a child audience. Ultimatey, however, it was not the cheerful, commercial-minded Newhery, but Anglo-Irish author Maria Edgeworth who had the strongest influence on this period of American children's literature. The eighteenth century had seen a gradual shift away from the spiritual intensity of earlier American religious writings for children, toward a more generalized moralism.

(10)  Newbery notwithstanding, Americans still looked on children's books as vehicles for instruction, not amusement, though they would accept a moderate amount of fictional entertainment for the sake of more successful instruction. As the children's book market expanded, then, what both public and publishers wanted was the kind of fiction Maria Edgeworth wrote: stories interesting enough to attract children and morally instructive enough to allay adult distrust of fiction.

(17)  American reaction against imported books for children set in after the War of 1812 with the British. A wave of nationalism permeated everything,and the self-conscious new nation found foreign writings (particularly those from the British monarchy) unsuitable for the children of a democratic republic, a slate of self-governing, equal citizens. Publishers of children's books began to encourage American writers to write for American children. When they responded, the pattern established by Maria Edgeworth was at hand, attractive to most of them for both its rationalism and its high moral tone. Early in the 1820's, stories of willful children learning to obey, of careless children learning to take care, of selfish children learning to "tire for others," started to flow from American presses, successfully achieving Edgeworth's tone, though rarely her lively style. Imitative as they were, these early American stories wee quite distinguishable from their British counterparts. Few servants appeared in them, and if class distinctions had by no means disappeared, there was much democratic insistence on the worthiness of every level of birth and work. The characters of children in this fiction were serious, conscientious, self-reflective, and independent-testimony to the continuing influence of (35)  the earlier American moralistic tradition in children's books.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The career of Maria Edgeworth as an author of children's books

(B) The development of children's literature in the United States

(C) Successful publishers of  children's books in Britain and North America

(D) Basic differences between British and American literature for children

2. The publisher John Newbery is  principally known for which of the   following reasons?

(A) He produced and sold books written by Maria Edgeworth.

(B)  He had more influence on American children's literature than any other  publisher

(C) He published books aimed amusing children rather than instructing them.

(D) He was commercially minded and cheerful.

3. The word "notwithstanding" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) in spite of

(B) in addition to

(C) as a result of

(D) as a part of

4. The word "they" in line 11 refers to

(A) children

(B) Americans

(C) books

(D) vehicles

5. The word "allay" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) clarify

(B) attack

(C) reduce

(D) confirm

6.  It can be inferred from the passage that American children's books sold before 1785 were almost always

(A) written by Maria Edgeworth

(B) attractive and interesting to children

(C) written by American authors

(D) intended only for religious and moral instruction.

7. By the end of the eighteenth century, the publishers of children’s looks in the United States were most concerned about which of   following?

(A) Attracting children with entertaining stories that provided lessons of correct behavior

(B) Publishing literature consisting of exciting stories that would appeal to both children and adults

(C) Expanding markets for books in both Britain and the United States

(D) Reprinting fictional books  from earlier in the century.

8. The word "permeated" in line 18

(A) opposed

(B) improved

(C) competed with

(D) spread through

9. According to the passage, American children's stories differed from their British equivalents in that the characters in American stories were

(A) children who showed a change of behavior

(B) children who were well behaved

(C) rarely servants

(D) generally not from a variety of social classes

10. The word" testimony to" in line 34 is closest in meaning to

(A) inspiration for

(B) evidence of

(C) requirement for

(D) development of

Question 11-21

Lichens. probably the hardiest of all plants, live where virtually nothing else can---not just on rugged mountain peaks but also on sunbaked desert rocks. They are usually the first life to appear on a mountainside that has been scraped bare by an avalanche.

(5)     Unlike other members of the plant kingdom, lichens are actually a partnership between two plants. The framework of a lichen is usually a network of minute hairlike fungus that anchors the plant, The other component is an alga (similar to the green film of plant life that grows on stagnant pools) that is distributed throughout the fungus. Being green plants, algae are capable of photosynthesis--that is, using energy from the Sun to manufacture their own food. The fungi arc believed to supply water, minerals, and physical support to the partnership.

(13) Lichens are famous for their ability to survive ~ water shortage. When water is scarce (as is often the case on a mountain), lichens may become dormant and remain in that condition for prolonged periods of time. Some lichens can even grow where there is no rain at all, surviving on only occasional dew--the moisture that condenses on the surface of the plants at night, And unlike most other plants, lichens are little affected by the strong   ultraviolet rays in the mountains.

(20)  Lichens use little energy, for they grow slowly. Some grow so slowly and are so old that they are called "time stains." You may find lichens that are centuries old; certain of these lichen colonies have been established for an estimated 2,000 years.

(24)  For decades, scientists wondered how the offspring of an alga and a fungus got together to form a new lichen, it seemed unlikely that they would just happen lo encounter one another. It was finally discovered that in many cases the two partners have never been separated. Stalklike "buds" that form on certain lichens are broken off by the wind or by  animals; these toll or are blown to a new location.

11. Which of the following questions  does the passage answer?

(A) Where can the oldest lichens  be found?

(B) How long does it take for  lichens to establish themselves?

(C) How large can lichens he?

(D) Where do lichens usually occur?

12. The word "hardiest" in line l closest in meaning to

(A) most unusual

(B) most basic

(C) most abundant

(D) most vigorous

13. The word "framework" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) structure

(B) fragment

(C) condition

(D) environment

14. The author mentions "the green film of plant life that grows on stagnant pools" (lines 8-9) in order to explain

(A) how the sun affects lichens

(B) why plants depend on water

(C) where fungi become algae

(D) what algae arc

15. It can be inferred from the passage that lichens use less energy and    grow more slowly when

(A) the environment is polluted

(B) they are exposed to ultraviolet rays

(C) they are very old

(D) the supply of water is inadequate

16: Which of file following term defined in the passage?

(A) "anchors" (line 7)

(B) "stagnant" (line 9)

(C) "dew" (line 17)

(D) "ultraviolet" (line 19)

17. The word "prolonged" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) precise

(B) extended

(C) approximate

(D) regular

18. All of the following are mentioned in the discussion of lichens EXCEPT:

(A) They are capable of producing their own food.

(B) They require large amounts of minerals lo prosper.

(C) They are a union of two separate plants.

(D) They can live thousands of years.

19. What does the phrase "lichen colonies (line 22)suggest?

(A) Nothing but lichens live in some locations.

(B) Many lichens live together in one area.

(C) Lichens displace the plants that surround them.

(D) Certain groups of lichens have never been separated.

20. The word "encounter" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) lose

(B) support

(C) meet

(D) create

21. The word "these" in line 28 refers to

(A) partners

(B) buds

(C) lichens

(D) animals.

Question 22-31

The languages spoken by early Europeans are still shrouded in mystery. There is no linguistic continuity between the languages of Old Europe (a term sometimes used for  Europe between 7000 and 3000 B.C.) and the languages of the modem world, and we cannot yet translate the Old European script, Scholars have deciphered other ancient languages, such as Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian, which used the cuneiform script, because of the fortuitous discovery of bilingual inscriptions, When cuneiform tablets were first discovered in the eighteenth century, scholars could not decipher them.

(9)     Then inscriptions found in baa at the end of the eighteenth century provided a link: these inscriptions were written in cuneiform and in two other ancient languages, Old Persian and New Elamite--languages that had already been deciphered. It took several decades, but scholars eventually translated the ancient cuneiform script via the more familiar Old Persian language.

(14)  Similarly, the hieroglyphic writing of the Egyptians remained a mystery until French troops unearthed the famous Rosetta stone in the late eighteenth century. The stone carried the same message written in ancient Greek, Egyptian hieroglyphs, and Egyptian hieratic, a simplified form of hieroglyphs. The Rosetta stone thwarted scholars' efforts for several decades until the early nineteenth century when several key hieroglyphic phrases were decoded using the Greek inscriptions. Unfortunately, we have no Old European Rosetta stone to chart correspondences between Old European script and the languages that replaced it.

( 23) Tim incursions of Indo-European tribes into Old Europe from the late fifth to the early third millennia B.C. caused a linguistic and cultural discontinuity. These incursions disrupted the Old European sedentary farming lifestyle that had existed for 3,000 years. As the Indo-Europeans encroached on Old Europe from the east, the continent underwent   upheavals. These severely affected the Balkans, where the Old European cultures abundantly employed script. The Old European way of life deteriorated rapidly, although pockets of Old European culture remained for several millennia, ~ new peoples spoke completely different languages belonging to the Indo-European linguistic family. The Old European language or languages, and the script used to write them, declined and  eventually vanished.

22. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Reasons for the failure to understand the written records of Old European culture

(B) Influences on the development of Old European script

(C) Similarities between Old European script and other ancient writing systems

(D) Events leading to the discovery of Old European script

23. According to the passage, New Elamite is

(A) a language that was written in the cuneiform script

(B) a modem language that came from Old Persian

(C) one of the languages spoken by the Old Europeans

(D) a language that was understood by the late eighteenth century

24. According to the passage, scholars were able to decipher cuneiform    script with the help of

(A) the Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian languages

(B) Old Persian.

(C) tablets written in Old European

(D) a language spoken in eighteenth century Iran

25. The word “fortuitous” in line 7 is closet in meaning to

(A) important

(B) sudden

(C) early

(D) lucky

26. The word "them" in line 8 refers to

(A) Sumerian, Acadian, and Babylonian

(B) bilingual inscriptions

(C) cuneiform tablets

(D) scholars

27. When does the passage suggest that ancient Egyptian hieroglypttic script was finally deciphered?

(A) At around the same time as cuneiform script was deciphered

(B) Shortly before the Rosetta stone was unearthed

(C) As soon as additional bilingual inscriptions became available to  scholars

(D) A few decades after the hieratic script was decoded

28. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the Rosetta stone?

(A) It was found by scholars trying to decode ancient languages.

(B) It contains two versions of  hieroglyphic script.

(C) Several of its inscriptions were decoded within a few months of its discovery.

(D) Most of its inscriptions have still not been decoded.

29. The word "thwarted" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) continued

(B) influenced

(C) encouraged

(D) frustrated

30. According to the passage, Indo-European incursions caused Old European populations to

(A) separate into different tribes

(B) move eastward

(C) change their ways of living obtaining food

(D) start recording historical events in Writing

31. The author mentions the Balkans in the passage in order to explain why

(A) Indo-European languages were slow to spread in Old Europe

(B) the inhabitants of Old Europe were not able to prevent Indo-European incursions

(C) the use of the Old European script declined

(D) the Old European culture survived for a time after the Indo-European incursions.

Questions 32-40

Next to its sheer size, the profound isolation of its many small islands is the most distinctive feature of the Pacific Ocean. Over 25,000 islands are scattered across the surface of the Pacific, more than in all the other oceans combined, but their land area adds up to little more than 125,000 square kilometers, about the size of New York State, and their inhabitants total less than two million people, about a quarter of the number that live in New York City. The oceanic islands of the Pacific are some of the most isolated  places on Earth. Many are uninhabitable, by virtue of their small size and particular characteristics, but even the most favored are very isolated fragments of land, strictly circumscribed by the ocean, strictly limited in terms of the numbers of people they can support. This basic fact of environmental circumstance has been the most pervasive influence in determining the social arrangements, and cultural practices of the people that settled in the Pacific Islands.

(14)  The peopling of the Pacific Islands has been described as the greatest feat of maritime colonization in human history. Contrary to the conclusions of Thor Heyerdahl's Kon-Tiki expedition of 1946, the evidence of plant dispersal, archaeology, linguistics, and genetics now shows quite conclusively that the Pacific Islands were not populated from tile east by  South Americans who drifted on balsa-wood rafts and the prevailing wind and current, but from the west, by groups from mainland Asia who gradually spread from island to island out into the Pacific. The process began over 40,000 years ago and reached Easter Island the most isolated place on Earth-about 1.500 years ago. It ended about 1,000 years ago, when people first settled in Hawaii and New Zealand.

(25)  Simply surviving those ocean crossings of indeterminate length, in open canoes, to arrive on the shores of uninhabited and hitherto unknown islands, was a formidable achievement. But having found an oasis of land in a watery wilderness, crossed its reef, and landed, on its shores, the survivors then faced a series of pressing problems for which solutions had to be found quickly if the small group was to become a vigorous, self-sustaining island population.

32. The word "scattered" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) widely known

(B) usually estimated

(C) rarely inhabited

(D) irregularly distributed

33. Why does the author mention NewYork City in line 6 ?

(A) To emphasize how small the population of the Pacific Islands is

(B) To emphasize the extreme distances between the Pacific Islands and other regions

(C) To note the economic ties of the Pacific Islands to other regions

(D) To note the lack of urban environments on the Pacific Islands

34. The phrase "by virtue or" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) regarding

(B) because of

(C) taking advantage of

(D) in place of

35. The word "circumscribed" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) located

(B) flooded

(C) restricted

(D) pushed

36. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as, evidence used to determine the origins of Pacific Islands people?

(A) Oral histories

(B) Plant dispersal

(C) Linguistics

(D) Archaeology

37. According to the-passage where did the original inhabitants of the Pacific Islands come from

(A) South America

(B) Hawaii

(C) New Zealand

(D) Asia

38. The word "It' in line 23 refers to

(A) Pacific

(B) process

(C) isolated place

(D) Earth

39. The word "indeterminate" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) undecided

(B) uncertain

(C) unacceptable

(D) increasing

40. The passage is most likely followed by a discussion of

(A) how settlers adapted to newly discovered  Pacific Ocean Islands

(B) the design and construction of canoes used in the Pacific Islands

(C) the characteristics sties of reefs in the Pacific Islands

(D) how early explorers of the Pacific Ocean found their way from island to island.

Questions 41-50

The atmosphere that originally surrounded Earth was probably much different from the air we breathe today. Earth's first atmosphere (some 4.6 billion years ago) was most likely hexogen and helium--.the two most abundant gasses found in the universe--as well as hydrogen compounds, such as methane and ammonia, Most scientists feel that this early atmosphere escaped into space from the Earth's hot surface.

(7)     A second, more dense atmosphere, however, gradually enveloped Earth as gasses from molten rocks within its hot interior escaped through volcanoes and steam vents. We assume that volcanoes spewed out the same gasses then as they do today: mostly water vapor (about g0 percent), carbon dioxide (about ten percent), and up to a few percent nitrogen. These same gasses probably created Earth's second atmosphere.

(13)  As millions of years passed, the constant outpouring of gasses from the hot interior--known as outgassing--provided a rich supply of water vapor, which formed into clouds. Rain fell upon Earth for many thousands or years, forming the rivers, lakes, and oceans of the world. During this Lime, large amounts of carbon dioxide were dissolved in the oceans. Through chemical and biological processes, much of the carbon dioxide became locked up in carbon sedimentary rocks, such as limestone. With much of the water vapor already condensed into water and the concentration of carbon dioxide dwindling, the atmosphere gradually became rich nitrogen.

(22)  It appears that oxygen, the second most abundant gas in today's atmosphere, probably began an extremely slow increase in concentration as energetic rays from the sun split water vapor into hydrogen and oxygen during a process called photo dissociation. The hydrogen, being lighter, probably rose and escaped into space, while the oxygen remained in the atmosphere.

(27)  This slow increase in oxygen may have provided enough of this gas for primitive plants to evolve, perhaps two to three billion years ago. Or the plants may have evolved in an almost oxygen-free (anaerobic) environment. At any rate, plant growth greatly enriched our atmosphere with oxygen. The reason for this enrichment is that plants, in the presence of sunlight, process carbon dioxide and water to produce oxygen.

41. What is the main idea of the passage?

(A) The original atmosphere on Earth was unstable.

(B) The atmosphere on Earth has changed over time.

(C) Hot underground gasses created clouds, which formed the Earth's atmosphere.

(D) Plant growth depended on oxygen in the Earth's atmosphere.

42. The word "enveloped" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) surrounded

(B) changed

(C) escaped

(D) characterized

43. The word "they' in line 10 refers to

(A) gasses

(B) volcanoes

(C) steam vents

(D) rocks

44. According to the passage outgassing eventually led to all of the following EXCEPT

(A) increases in the carbon dioxide content of sedimentary rocks

(B) the formation of bodies of water

(C) decreases in the level of nitrogen

(D) the formation of clouds

45. The word "gradually" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) accidentally

(B) quickly

(C) in the end

(D) by degrees

46. The passage suggests that oxygen remained in the atmosphere because

(A) it was caused by outgassing

(B) it was heavier than hydrogen

(C) hydrogen became trapped in limestone

(D) rays from the sun created equal amounts of hydrogen and oxygen

47. The author uses the word "Or" in line 28 to

(A) criticize the previous suggestion

(B) provide unrelated information

(C) propose a similar idea

(D) suggest an alternative

48. The phase “At any rate ”in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) regardless

(B) in addition

(C) although unlikely

(D) fortunately

49. The author organizes the discussion of the Earth's atmosphere in terms of the

(A) role of volcanoes in its formation

(B) occur in which changes  occurred

(C) time it took for the Earth's surface: to cool and nitrogen to appear

(D) chemical and physical features of gasses

50. Which of the following does the passage mention as necessary for both the production of oxygen by photo dissociation and the production of oxygen by plants?

(A) Water:

(B) Hydrogen

(C) Carbon dioxide

(D) Nitrogen.

2004年05月语法题

1. In the late 1970’s and early 1980’s, the United States developed the reusable space shuttle ___ to space cheaper and easier.

A. to make access

B. and making access

C. which made accessible

D. and made accessible.

2. Genetically, the chimpanzee is more similar to humans _______.

A. are than any other animal

B. than is any other animal

C. any other animal is

D. and any other animal is

3. _______ more than 65,000 described species of protozoa, of which more than half are fossils.

A. Being that there are

B. There being

C. Are there

D. There are

4. The Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890 ___ nearly unanimously through the United States Congress.

A. passed

B. in passage

C. having passed

D. passing

5. Modern skyscrapers have a steel skeleton of beams and columns ___a three-dimensional grid.

A. forms

B. from which forming

C. and forming

D. that forms

6. The average level of United States prices grew very little from 1953 until the mid-1960’s when _________.

A. did inflation begin

B. inflation began

C. the beginning of inflation

D. did the beginning of inflation

7. The basis premise behind all agricultural production is _____ available the riches of the soil for human consumption.

A. to be made

B. the making

C. making is

D. to make

8.___ to The United States House of Representatives in 1791, Nathaniel Macon remained in office until 1815.

A. Election

B. Why he was elected

C. Elected

D. Who was elected

9.________ of classical ballet in The United States began around 1830.

A. To teach

B. Is teaching

C. It was taught

D. The teaching

10. The universe is estimated ___between 10 billion and 20 billion years old.

A. being

B. to be

C. which is

D. is.

11. A situation in which an economic market is dominated by a ____ is known as a monopoly.

A. single of a product seller

B. product single of a seller

C. seller of a product single

D. single seller of a product

12. ____ freshwater species of fish build nests of sticks, stones, or scooped-out sand..

A. As the many

B. Of the many

C. Many

D. Many of them are

13. Newspaper publishers in the united states have estimated ___________reads a newspaper every day.

A. nearly 80 percent of the adult population who

B. it is nearly 80 percent of the adult population

C. that nearly 80 percent of the adult population who

D. that nearly 80 percent of the adult population

14. The foundation of all other branches of mathematics is arithmetic, ____ science of calculating with numbers.

A. is the

B. the

C. which the

D. because the

15. Nylon was ___the human-made fibers.

A. the first of which

B. what the first of

C. it the first of

D. the first of

16. The male cicada sound is made by specialized structures on the abdomen and which apparently serves to attract females.

17. Televisions are now an everyday feature of most households in the United States, and television viewing is the number one activity leisure.

18. Bacteria are one of the most abundant life forms on Earth, growing on and inside another living things, in every type of environment.

19. Fluorine is a greenish gas too active that even water and glass burn in it.

20. In general, novels are thought of extended works of prose fiction depicting the inner and outer lives of their characters.

21. Metabolism is the inclusive term for the chemical reactions by which the cells of an organism transforms energy, maintain their identity, and reproduce.

22. Although most petroleum is produced from underground reservoirs, petroleum occurs in a  varieties of forms at the surface.

23. A musical organ can have pipes of two kinds: flue pipes that work like a flute and reed pipes that operate on same principle as a clarinet.

24. The Land Ordinance of 1784 divided the western lands belonging to the United States into territories, each to be govern temporarily by its settlers.

25. If there is too much pituitary hormone of too few insulin, the amount of sugar in the blood rises abnormally, producing a condition called. Hyperglycemia.

26. The care of children during their years of relative helplessness appears to have being the chief incentive for the evolution of family structures.

27. It was not until the 1920’s that pollution came to be viewed by many as a threat to the health of live on Earth.

28. Platelets are tiny blood cells that help transport hormones and other chemicals throughout the body, and it play a role in clotting blood.

29. Until the twentieth century, pendulum clocks were calibrated against the rotation of earth by taking astronomically measurements.

30. The rapid growth of the world’s population over the past 100 years have led to a great increase in the acreage of land under cultivation.

31. In the eighteenth century, the Pawnees, descendants of the Nebraska culture, lived in villages sizeable on the Loup and Platte rivers in central Nebraska.

32. The attraction of opposite charges is one of the force that keep electrons in orbit around of nucleus of an atom.

33. Of every the major traditions of wood carving, the one that is closest in structure to the tree is the crest pole made by the Native Americans of the Northwest coast.

34. Many of the fine-grained varieties of sedimentary rocks known as shales yield oil when distilled by hot.

35. In 1820 there were only 65 daily newspapers in the united states, which total daily circulation of perhaps 100,000.

36. The Milky Way galaxy includes the Sun, its planets, and rest of the solar system, along with billions of stars and other objects.

37. Some of sharpshooter Annie Oakley’s exploits with a gun are almost unbelievable when it comes to accuracy, speed of firing,and endure.

38. Evidence from ancient fossils indicates the scorpion may had been among the first land animals.

39. Jetties, piers designed to aid in marine navigation, are constructed primary of wood, stone, concrete, or combinations of these materials.

40. The Barnes Foundation in Merion, Pennsylvania, was chartered in 1922 to promotion art education by providing art classes and by establishing a publishing program.

Question 1-10

All mammals feed their young. Beluga whale mothers, for example, nurse their calves for some twenty months, until they are about to give birth again and their young are able to find their own food. The behavior of feeding of the young is built into the reproductive system. It is a (5)nonelective part of parental care and the defining feature of a mammal, the most important thing that mammals-- whether marsupials, platypuses, spiny anteaters, or placental mammals -- have in common.

But not all animal parents, even those that tend their offspring to the point of hatching or birth, feed their young. Most egg-guarding fish do not, (10) for the simple reason that their young are so much smaller than the parents and eat food that is also much smaller than the food eaten by adults. In reptiles, the crocodile mother protects her young after they have hatched and takes them down to the water, where they will find food, but she does not actually feed them. Few insects feed their young after (15)hatching, but some make other arrangement, provisioning their cells and nests with caterpillars and spiders that they have paralyzed with their venom and stored in a state of suspended animation so that their larvae might have a supply of fresh food when they hatch.

For animals other than mammals, then, feeding is not intrinsic to (20)parental care. Animals add it to their reproductive strategies to give them an edge in their lifelong quest for descendants. The most vulnerable moment in any animal's life is when it first finds itself completely on its own, when it must forage and fend for itself. Feeding postpones that moment until a young animal has grown to such a size that it is better able (25) to cope. Young that are fed by their parents become nutritionally independent at a much greater fraction of their full adult size. And in the meantime those young are shielded against the vagaries of fluctuating of difficult-to-find supplies. Once a species does take the step of feeding its young, the young become totally dependent on the extra effort. If both (30)parents are removed, the young generally do no survive.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The care that various animals give to their offspring.

B. The difficulties young animals face in obtaining food.

C. The methods that mammals use to nurse their young.

D. The importance among young mammals of becoming independent.

2. The author lists various animals in line 6 to

A. contrast the feeding habits of different types of mammals

B. describe the process by which mammals came to be defined

C. emphasize the point that every type of mammal feeds its own young

D. explain why a particular feature of mammals is nonelective

3. The word "tend" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

A. sit on

B. move

C. notice

D. care for

4. What can be inferred from the passage about the practice of animal parents feeding their young?

A. It is unknown among fish.

B. It is unrelated to the size of the young.

C. It is dangerous for the parents.

D. It is most common among mammals.

5. The word "provisioning" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

A. supplying

B. preparing

C. building

D. expanding

6. According to the passage, how do some insects make sure their young have food?

A. By storing food near their young.

B. By locating their nests or cells near spiders and caterpillars.

C. By searching for food some distance from their nest.

D. By gathering food from a nearby water source.

7. The word "edge" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

A. opportunity

B. advantage

C. purpose

D. rest

8. The word "it" in line 24 refers to

A. Feeding

B. moment

C. young animal

D. size

9. According to the passage, animal young are most defenseless when

A. their parents are away searching for food

B. their parents have many young to feed

C. they are only a few days old

D. they first become independent

10. The word "shielded" in line 27 is closest in meaning to

A. raised

B. protected

C. hatched

D. valued

Question 11-21:

Printmaking is the generic term for a number of processes, of which woodcut and engraving are two prime examples. Prints are made by pressing a sheet of paper (or other material) against an image-bearing surface to which ink has been applied. When the paper is removed, the (5)image adheres to it, but in reverse.

The woodcut had been used in China from the fifth century A.D. for applying patterns to textiles. The process was not introduced into Europe until the fourteenth century, first for textile decoration and then for printing on paper. Woodcuts are created by a relief process; first, the artist (10) takes a block of wood, which has been sawed parallel to the grain, covers it with a white ground, and then draws the image in ink. The background is carved away, leaving the design area slightly raised. The woodblock is inked, and the ink adheres to the raised image. It is then transferred to damp paper either by hand or with a printing press.

(15) Engraving, which grew out of the goldsmith's art, originated in Germany and northern Italy in the middle of the fifteenth century. It is an intaglio process (from Italian intagliare, "to carve"). The image is incised into a highly polished metal plate, usually copper, with a cutting instrument, or burin. The artist inks the plate and wipes it clean so that (20)some ink remains in the incised grooves. An impression is made on damp paper in a printing press, with sufficient pressure being applied so that the paper picks up the ink.

Both woodcut and engraving have distinctive characteristics. Engraving lends itself to subtle modeling and shading through the use of (25) fine lines. Hatching and cross-hatching determine the degree of light and shade in a print. Woodcuts tend to be more linear, with sharper contrasts between light and dark. Printmaking is well suited to the production of multiple images. A set of multiples is called an edition. Both methods can yield several hundred good-quality prints before the original (30) block or plate begins to show signs of wear. Mass production of prints in the sixteenth century made images available, at a lower cost, to a much broader public than before.

11. What does the passage mainly discuss

A. The origins of textile decoration

B. The characteristics of good-quality prints

C. Two types of printmaking

D. Types of paper used in printmaking

12. The word "prime" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

A. principal

B. complex

C. general

D. recent

13. The author's purposes in paragraph 2 is to describe

A. the woodcuts found in China in the fifth century

B. the use of woodcuts in the textile industry

C. the process involved in creating a woodcut

D. the introduction of woodcuts to Europe

14. The word "incised" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

A. burned

B. cut

C. framed

D. baked

15. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

A. "patterns"(line 7)

B. "grain"(line 10)

C. "burin"(line 19)

D. "grooves"(line 20)

16. The word "distinctive" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

A. unique

B. accurate

C. irregular

D. similar

17. According to the passage, all of the following are true about engraving EXCEPT that it

A. developed from the art of the goldsmiths

B. requires that the paper be cut with a burin

C. originated in the fifteenth century

D. involves carving into a metal plate

18. The word "yield" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

A. imitate

B. produce

C. revise

D. contrast

19. According to the passage, what do woodcut and engraving have in common?

A. Their designs are slightly raised.

B. They achieve contrast through hatching and cross-hatching.

C. They were first used in Europe.

D. They allow multiple copies to be produced from one original.

20. According to the author, what made it possible for members of the general public to own prints in the sixteenth century?

A. Prints could be made at low cost.

B. The quality of paper and ink had improved.

C. Many people became involved in the printmaking industry.

D. Decreased demand for prints kept prices affordable.

21. According to the passage, all of the following are true about prints EXCEPT that they

A. can be reproduced on materials other than paper

B. are created from a reversed image

C. show variations between light and dark shades

D. require a printing press

Questions 22-31:

The first peoples to inhabit what today is the southeastern United States sustained themselves as hunters and gathers. Sometimes early in the first millennium A.D., however, they began to cultivate corn and other crops. Gradually, as they became more skilled at gardening, they settled (5) into permanent villages and developed a rich culture, characterized by the great earthen mounds they erected as monuments to their gods and as tombs for their  distinguished  dead.  Most  of  these  early  mound  builders  were  part  of  the Adena-Hopewell culture, which had its beginnings near the Ohio River and takes its name from sites in Ohio. The (10) culture spread southward into the present-day states of Louisiana, Alabama, Georgia, and Florida. Its peoples became great traders, bartering jewellery, pottery, animal pelts, tools, and other goods along extensive trading networks that stretched up and down eastern North America and as far west as the Rocky Mountains.

(15) About A.D. 400, the Hopewell culture fell into decay. Over the next centuries, it was supplanted by another culture, the Mississippian, named after the river along which many of its earliest villages were located. This complex civilization dominated the Southeast from about A.D. 700 until shortly before the Europeans began arriving in the sixteenth century. At (20) the peak of its strength, about the year 1200, it was the most advanced culture in North America. Like their Hopewell predecessors, the Mississippians became highly skilled at growing food, although on a grander scale. They developed an improved strain of corn, which could survive in wet soil and a relatively cool climate, and also learned to (25)cultivate beans. Indeed, agriculture became so important to the Mississippians that it became closely associated with the Sun --- the guarantor of good crops. Many tribes called themselves "children of the Sun" and believed their omnipotent priest-chiefs were descendants of the great sun god.

(30) Although most Mississippians lived in small villages, many others inhabited large towns. Most of these towns boasted at least one major flat-topped mound on which stood a temple that contained a sacred flame. Only priests and those charged with guarding the flame could enter the temples. The mounds also served as ceremonial and trading sites, and at (35) times they were used as burial grounds.

22. What does the passage mainly discuss

A. The development of agriculture

B. The locations of towns and villages

C. The early people and cultures of the United States

D. The construction of burial mounds

23. Which of the following resulted from the rise of agriculture in the southeastern United States?

A. The development of trade in North America

B. The establishment of permanent settlements

C. Conflicts with other Native American groups over land

D. A migration of these peoples to the Rocky Mountains.

24. What does the term "Adena-Hopewell" (line 8) designate?

A. The early locations of the Adena-Hopewell culture

B. The two most important nations of the Adena-Hopewell culture

C. Two former leaders who were honored with large burial mounds.

D. Two important trade routes in eastern North America

25. The word "bartering" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

A. producing

B. exchanging

C. transporting

D. loading

26. The word "supplanted" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

A. conquered

B. preceded

C. replaced

D. imitated

27. According to the passage, when did the Mississippian culture reach its highest point of  evelopment?

A. About A.D. 400

B. Between A.D. 400 and A.D. 700

C. About A.D. 1200

D. In the sixteenth century

28. According to the passage, how did the agriculture of the Mississippians differ from that of their Hopewell predecessors?

A. The Mississippians produced more durable and larger crops of food.

B. The Mississippians sold their food to other groups.

C. The Mississippians could only grow plants in warm, dry climates.

D. The Mississippians produced special foods for their religious leaders.

29. Why does the author mention that many Mississippians tribes called themselves "children of the Sun"(line 28)?

A. To explain why they were obedient to their priest-chiefs.

B. To argue about the importance of religion in their culture.

C. To illustrate the great importance they placed on agriculture.

D. To provide an example of their religious rituals.

30. The phrase "charged with" in line 33 is closest in meaning to

A. passed on

B. experienced at

C. interested in

D. assigned to

31. According to the passage, the flat-topped mounds in Mississippian towns were used for all of the following purposes EXCEPT

A. religious ceremonies

B. meeting places for the entire community

C. sites for commerce

D. burial sites

Question 32-40:

Overland transport in the United States was still extremely primitive in 1790. Roads were few and short, usually extending from inland communities to the nearest river town or seaport. Nearly all interstate commerce was carried out by sailing ships that served the bays and harbors (5) of the seaboard. Yet, in 1790 the nation was on the threshold of a new era of road development. Unable to finance road construction, states turned for help to private companies, organized by merchants and land speculators who had a personal interest in improved communications with the interior. The pioneer in this move was the state of Pennsylvania, which (10) chartered a company in 1792 to construct a turnpike, a road for the use of which a toll, or payment, is collected, from Philadelphia to Lancaster. The legislature gave the company the authority to erect tollgates at points along the road where payment would be collected, though it carefully regulated the rates. (The states had unquestioned authority to (15)regulate private business in this period.)

The company built a gravel road within two years, and the success of the Lancaster Pike encouraged imitation. Northern states generally relied on private companies to build their toll roads, but Virginia constructed a network at public expense. Such was the road building fever that by 1810 (20) New York alone had some 1,500 miles of turnpikes extending from the Atlantic to Lake Erie.

Transportation on these early turnpikes consisted of freight carrier wagons and passenger stagecoaches. The most common road freight carrier was the Conestoga wagon, a vehicle developed in the mid-(25)eighteenth century by German immigrants in the area around Lancaster, Pennsylvania. It featured large, broad wheels able to negotiate all but the deepest ruts and holes, and its round bottom prevented the freight from shifting on a hill. Covered with canvas and drawn by four to six horses, the Conestoga wagon rivaled the log cabin as the primary (30)symbol of the frontier. Passengers traveled in a variety of stagecoaches, the most common of which had four benches, each holding three persons. It was only a platform on wheels, with no springs; slender poles held up the top, and leather curtains kept out dust and rain.

32. Paragraph 1 discusses early road building in the United States mainly in terms of the

A. popularity of turnpikes

B. financing of new roads

C. development of the interior

D. laws governing road use

33. The word "primitive" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

A. unsafe

B. unknown

C. inexpensive

D. undeveloped

34. In 1790 most roads connected towns in the interior of the country with

A. other inland communities

B. towns in other states

C. river towns or seaports

D. construction sites

35. The phrase "on the threshold of" in line 5 and 6 is closest in meaning to

A. in need of

B. in place of

C. at the start of

D. with the purpose of

36. According to the passage, why did states want private companies to help with road building?

A. The states could not afford to build roads themselves.

B. The states were not as well equipped as private companies.

C. Private companies could complete roads faster than the states.

D. Private companies had greater knowledge of the interior.

37. The word "it" in line 13 refers to

A. legislature

B. company

C. authority

D. payment

38. The word "imitation" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

A. investment

B. suggestion

C. increasing

D. copying

39. Virginia is mentioned as an example of a state that

A. built roads without tollgates

B. built roads with government money

C. completed 1,500 miles of turnpikes in one year

D. introduced new law restricting road use

40. The "large, broad wheels" of the Conestoga wagon are mentioned in line 26 as an example of a feature of wagons that was

A. unusual in mid-eighteenth century vehicles

B. first found in Germany

C. effective on roads with uneven surfaces

D. responsible for frequent damage to freight

Question 41- 50:

In Death Valley, California, one of the hottest, most arid places in North America, there is much salt, and salt can damage rocks impressively. Inhabitants of areas elsewhere, where streets and highways are salted to control ice, are familiar with the resulting rust and deterioration on cars. That (5) attests to the chemically corrosive nature of salt, but it is not the way salt destroys rocks. Salt breaks rocks apart principally by a process called crystal prying and wedging. This happens not by soaking the rocks in salt water, but by moistening their bottoms with salt water. Such conditions exist in many areas along the eastern edge of central Death Valley. There, salty water rises (10) from the groundwater table by capillary action through tiny spaces in sediment until it reaches the surface.

Most stones have capillary passages that suck salt water from the wet ground. Death Valley provides an ultra-dry atmosphere and high daily temperatures, which promote evaporation and the formation of salt crystals (15) along the cracks or other openings within stones. These crystals grow as long as salt water is available. Like tree roots breaking up a sidewalk, the growing crystals exert pressure on the rock and eventually pry the rock apart along planes of weakness, such as banding in metamorphic rocks, bedding in sedimentary rocks, or preexisting or incipient fractions, and (20)along boundaries between individual mineral crystals or grains. Besides crystal growth, the expansion of halite crystals (the same as everyday table salt) by heating and of sulfates and similar salts by hydration can contribute additional stresses. A rock durable enough to have withstood natural conditions for a very long time in other areas could probably be shattered (25) into small pieces by salt weathering within a few generations.

The dominant salt in Death Valley is halite, or sodium chloride, but other salts, mostly carbonates and sulfates, also cause prying and wedging, as does ordinary ice. Weathering by a variety of salts, though often subtle, is a worldwide phenomenon. Not restricted to arid regions, intense salt (30) weathering occurs mostly in salt-rich places like the seashore, near the large saline lakes in the Dry Valleys of Antarctica, and in desert sections of Australia, New Zealand, and central Asia.

41. What is the passage mainly about?

A. The destructive effects of salt on rocks.

B. The impressive salt rocks in Death Valley.

C. The amount of salt produced in Death Valley.

D. The damaging effects of salt on roads and highways.

42. The word "it" in line 11 refers to

A. salty water

B. groundwater table

C. capillary action

D. sediment

43. The word "exert" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

A. put

B. reduce

C. replace

D. control

44. In lines 16-20, why does the author compare tree roots with growing salt crystals?

A. They both force hard surfaces to crack.

B. They both grow as long as water is available.

C. They both react quickly to a rise in temperature.

D. They both cause salty water to rise from the groundwater table.

45. In lines 20-23, the author mentions the "expansion of halite crystals...by heating and of sulfates and similar salts by hydration" in order to

A. present an alternative theory about crystal growth

B. explain how some rocks are not affected by salt

C. simplify the explanation of crystal prying and wedging

D. introduce additional means by which crystals destroy rocks

46. The word "durable" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

A. large

B. strong

C. flexible

D. pressured

47. The word "shattered" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

A. arranged

B. dissolved

C. broken apart

D. gathered together

48. The word "dominant" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

A. most recent

B. most common

C. least available

D. least damaging

49. According to the passage, which of the following is true about the effects of salts on rocks?

A. Only two types of salts cause prying and wedging.

B. Salts usually cause damage only in combination with ice.

C. A variety of salts in all kinds of environments can cause weathering.

D. Salt damage at the seashore is more severe than salt damage in Death Valley,

50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about rocks that are found in areas where ice is common?

A. They are protected from weathering.

B. They do not allow capillary action of water.

C. They show similar kinds of damage as rocks in Death Valley.

D. They contain more carbonates than sulfates.

2004年08月语法题

1. In tile philosophical school of pragmatism, -----certainty and there are no absolutes.

(A) there is no

(B) is there not

(C) neither

(D) no

2. The femur, or thighbone, is -------in the human body.

(A) the bone is longest

(B) the longest bone that

(C) the longest bone

(D) that of which the longest bone

3. ----- different kinds of beans are cultivated throughout the world.

(A) Many

(B) Of the many

(C) There are many

(D) Many are the

4. A major source of rock salt is domes, ------of rock salt embedded in surrounding layers of earth.

(A) are that vertical cylinders

(B) that vertical cylinders

(C) cylinders are vertical

(D) vertical cylinders

5. Hot springs are one of the most characteristic features of areas of recent volcanic activity, although----- in other areas less abundantly.

(A) also to have occurred

(B) their occurrence also

(C) also occur

(D) they do also occur

6. Soap operas, a type of television drama series, are so called because at first they were --- such as soap manufacturers.

(A) commercial companies by sponsored

(B) companies commercial by sponsored

(C) sponsored by commercial companies

(D) companies commercial sponsored by

7. In the early 1900's, Albert Einstein showed---, under special circumstances, matter and energy can be converted into one another.

(A) in which

(B) that

(C) what

(D) there are

8.------in the United States began in the eighteenth century, when individuals, merchants, and colonial governments loaned money to one another.

(A) Banking

(B) When banking

(C) It was banking

(D) Banking was

9. By performing specific motions, forager honeybees are able to recruit ---------to gather at a recently discovered food source.

(A) while their nestmates

(B) so that their nestmates

(C) their nestmates

(D) their nestmates are

10. Although the chemical elements niobium and tantalum are not quite ---------- zirconium and hafnium, the differences between them are slight

(A) as similar

(B) as similar as

(C) similar than

(D) that similar

11. ------ both safety and reliability have always been primary goals of the railway mechanical engineer.

(A) Railroad history

(B) Railroad history includes

(C) Throughout railroad history

(D) In railroad history there are

12. The trumpet is-----of most dance and jazz bands.

(A) a part is important

(B) partly important

(C) what part is important

(D) an important part

13. Most whole milk undergoes homogenization, ------hot milk is pumped through valves to break up and permanently disperse the fat lobules.

(A) a process

(B) which process

(C) a process in which

(D) which is a process

14. A lingua franca is any auxiliary language, -------a rudimentary kind, used as a medium of communication between people who speak different languages.

(A) of which usually

(B) which usually of

(C) is usually of

(D) usually of

15. In 1865 the astronomer Maria Mitchell became ----appointed to the faculty of Vassar College.

(A) as the first woman

(B) the first woman was

(C) the first woman

(D) being the first woman

16. Reptiles are found on land and in water, but they cannot alive in frigid climates because they need the Sun's warmth to give them energy.

17. Stone tools began to be replaced around 6,000 years ago by metal tools, who were used to build instruments and simple machines.

18. One of the most famous structures in the world, the Statue of Liberty is widely considered a inspiring symbol of hope and freedom.

19. Buses were developed at the beginning of the twentieth century to compete with streetcars by providing flexibility greater in routes.

20. Abundant rainfall or irrigation is necessary during the early grow period of coffee, but dry conditions during ripening produce beans with the best flavor.

21. There was at least 2,000 years ago that inhabitants of the Northwest Coast of North America first established trade mutes for obsidian.

22. The simplest polymers are created when pressure or heat causes small molecules alter slightly and link together in a long chain.

23. A Canadian Prime Minister must have the supportive of a majority of the members of the House of Commons to remain in office.

24. The Ashcan school of painting concentrated on ordinary --even ugly--city scenes, rendering they in straightforward, conventional styles that bordered occasionally on illustration.

25. By the end of the 1950"s, the suburban population of the United States totaled 60 million, approximately equivalence to the urban areas of the country.

26. Because it is often dependent of the conditions of crystallization, the composition of the minerals in a rock can be important in determining the rock's geologic history.

27. Endemic diseases are diseases that habitual infect only those persons living within certain geographical limits.

28. Regional geography examines, on a regional basis, the ways in which the people local interact with the environment of the area where they live.

29. The Mobile River and its tributaries, which flow south to the Gulf of Mexico, form most important river system in Alabama.

30. Beneath the surface of the ocean there lies a hidden world inhabit by plants and animals we rarely see.

31. Advertising's primary objective is to presell a product, that is, to convince consumers to purchase an item before they are actually see and inspect it.

32. Fats and fixed oils are greasy or waxy substance that ill their pure state are normally tasteless, colorless, and odorless.'

33. Of all the elements in the Earth's crust, oxygen is known to be the more common.

34. In microphotography, processes photographic are used to reproduce text or illustrations on film in sizes requiring magnification for reading or viewing them.

35. The round, hard-shelled nuts of the macadamia tree grow in clusters and are covered with husks what split when the nuts are ripe.

36. The United States Social Security Act, enacted in 1935, contained three major programs a retirement fund, unemployment insurance, and welfare grants for local distribute.

37. The light produced by lasers is in general far more monochromatic, powerfully, and coherent than that from any other light source.

38. Nineteenth-century United States artist John La Farge was the premier interior designer of his time, receiving commissions for church interiors, private houses, and mural.

39. During first ten years of the Space Age, which began in 1957, more than 500 artificial satellites were rocketed into orbit around the Earth.

40. Settlers streamed into Connecticut River towns in so large numbers between 1765 and 1790 that they nearly doubled the population of Hampshire County, Massachusetts.

PART THREE READING

People living today in the northwestern state of Washington who have many sources of news in addition to newspapers must stretch their imaginations to understand the importance of the press during much of the state's history. Beginning in 1852 with The Cohumblan. the first paper in (5) Washington Territory, newspapers served to connect settlers in frontier communities with each other and with the rnajor events of their times. Unlike many mid-century papers, The Columbian, published every Saturday in Olympia, one of Washington's larger towns, was "neutral in politics," meaning that it was not the organ of a particular political party or (10) religious group. For its first few years, it was the only newspaper in the territory, but during the following decades, enterprising Washingtonians founded many other papers. Few of these papers lasted long. Until the turn of the century, most were the production of an individual editor, who might begin with insufficient capital or fail to attract (15) a steady readership. Often working with no staff at all, these editors wrote copy, set type, delivered papers, oversaw billing, and sold advertising. Their highly personal journals reflected their own tastes, politics, and known as the "Oregon style"--graphic, torrid, and potentially libelous.

Early newspapers were thick with print, carrying no illustrations or (20) cartoons. Advertising was generally confined to the back pages and simply listed commodities received by local stores. Toward the end of the century, newspapers in Washington began to carry national advertising, especially from patent medicine companies, which bought space from agencies that brokered ads in papers all over the country. By 1900, (25)Washington boasted 19 daily and 176 weekly papers. Especially in the larger cities, they reflected less the personal opinions of the editor than the interests of the large businesses they had become. They subscribed to the Associated Press and United Press news services, and new technology permitted illustrations. Concentrating on features, crime reporting, and (30) sensationalism, they imitated the new mass-circulation papers that William Randolph Hearst and Joseph Pulitzer were making popular throughout the United States.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Ways in which various newspapers were advertised in Washington

(B) The history of newspapers in Washington

(C) Editors of the first Washington newspapers

(D) The illustrations in early Washington newspapers

2. What does the passage imply about early Washington newspapers?

(A) People relied on them as their primary source of news.

(B) They contained important historical articles.

(C) They were not as informative as today's newspapers.

(D) They rarely reflected the views of any particular religion.

3. In line 9, the word “it” refers to

(A) The Columbian

(B) Olympia

(C) religious group

(D) political party

4. In line 16, the word "oversaw" is closest in meaning to

(A) estimated

(B) supervised

(C) collected

(D) provided

5. In line 16, the word "'delivered'" is closest in meaning to

(A) confirmed

(B) compared

(C) questioned

(D) presented

6. According to the passage, which of the following was true of curly Washington newspapers?

(A) Most were owned by part-time editors who worked at other jobs.

(B) Most were run by editors who had little or no earlier newspaper experience.

(C) Most received financial support from the town in which they were published.

(D) Most stayed in business for only a short while.

7. What does the author mention as typical of early newspaper editors from Washington?

(A) Their capital grew rapidly.

(B) Their political opinions changed with time.

(C) They had many types of responsibilities.

(D) They were generally members of the same political party.

8. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about advertising in Washington newspapers of the mid-nineteenth century?

(A) It contained information about patent medicines.

(B) It focused on local rather than national products.

(C) It was printed on entire pages distributed in local stores.

(D) It was the only part of the paper containing cartoons.

9. In line 25, the word "boasted" is closest in meaning to

(A) planned

(B) financed

(C) was forced to close

(D) took pride in having

Question 10 - 19

Europa is the smallest of planet Jupiter's four largest moons and the second moon out from Jupiter. Until 1979, it was just another astronomy textbook statistic. Then came the close-up images obtained by the exploratory spacecraft Voyager 2, and within days, Europa was (5)transformed--in our perception, at least--into one of the solar system's most intriguing worlds. The biggest initial surprise was the ahnost total lack of detail, especially from far away. Even at close range, the only visible features are thin, kinked brown lines resembling cracks in an eggshell. And this analogy is not far off the mark. The surface of Europa is (10) almost pure water ice, but a nearly complete absence of craters indicates that Europa's surface ice resembles Earth's Antarctic ice cap. The eggshell analogy may be quite accurate since the ice could be as little as a few kilometers thick--a tree shell around what is likely a subsurface liquid ocean that, in turn, encases a rocky core. The interior of Europa has been (15) kept warm over the cons by tidal forces generated by the varying gravitational tugs of the other big moons as they wheel around Jupiter. The tides on Europa pull and relax in an endless cycle. The resulting internal heat keeps what would otherwise be ice melted almost to the surface. The cracklike marks on Europa's icy face appear to be fractures where water or (20) slush oozes from below.

Soon after Voyager 2's encounter with Jupiter in 1979, when the best images of Europa were obtained, researchers advanced the startling idea that Europa's subsurface ocean might harbor life. Life processes could have begun when Jupiter was releasing a vast store of internal heat. (25)Jupiter's early heat was produced by the compression of the material forming the giant planet. Just as the Sun is far less radiant today than the primal Sun, so the internal heat generated by Jupiter is minor compared to its former intensity. During this warm phase, some 4.6 billion years ago, Europa's ocean may have been liquid right to the surface, making it a (30)crucible for life.

10. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The effect of the tides on Europa's interior

(B) Temperature variations on Jupiter's moons

(C) Discoveries leading to a theory about one of Jupiter's moons

(D) Techniques used by Voyager 2 to obtain close-up images

11. The word "intriguing" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) changing

(B) perfect

(C) visible

(D) fascinating

12. In line 8, the author mentions "cracks in an eggshell" in order to help readers

(A) visualize Europa as scientists saw it in the Voyager 2 images

(B) appreciate the extensive and detailed informalion available by viewing Europa from far away

(C) understand the relationship of Europa to the solar system

(D) recognize the similarity of Europa to Jupiter's other moons

13. It can be inferred from the passage that astronomy textbooks prior to 1979

(A) provided many contradictory statistics about Europa

(B) considered Europa the most important of Jupiter's moons

(C) did not emphasize Europa because little information of interest was available

(D) did not mention Europa because it had not yet been discovered

14. What does the author mean by stating in line 9 that "this analogy is not far off the mark"?

(A) The definition is not precise.

(B) The discussion lacks necessary information.

(C) The differences are probably significant.

(D) The comparison is quite appropriate.

15. It can be inferred from the passage that Europa and Antarctica have in common which of the following?

(A) Both appear to have a surface with many craters.

(B) Both may have water beneath a thin, hard surface.

(C) Both have an ice cap that is melting rapidly.

(D) Both have areas encased by a rocky exterior.

16. The word "endless" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) new

(B) final

(C) temporary

(D) continuous

17. According to the passage, what is the effect of Jupiter's other large moons on Eurnpa?

(A) They prevent Europa's subsurface waters from freezing.

(B) They prevent tides that could damage Europa's surface.

(C) They produce the very hard layer of ice that characterizes Europa.

(D) They assure that the gravitational pull on Europa is maintained at a steady level.

18. According to the passage, Voyager 2's images Ied rcsearchers to develop which of the following theories'?

(A) Jupiter may be hotter today than it once was.

(B) Europa is far older than scientists originally thought

(C) Europa's temperature is maintained by Jupiter's vast store of internal heat.

(D) The ocean waters of Europa could contain some forms of life.

19. The word "it" in line 24 refers to

(A) internal heat

(B) warm phase

(C) Europa's ocean

(D) surface

Question 20 - 28

The term "print" has several meanings, so it is important to understand exactly what is meant by the artistic terminology. A print in the artistic sense is not a reproduction of a work of art done in some other medium, such as painting or drawing. That can in no sense be considered a work of (5) art, since the artist had no involvement with it. A print is an original work of art created by an indirect method. Instead of making an image directly on a surface, as in drawing or painting, the artist works on a master surface, which may be a sheet of metal, a block of stone, wood, plastic, or linoleum. From this master surface, numerous impressions may (10) be made by inking the surface, laying a sheet of paper on it, and then subjecting both surface and paper to pressure, generally by means of a printing press.

A print may exist in several versions. Sometimes the printmaker alters the image between impressions, so that each print is slightly different from (15) the others. Any series of such prints is referred to as multiples. The number of impressions (known as the edition) that are possible from a single original varies with the material. Prints made from linoleum, which wears readily, will be fewer than those made from a metal plate, which is capable of striking fine-quality prints in the thousands. It is customary to (20) number prints as they come off the press, the earlier impressions being the finest and therefore the most desirable.

Prints incorporate the same compositional principles, as paintings. Line, shape, or texture may be the predominant element according to the printing technique used. Some prints have obvious decorative qualities (25) while others may be filled with emotional impact. Printmaking derives from two historical sources: early woodblocks into which an image was cut and used to illustrate a book or playing cards, and the medieval practice of decorating metal with incised designs, as in armor. Today most techniques fall into one of four categories: relief (intaglio, lithography, and (30) serigraphy. However, there are many variations, combinations with photographic techniques, and considerable overlapping.

20. In the artistic sense, a print is a work of art created by

(A) making a painting from an original drawing

(B) drawing or painting similar images many times

(C) transferring an original image from one surface to another

(D) copying an original image made on paper onto a hard surface

21. The word "That" in line 4 refers to

(A) terminology

(B) sense

(C) reproduction

(D) medium

22. Which of the following is mentioned as an example of a master surface?

(A) a drawing or painting

(B) a block of stone

(C) a sheet of paper

(D) a printing press

23. The word "versions" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) ideas

(B) numbers

(C) functions

(D) forms

24. Which of the following terms is NOT defined in the passage?

(A) "print" (line 1)

(B) "impressions" (line 9)

(C) "multiples" (line 15)

(D) "edition" (line 16)

25. A metal plate is compared favorably with linoleum as a meter surface because a metal plate

(A) lasts longer

(B) is less expensive

(C) makes prints more quickly

(D) produces a greater variety of prints

26. The word "customary" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) necessary

(B) attractive

(C) legal

(D) usual

27. The phrase "according to" in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) in addition to

(B) in order to

(C) regardless of

(D) depending on

28. It can be inferred that prints may differ from other works of art in terms of all of the following EXCEPT

(A) compositional principles

(B) use of line, shape, or texture

(C) decorative qualities

(D) emotional impact

Question 29 - 39

Water projects in the United States gained a new rationale in the 1930's as the nation suffered its worst cconomic depression and the Great Plains region suffered its worst drought in recorded history. As the economy sank into a deep depression and unemployment rates increased, (5) the political climate for direct federal govermnent involvement in water projects improved. President Franklin Rooseveh's first 100 days in office brought a number of new laws to deal with the severe economic depression that became known as the Great Depression. Two of these laws, the Tennessee Valley Authority Act of 1933 and the National Recovery Act of I933 (NIRA), (10) had particular significance for water resource development.

The natural pattern of the Tennessee River was characterized by large spring flows that produced destructive floods and low summer flows that inhibited navigation. The intensily and frequency of the events discouraged development and contributed to persistent poverty in the (15)valley. To counter these natural obstacles, the Tennessee Valley Authority Act of 1933 created the Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA), a public agency with broad powers to promote development in the region, including the authority to build dams and reservoirs and to generate and sell hydroelectric power. The TVA is a unique institution in that it brings (20) all the water-related functions of the federal government under a single body. The TVA used its authority to transform the Tennessee River into one of the most highly regulated rivers in the world within about two decades. The TVA inherited the Wilson Dam, and by the beginning of the Second World War it had completed six additional multipurpose dams (25)with power plants and locks for navigation. Investments in dams and hydropower facilities within the Tennessee Valley also received high priority during the war.

The NIRA authorized the creation of the Public Works Administration to create jobs while undertaking work of benefit to the community. The (30) NIRA also gave the United States President unprecedented powers to initiate public works, including water projects. The Public Works Administration provided loans and grants to state and local governments and to federal agencies for municipal waterworks, sewage plants, irrigation, flood control, and waterpower projects.

29. All of the following are mentioned as resulting from the Great Depression EXCEPT

(A) an increase in unemployment

(B) a change in political thinking

(C) a different approach to water projects

(D) a new study of the history of droughts

30. It can be inferred from the passage that before the 1930's the role of the federal government in water projects was

(A) restricted to the Great Plains region

(B) more important than its role in other conservation projects

(C) more limited than it was after 1930

(D) designed to help with drought recovery

31. The word "'significance'" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) difference

(B) disturbance

(C) importance

(D) excellence

32. Which of the following discouraged development of the Tennessee Valley prior to 1933 ?

(A) Laws imposed by the local government

(B) The effects of seasonal flows of the river

(C) The lack of suitable building materials

(D) The geographical features of the valley

33. The word "counter" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) explain

(B) measure

(C) exploit

(D) overcome

34. The passage mentions "the authority to build dams and reservoirs" in line 18 as an example of the

(A) wide powers of the Tennessee Valley Authority

(B) responsibilities of regional governments

(C) federal government's interests in profit-making water projects

(D) development needed to generate hydroelectric power

35. The word "transform" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) clean

(B) change

(C) control

(D) widen

36. According to the passage, the Tennessee Valley Authority decided to

(A) introduce rules to control the use of the Tennessee River

(B) build the Wilson Dam

(C) reduce investment in hydropower facilities in the Tennessee Valley

(D) increase the price of electricity

37. The word "it" in line 24 refers to

(A) the Tennessee River

(B) the TVA

(C) the Wilson Dam

(D) the Second World War

38. The word "unprecedented" in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) not extensive

(B) not used often

(C) not existing before

(D) not needing money

39. According to the passage, one of the functions of the Public Works Administration was to

(A) replace the NIRA

(B) regulate federal agencies

(C) influence presidential policy

(D) give financial support to state and local governments

Question 39 - 50

Many of the most flexible examples of tool use in animals come from primates (the order that includes humans, apes, and monkeys). For example, many wild primates use objects to threaten outsiders. But there are many examples of tool use by other mammals, as well as by birds and (5) other types of animals.

Tools are used by many species in the capture or preparation of food. Chimpanzees use sticks and poles to bring out ants and termites from their hiding places. Among the most complex tool use observed in the wild is the use of stones by Ivory Coast chimpanzees to crack nuts open. They (10) select a large flat stone as an anvil (a heavy block on which to place the nuts) and a smaller stone as a hammer. Stones suitable for use as anvils are not easy to find, and often a chimpanzee may carry a haul of nuts more than 40 meters to find a suitable anvil. The use of tools in chimpanzees is especially interesting because these animals sometimes modify tools to (15) make them better suited for their intended purpose. To make a twig more effective for digging out termites, for example, a chimp may first strip it of its leaves.

Surprisingly, there is also a species of bird that uses sticks to probe holes in the search for insects. One of the species of Galapagos finch, the (20) woodpecker finch, picks up or breaks off a twig, cactus spine, or leaf stem. This primitive tool is then held in the beak and used to probe for insects in holes in trees that the bird cannot probe directly with its beak. Birds have been seen to carry twigs from tree to tree searching for prey.

Tools may also be used for defense. Hermit crabs grab sea anemones (25) with their claws and use them as weapons to repel their enemies. Studies have demonstrated that these crabs significantly improve their chances against predators such as octopus by means of this tactic. Also, many species of forest-dwelling primates defend themselves by throwing objects, including stones, at intruders.

40. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Primates are superior to other animals in using tools.

(B) The use of stones as tools is similar across different animal species.

(C) Birds and primates use tools that are different from those of sea animals.

(D) Many animals have developed effective ways of using tools.

41. Why does the author mention ants and termites in line 6 ?

(A) To give an example of food that chimpanzees collect by using tools

(B) To emphasize that ants and termites often hide together in the same place

(C) To identify an important part of the chimpanzee diet

(D) To point out a difference between two closely related species

42. According to the passage, Ivory Coast chimpanzees are among the most remarkable of animal tool users because they

(A) use tools to gather food

(B) use more than one tool to accomplish a task

(C) transport tools from one place to another

(D) hide their tools from other animals

43. The word "haul" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) diet

(B) type

(C) load

(D) branch

44. The word "them" in line 15 refers to

(A) chimpanzees

(B) animals

(C) tools

(D) termites

45. The word "strip" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) search

(B) eat

(C) carry

(D) remove

46. The word "probe" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) change

(B) watch

(C) explore

(D) create

47. According to the passage, what is characteristic of the way in which woodpecker finches hunt insects?

(A) The finches use different plant parts as tools to capture insects.

(B) The finches make narrow holes in trees to trap insects.

(C) The finches pick up insects that they find on leaves.

(D) The finches catch insects in the air as they fly from tree to tree.

48. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the behavior of the woodpecker finch? (A) It uses its beak as a weapon against its enemies.

(B) It uses the same twig to look for food in different trees.

(C) It uses twigs and leaves to build its nest.

(D) It avoids areas where cactus

49. According to the passage, studies have shown that hermit crabs manage to turn octopus away by

(A) attacking the octopus with their claws

(B) using stones as weapons

(C) defending themselves with sea anemones

(D) hiding under sea plants

50. Forest primates and certain sea animals are mentioned in the passage as examples of animals that use tools for

(A) self-protection

(B) food preparation

(C) hunting prey

(D) building nests or home plants grow.